wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

DEPTALS REVIEWER 2ND YEAR COURSES

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 3hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which principle of design refers to the distribution of visual weight in a work of art?

a)

Rhythm

b)

Balance

c)

Proportion

d)

Emphasis

2.

The element of art that is the path of a moving point, which can be thick, thin, or implied, is:

a)

Shape

b)

Color

c)

Line

d)

Texture

3.

Which historical period is known for its use of dramatic lighting (chiaroscuro), intense emotion, and deep shadows, exemplified by artists like Caravaggio?

a)

Impressionism

b)

Baroque

c)

Renaissance

d)

Neoclassicism

4.

In color theory, what are colors formed by mixing a primary color and a secondary color (e.g., red-orange, blue-green)?

a)

Complementary colors

b)

Tertiary colors

c)

Analogous colors

d)

Split-complementary colors

5.

Which movement sought to capture the fleeting moment and the effect of light and atmosphere, often painting outdoors (en plein air)?

a)

Cubism

b)

Abstract Expressionism

c)

Impressionism

d)

Surrealism

6.

What is the subject matter of a portrait?

a)

It is primarily concerned with landscapes and nature scenes.

b)

It focuses on the depiction of inanimate objects or food.

c)

It is an artistic representation of a specific person, usually the face and upper body.

d)

It aims to depict mythological or historical events.

7.

Which Filipino National Artist is considered the "Father of Modern Filipino Sculpture"?

a)

Carlos "Botong" Francisco

b)

Fernando Amorsolo

c)

Guillermo Tolentino

d)

Ang Kiukok

8.

What is value in art?

a)

It is the texture of the surface, whether smooth or rough.

b)

It is the lightness or darkness of a color.

c)

It is the purity or intensity of a color, also known as chroma.

d)

It is the overall feeling or mood of the artwork.

9.

The use of a small area of contrasting color to draw the viewer's eye to a specific point is an application of which principle?

a)

Harmony

b)

Rhythm

c)

Emphasis

d)

Variety

10.

The term for the size relation of one object to another or to the whole in an artwork is:

a)

Scale

b)

Proportion

c)

Mass

d)

Format

11.

How does the performing arts fundamentally differ from the visual arts?

a)

Performing arts always rely on a large audience, while visual arts do not.

b)

Performing arts (like theatre, music, dance) are temporal and transitory, requiring human performers to enact a work in time, while visual arts (like painting, sculpture) are spatial and permanent objects.

c)

Visual arts are never collaborative, while performing arts always are.

d)

Performing arts use only traditional musical instruments, while visual arts use only digital tools.

12.

What defines an artwork that is non-objective (or non-representational)?

a)

It represents objects in a distorted or exaggerated manner for emotional effect.

b)

It depicts recognizable objects that have been simplified or stylized.

c)

It contains no reference to the natural world or to recognizable subjects.

d)

It uses realistic imagery but places the objects in impossible or dream-like settings.

13.

The term aesthetics is best defined as:

a)

The study of the cost and market value of an artwork.

b)

The technique an artist uses to mix their paint.

c)

The philosophy or study of the nature of art, beauty, and taste.

d)

The historical timeline of art movements across different cultures.

14.

What is the role of the subject in an artwork?

a)

It is the way the artwork is organized and structured.

b)

It is the materials used to create the artwork.

c)

It is the literal, recognizable image or theme the artist chooses to depict.

d)

It is the message or meaning communicated by the artwork.

15.

Which of the following is an example of an artwork with a socio-political function?

a)

A vase designed purely for decoration on a mantelpiece.

b)

A painting of a beautiful sunset created for emotional comfort.

c)

A religious icon used for private worship and contemplation.

d)

A mural depicting the suffering of war victims, intended to provoke protest and reform.

16.

What is the primary focus of Formalism as an approach to art criticism?

a)

It emphasizes the artist's life and historical context of the artwork.

b)

It interprets the artwork based on the viewer's emotional response.

c)

It analyzes the work through the lens of political and class struggle.

d)

It focuses exclusively on the visual elements and principles of design within the work itself, ignoring external context.

17.

When viewing the Guernica by Pablo Picasso, which method of interpretation is most necessary to understand its primary message?

a)

Analyzing its technical use of sfumato and chiaroscuro.

b)

Focusing purely on the geometric shapes and lack of color.

c)

Understanding the historical context of the Spanish Civil War and the bombing it depicts.

d)

Comparing it to Roman statues to find classical influences.

18.

Which of the following best describes the function of art as a form of cultural expression?

a)

Art is merely a source of income for the artists who create it.

b)

Art serves only as a record of an artist's personal feelings and thoughts.

c)

Art preserves and communicates the beliefs, values, and traditions of a society across generations.

d)

Art's sole purpose is to provide beautiful objects for interior decoration.

19.

The concept of mimesis (imitation) was central to the Classical Greek understanding of art. What does this suggest about their art goals?

a)

It suggests that art should be completely non-objective and non-representational.

b)

It suggests that art should focus on the expression of raw, unbridled emotion.

c)

It suggests that the highest goal of art is to skillfully imitate the appearance of the natural world.

d)

It suggests that art should only imitate geometric shapes and mathematical concepts.

20.

What is the fundamental difference between the mass and volume of a three-dimensional object?

a)

Mass refers only to the height, and volume refers only to the width of the object.

b)

Mass is the physical bulk and weight of a material, while volume is the space that the object occupies.

c)

Volume is only used in architecture, and mass is only used in sculpture.

d)

There is no difference; the terms are perfectly interchangeable in art.

21.

Which of the following statements best describes the nature of beauty in contemporary art?

a)

Beauty is still universally understood as the perfect symmetry and ideal proportions of classical forms.

b)

The traditional concept of beauty is often challenged, and the aesthetic value is frequently found in the conceptual originality, emotional intensity, or the subject matter's raw truth.

c)

Beauty is only achieved when an artwork is made with very expensive and rare materials.

d)

Contemporary artists have largely abandoned the goal of beauty in favor of commercial success.

22.

When an artist focuses on composition, what are they primarily concerned with?

a)

They are concerned with the philosophical message or narrative of the piece.

b)

They are concerned with the amount of money they will receive for the artwork.

c)

They are concerned with the thoughtful and planned arrangement of all the elements and principles within the work.

d)

They are concerned with finding the perfect model to pose for their painting.

23.

The term non-representational art is often used interchangeably with which other term?

a)

Romanticism

b)

Realism

c)

Figurative Art

d)

Abstract Art

24.

In drama, the term catharsis refers to what experience for the audience?

a)

It refers to the moment the main character achieves their goal.

b)

It refers to the moment of comic relief within a tragedy.

c)

It refers to the purging of emotions, such as pity and fear, experienced by the audience at the play's climax.

d)

It refers to the main character's fatal flaw or error in judgment.

25.

Which statement best defines post-modernism in art?

a)

It is a movement strictly dedicated to creating highly realistic, academic paintings.

b)

It is a period marked by skepticism towards "grand narratives," a mixing of styles (pastiche), and irony and parody to question previous art movements.

c)

It is solely focused on the use of computer-generated images and virtual reality.

d)

It is a continuation of the Impressionist focus on light and color effects.

26.

Ito ay ang baryasyon ng wika na ginagamit sa partikular na rehiyon o grupo.

a)

Sosyolek

b)

Wikang Katutubo

c)

Dialekto

d)

Diyalogo

27.

Sa unang tatlong baitang ng elementarya, ang mga mag-aaral ay tinuturuan gamit ang kanilang katutubong wika bilang pangunahing wikang panturo, habang unti-unting ipinapakilala ang Filipino at Ingles. 

a)

Lingua Franca

b)

MTB-MLE

c)

K–12 Curriculum

d)

Bilingual Education Policy

28.

Ito ay isang sikolohikal na konsepto kung saan ang tagumpay ng iba ay itinuturing na banta, na nagiging sanhi ng kompetisyon at inggit. 

a)

Tatak Tate

b)

Filipino Time

c)

Tapat Ko, Linis Ko

d)

  1. Talangka Mentality

29.

Ito ay ang uri ng kasinungalingan na maaaring makita bilang isang pamamaraan upang mapanatili ang kapayapaan o maiwasan ang alitan. 

a)

Kapayapaan

b)

White lies

c)

Komprontasyon

d)

Pagpapakatotoo

30.

Ang Wikang Panturo ay: 

a)

Midyum o daluyan ng pagtuturo at pagkatuto sa sistema ng edukasyon.

b)

Ginagamit ng mga guro upang ipahayag ang kanilang personal na opinyon sa politika.

c)

Itinakda upang gamitin sa mga batas at pormal na dokumento ng gobyerno.

d)

  1. Ginagamit ng mga katutubo sa pang araw-araw na diskurso. 

31.

Kailan ipinatupad ang Mother tongue-Based Multilingual Education (MTB MLE) sa bansa?

a)

2007

b)

2006

c)

2010

d)

2009

32.

Ang mga sumusunod ay iba pang termino para sa Lingua Franca, maliban sa:

a)

Auxiliary language

b)

Bridge language

c)

Link language

d)

Second language

33.

Ang pahayag ni Mike Enriquez na “Excuse me po!” ay isang halimbawa ng:

a)

Sosyolek

b)

Idyolek

c)

Dayalek

d)

Etnolek

34.

Teoryang Siyentipiko: Yoo-he-uo, Teoryang Biblikal: __________

a)

  1. Teoryang Pooh pooh 

b)

Teorya ni Babel

c)

Pentecostes

d)

Teoryang Ta-ta

35.

Sa petsang ito ibinaba ang Kautusang Tagapagpaganap Blg. 134 kung saan ipinahayag ng Pangulong Quezon ang Wikang Pambansa ng Pilipnas na batay sa TAGALOG. 

a)

Oktubre 27, 1936

b)

Enero 12, 1937

c)

  1. Disyembre 30, 1937

d)

Hunyo 18, 1937

36.

Piliin ang wastong pagkakapareho ng termino at petsa. 

a)

Tagalog (1938), Filipino (1959), Filipino (1973)

b)

Filipino (1937), Pilipino (1973), Tagalog (1959)

c)

Tagalog (1937), Pilipino (1959), Filipino (1973)

d)

Filipino (1934), Pilipino (1953), Tagalog (1999)

37.

Ayon kay Halliday, ang mga sumusunod ay ang mga Tungkulin ng Wika, MALIBAN SA: 

a)

Pang-instrumental

b)

Interaksyunal

c)

Personal

d)

Pangturo

38.

Ito ay iminungkahi ng linggwistang si Jesperson na ang wika ay nagmula sa paglalaro, pagtawa, pagbulong sa sarilim panliligaw at iba pang bulalas-emosyonal. 

a)

Sing-song

b)

Yoo-he-yo

c)

Hey you!

d)

Babble Lucky

39.

Ayon kay Boeree, maaaring pinanggagalingan ng wika ay tulad ng pinanggalingan ng mga mahikal o relihiyosong aspeto ng pamumuhay ng ating mga ninuno. 

a)

Eureka!

b)

Hocus Pocus

c)

Ta-ra-ra-boom-de-ay

d)

Mama

40.

Ito ay ang mga pwersang may kinalaman sa romansa. Ang salik na nagtutulak sa tao upang magsalita. 

a)

Coo-coo

b)

Yum-yum

c)

La-la

d)

Ding-dong

41.

Ayon sa teoryang ito, nagmula ang ika sa mga pinakamadadaling pantig ng pinagkamahahalagang bagay.

a)

Ta-ta

b)

La-la

c)

Mama

d)

Pooh-pooh

42.

It is a flexible and accessible form of education that allows learners to access resources and participate in learning activities remotely, often at their own pace and schedule.

a)

Blended Learning

b)

Online Learning

c)

E-learning

d)

Mobile Learning

43.

The following are the different types of distance education, EXCEPT:

a)

Virtual Classroom

b)

Web conferencing

c)

Modular Learning

d)

LMS

44.

Which of the following best explain what Modules are:

a)

These are the uploaded courses and lessons available on the internet

b)

These materials are pre-recorded copies of instructors giving discussions and presentations

c)

These are the answering materials provided to the students at the end of the lesson

d)

These are developed to help learners access education during distance learning

45.

“Student-paced online learning with teacher support on demand.”

a)

Enriched Virtual

b)

Station Rotation Model

c)

Flipped Classroom Model

d)

Flex Model

46.

“Teacher-led instruction with technology as support.”

a)

A La Carte Model

b)

Face-To-Face Driver Model

c)

Enriched Virtual

d)

Flex Model

47.

Which of the following best defines a blog?

a)

Online communities for topic-specific discussions

b)

Downloadable or streamable audio/video files, often interviews and commentaries

c)

Specialized programs for smartphones and tablets providing specific functions

d)

Personal websites for sharing thoughts and opinions informally

48.

The following are the characteristics of non-conventional instructional support, EXCEPT:

a)

Inaccessible and exclusive

b)

Sustainable and ongoing in use

c)

Goal-aligned and purposeful

d)

Engaging and interactive

49.

It is a collection of digital files (artifacts) that are shared electronically for the purpose of reflection, comment, and evaluation.

a)

Google Site

b)

Google Drive

c)

E-portfolio

d)

Infographics

50.

It is the ability to access, manage, understand, integrate, communicate, evaluate, and create information safely and appropriately through digital technologies.

a)

Media Literacy

b)

Digital Literacy

c)

Technological Literacy

d)

Critical Literacy

51.

This ensures that individuals engage with digital environments responsibility and respectfully.

a)

Communication Skills

b)

Information Evaluation

c)

Ethical Awareness

d)

Technical Proficiency

52.

Digital literacy is not a fixed skill but a continually evolving competency that necessitates continuous learning and adjustment to new technologies and digital settings.

a)

Life-long Learning

b)

Educational Strategies

c)

Information Evaluation

d)

Technical Proficiency

53.

The following are the importance of Digital Literacy for students, EXCEPT:

a)

Builds 21st-century skills

b)

Promotes self-paced learning

c)

Prepares for future careers

d)

Focuses on passive instruction

54.

What are the six key characteristics of instructional materials?

a)

Clarity of content, accuracy, relevance, variety of formats, engagement, suitability to learner level

b)

Completeness of content, accuracy, relevance, variety of formats, engagement, sustainability

c)

Clarity of content, accuracy, relevance, variety of formats, engagement, suitability to learner level

d)

Clarify of content, application, relevance, variety of formats, engagement, suitability to learner level

55.

It is a type of instructional material that is a three-dimensional miniature which shows a specific place, event, or situation, often designed to look realistic.

a)

Diorama

b)

Nature Table

c)

Writing Board

d)

Flip chart

56.

It is a multi-board series of three or four rectangular boards. They are joined together along the sides by hinges so that they can be easily folded up and carried.

a)

Wall display

b)

Zig-zag Board

c)

Drawing Kit

d)

Flip Chart

57.

This board consists of two parallel, horizontal, or vertical poles tied loosely together with rope. Visual aids such as posters can be pinned to the rope.

a)

Flip chart

b)

Writing board

c)

Rope and Pole Display

d)

Drawing Kit

58.

According to Edgar Dale's Cone of Experience, which level represents the most direct and purposeful form of learning, often considered the foundation for effective instruction?

a)

Dramatized Experiences

b)

Contrived Experiences

c)

Direct, Purposeful Experiences

d)

Visual Symbols

59.

In the ASSURE model for instructional design, the step that focuses on identifying the characteristics of the students, such as their prior knowledge, skills, and learning styles, is the:

a)

Select strategies, technology, media, & materials

b)

State standards & objectives

c)

Analyze learners

d)

Require learner participation

60.

What is the primary purpose of the 'R' (Require Learner Participation) step in the ASSURE instructional design model?

a)

To ensure the instructional material meets the stated objectives

b)

To provide practice and feedback to reinforce learning

c)

To justify the selection of the media and technology

d)

To categorize the learners based on their demographic data

61.

The step 'U' (Utilize technology, media, & materials) in the ASSURE model involves which of the following actions?

a)

Writing clear, measurable performance objectives

b)

Conducting a formative assessment to check student understanding

c)

Providing students with a choice of which media to use for their project

d)

Preparing the equipment, conducting a practice run, and actually implementing the instruction

62.

Which component of the TPACK framework is defined as the understanding of how to select and use technology tools for specific content in the context of pedagogical practice?

a)

Technology Pedagogical Knowledge (TPK)

b)

Technology Content Knowledge (TCK)

c)

Content Knowledge (CK)

d)

Technological Pedagogical Content Knowledge (TPACK)

63.

A history teacher understands how specific historical concepts (Content) can be made easier to grasp using debate and role-playing (Pedagogy), but has not yet figured out how to integrate digital tools. This teacher demonstrates strong PCK but a weakness in which specific overlapping TPACK knowledge area?

a)

Technology Knowledge (TK)

b)

Technological Pedagogical Knowledge (TPK)

c)

Technology Content Knowledge (TCK)

d)

Content Knowledge (CK)

64.

A teacher moves a writing assignment from a physical notebook to a shared cloud document where students provide real-time, peer-to-peer feedback and the teacher monitors progress simultaneously. Which level of the SAMR model does this scenario primarily represent?

a)

Substitution

b)

Augmentation

c)

Redefinition

d)

Modification

65.

In the SAMR model, the levels Substitution and Augmentation are grouped together under the category of Enhancement. What is the key common characteristic of tasks at these two levels?

a)

The task is redesigned to be fundamentally new and impossible without the technology

b)

The technology provides functional improvement without fundamentally changing the core task

c)

The technology acts as a direct tool substitute without any functional change

d)

The technology allows for the creation of a dynamic digital portfolio

66.

Which scenario best exemplifies the Redefinition level of the SAMR model?

a)

Students use a word processor to type an essay, replacing handwriting in a notebook

b)

Students use presentation software to deliver a lecture instead of using overhead transparencies

c)

Students create a collaborative virtual reality museum exhibit for a global audience using 3D modeling software

d)

Students use an online quiz platform that automatically grades and records scores, adding a functional improvement

67.

A field trip to a local art studio, where students observe a pottery demonstration and then get a chance to briefly touch and feel the tools and clay, would most closely align with which two adjacent levels of Dale's Cone of Experience?

a)

Verbal Symbols and Visual Symbols

b)

Field Trips and Demonstrations

c)

Dramatized Experiences and Exhibits

d)

Contrived Experiences and Direct, Purposeful Experiences

68.

It is the process of curriculum design, teaching, learning and assessment that focuses on what students can actually do after they are taught.

a)

Understanding-by Design

b)

Outcome-Based Education

c)

Learning Competencies

d)

Objectives

69.

This is what a graduate of an educational institution is supposed to be able to do beyond graduation.

a)

Program outcome

b)

Course outcome

c)

Intermediate outcome

d)

Institutional outcome

70.

This refers to the ability to apply cognitive, psychomotor and affective skills/competencies in various situations many years after completion of a degree program.

a)

Deferred outcomes

b)

Course outcomes

c)

Intermediate outcomes

d)

Program outcomes

71.

It is the process of determining or describing the attributes or characteristics of physical objects generally in terms of quantity.

a)

Testing

b)

Assessment

c)

Measurement

d)

Evaluation

72.

This type of measurements are more stable since repeated measurements of the same quantity or quality will produce more or less the same outcome.

a)

Subjective measurement

b)

Absolute measurement

c)

Partial measurement

d)

Objective measurement

73.

This is the origin of the word “assessment” which means “to sit beside.”

a)

Assidure

b)

Assidere

c)

Accisere

d)

Asidere

74.

This is the process of gathering evidence of students’ performance over a period of time.

a)

Assessment

b)

Evaluation

75.

This is a process designed to provide information that will help us to make a judgement about a particular situation.

a)

Testing

b)

Measurement

c)

Evaluation

d)

Assessment

76.

If the goal of the teacher is to determine deficiencies so that the appropriate intervention can be done, what type of evaluation does he/she need to administer?

a)

Diagnostic Evaluation

b)

Summative Evaluation

c)

Screening Evaluation

d)

Formative Evaluation

77.

It is designed to determine the effectiveness of a program or activity based on its avowed purposes.

a)

Diagnostic Evaluation

b)

Summative Evaluation

c)

Screening Evaluation

d)

Formative Evaluation

78.

This type of assessment is associated with self-assessment.

a)

Assessment of Learning

b)

Assessment for Learning

c)

Assessment as Learning

d)

Assessment in Learning

79.

In this type of assessment, the teacher uses the result to inform or adjust their teaching.

a)

Assessment of Learning

b)

Assessment for Learning

c)

Assessment as Learning

d)

Assessment in Learning

80.

This category of knowledge refers to essential facts, terminology, details or elements students must know or be familiar with in order to understand a discipline or solve a problem in it.

a)

Conceptual Knowledge

b)

Factual Knowledge

c)

Procedural Knowledge

d)

Metacognitive Knowledge

81.

Which of the following best defines Procedural Knowledge?

a)

Knowing how to do something

b)

Thinking about thinking

c)

Interrelation of facts

d)

Facts, terminology, details or elements

82.

Which of the following shows the broadest to most specific levels of OBE?

a)

Learning, Course, Program, Institutional

b)

Course, Program, Learning, Institutional

c)

Institutional, Program, Course, Learning

d)

Institutional, Course, Program, Learning

83.

Which of the following fosters traditional assessment?

a)

Rote memorization

b)

Differentiated assessment

c)

Essay-type assessment

d)

Situational-type assessment

84.

This domain of learning focuses on physical movement and dexterity, from basic motor skills to complex performance.

a)

Cognitive

b)

Affective

c)

Metacognitive

d)

Psychomotor

85.

When was the Bloom taxonomy first developed?

a)

1958

b)

1956

c)

2001

d)

2010

86.

Who was the person behind Bloom’s Taxonomy?

a)

Michael Bloom

b)

Benjamin Bloom

c)

Lorin Anderson

d)

Lev Vygotsky

87.

Which grading system is characterized by evaluating a student’s performance in comparison to the performance of their classmates or peers?

a)

Criterion-Referenced Grading

b)

Cumulative Grading System

c)

Norm-Referenced Grading

d)

Averaging Grading System

88.

A teacher decides that any student who scores 75% or higher on the final project will receive a passing mark, regardless of how other students performed. Which grading system is being used?

a)

Norm-Referenced Grading

b)

Criterion-Referenced Grading

c)

Cumulative Grading System

d)

Pass-Fail System

89.

In the DepEd K to 12 Basic Education Program, what specific method is used to calculate the final grade by combining the grades from all previous grading periods within the same subject?

a)

Norm-Referenced Grading

b)

Cumulative Grading System

c)

Averaging Grading System

d)

Absolute Grading System

90.

Which statement accurately describes a key advantage of the Criterion-Referenced Grading system?

a)

It naturally limits the number of students who can achieve high grades.

b)

It is highly effective in promoting academic competition among students.

c)

It encourages collaboration among students since one student’s success does not depend on another’s failure.

d)

It is highly sensitive to the presence of extremely high or low scores (outliers).

91.

Which measure of central tendency is defined as the score that occurs most frequently in a distribution?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

Range

92.

In a skewed distribution of scores where there are a few extremely high scores (outliers), which measure of central tendency would be the most appropriate representation of the typical score?

a)

Median

b)

Mean

c)

Mode

d)

Standard Deviation

93.

Measures of Dispersion, such as the Range and Standard Deviation, primarily indicate the:

a)

Center point of the score distribution.

b)

Spread or how varied the scores are.

c)

Most frequent score in the set.

d)

Overall passing rate of the students.

94.

Which measure of variability is calculated by taking the square root of the variance?

a)

Range

b)

Mean Deviation

c)

Standard Deviation

d)

Variance

95.

This is a belief system developed to explain what was not scientifically understood.

a)

Folklore

b)

Religion

c)

Mythology

d)

Cherry Pie Picache

96.

The following are the characteristics of a Myth in Literature EXCEPT.

a)

Told as if they were factual

b)

Doesn’t explain anything, they are only epics

c)

God and/or goddess, often came to be in the world

d)

Teach morals to their audience

97.

In Greek thought, what is the main difference between mythos and logos?

a)

Mythos refers to sacred stories, while logos refers to reasoned speech and interpretation

b)

Mythos means logical reasoning, while logos means fictional tales

c)

Mythos is scientific explanation, while logos is ritual practice

d)

Mythos and logos both mean the same: word and speech

98.

Who revealed to Oedipus that he was the son of Laius and Jocasta?

a)

Creon

b)

Tiresias

c)

The shepherd

d)

The messenger

99.

Why did Aeneas leave Queen Dido in Carthage despite their love?

a)

He was forced by Turnus

b)

He wanted to return to Troy

c)

Dido betrayed him

d)

The gods reminded him of his duty to found Rome

100.

In Greek mythology, Odysseus uses his wit to escape the Cyclops Polyphemus. Which analytical lesson can be drawn from this episode?

a)

Strength is always superior to intelligence

b)

Cleverness can overcome obstacles

c)

Heroes must rely solely on divine intervention

d)

Physical force is the only path to survival

101.

In Norse mythology, Loki often causes chaos but also helps the gods. What does this dual role suggest about trickster figures in folklore?

a)

They are always villains

b)

They exist only to punish humans

c)

They symbolize the triumph of good over evil

d)

They highlight the balance

102.

The Filipino epic Biag ni Lam-ang features Lam-ang’s extraordinary birth and heroic deeds. How can this narrative be applied to understanding cultural values?

a)

It emphasizes the importance of lineage, bravery, and communal honor

b)

It reflects the community’s admiration for supernatural beings

c)

It discourages heroism in everyday life

d)

It portrays myths as purely entertainment without moral lessons

103.

In Japanese folklore, the tale of Momotaro (Peach Boy) involves defeating ogres with the help of animal companions. What analytical interpretation best explains the role of the animals?

a)

They symbolize the unpredictability of nature

b)

They represent the importance of cooperation and collective effort

c)

They show that humans must dominate animals to succeed

d)

They serve only as comic relief in the story

104.

Evaluating Hercules’ Twelve Labors alongside Beowulf’s battles, what overarching cultural value emerges from these heroic narratives?

a)

Both traditions emphasize the futility of heroism, portraying heroes as tragic failures.

b)

Both works reject supernatural challenges, focusing only on human conflicts.

c)

They depict heroes as selfish individuals seeking personal glory without regard for others.

d)

They highlight the hero’s role as protector of the community, which safeguard collective survival.

105.

Evaluating Beowulf’s battles against Grendel, Grendel’s mother, and the dragon, what broader cultural value do these struggles represent when compared to frontier-style North American folklore heroes (e.g., Paul Bunyan)?

a)

Both traditions emphasize the hero’s role in taming chaos and protecting communal survival.

b)

Beowulf’s struggles highlight only personal glory without communal duty.

c)

They portray supernatural foes as illusions rather than real threats.

d)

Paul Bunyan’s feats reject communal survival and favor isolation.

106.

In African folklore, Anansi often triumphs through wit rather than strength. When compared with Hercules’ labors, what evaluation best explains the cultural significance of Anansi’s victories?

a)

Anansi reflects intelligence and adaptability, while Hercules embodies valor through physical endurance.

b)

Both heroes rely exclusively on brute force to overcome obstacles.

c)

Anansi and Hercules equally reject communal values, focusing only on selfish ambition.

d)

Anansi’s tales show the futility of wisdom, while Hercules proves that only divine favor matters.

107.

What is the Latin root of the word communication?

a)

Communis

b)

Communicare

c)

Communitas

d)

Commune

108.

Which communication model is expressed as “Who says what, in which channel, to whom, with what effect”?

a)

Shannon-Weaver Model

b)

Lasswell Model

c)

Osgood Model

d)

Schramm Model

109.

In Shannon and Weaver’s model, what term refers to distortion that interferes with message transmission?

a)

Feedback

b)

Channel

c)

Entropy

d)

Noise

110.

Which type of communication occurs within oneself?

a)

Interpersonal

b)

Group

c)

Intrapersonal

d)

Mass

111.

Which Greek playwright introduced the third actor in tragedy?

a)

Aeschylus

b)

Sophocles

c)

Euripides

d)

Thespis

112.

A teacher sends a memo to staff. Which organizational communication type is this?

a)

Horizontal

b)

Diagonal

c)

Vertical downward

d)

External

113.

If a speaker uses exaggerated gestures that distract from the message, which communication element is weakened?

a)

Non-verbal communication

b)

Feedback

c)

Verbal communication

d)

Noise

114.

If a speaker uses exaggerated gestures that distract from the message, which communication element is weakened?

a)

Non-verbal communication

b)

Feedback

c)

Verbal communication

d)

Noise

115.

In a speech, pauses are used to regain audience attention. Which vocal aspect is being applied?

a)

Pitch

b)

Rate

c)

Pauses

d)

Volume

116.

A speaker cites sources during a presentation (“oral footnotes”). Which principle of communication is reinforced?

a)

Persuasion

b)

Preservation of culture

c)

Motivation

d)

Information sharing

117.

Extemporaneous speeches are praised for flexibility. When evaluated against manuscript speeches, what conclusion emerges?

a)

Extemporaneous speeches allow adaptation unlike manuscript.

b)

Both styles equally limit audience engagement.

c)

Manuscript speeches are superior because they prevent errors.

d)

Extemporaneous speeches lack preparation compared to manuscript speeches.

118.

What is the primary purpose of technical writing?

a)

To entertain readers

b)

To report news events

c)

To inform and instruct about products or processes

d)

To narrate personal experiences 

119.

Which quality of technical writing ensures the document is mistake-free?

a)

Clarity

b)

Accuracy

c)

Conciseness

d)

Usability

120.

Which type of definition provides a quick explanation inside parentheses?

a)

Extended definition

b)

Sentence definition

c)

Parenthetical definition

d)

Comparative definition

121.

Which of the following is not considered technical writing?

a)

Poems

b)

Reports

c)

Instruction manuals

d)

Memos

122.

Which of the 7 C’s of professional writing emphasizes using specific, precise language?

a)

Clear

b)

Concrete

c)

Concise

d)

Courteous

123.

Evaluating the 7 C’s of professional writing, which combination most directly enhances workplace efficiency?

a)

Clear, concise, and complete

b)

Concrete, courteous, and creative

c)

Correct, emotional, and entertaining

d)

Coherent, imaginative, and subjective

124.

Which stage of SLA is known as the “silent period”?

a)

Early Production

b)

Pre-production

c)

Intermediate Fluency

d)

Advanced Fluency

125.

A student studies French to pass exams. Which motivation applies?

a)

Integrative

b)

Instrumental

c)

Intrinsic

d)

Extrinsic

126.

 If a learner’s L1 grammar resembles their L2 grammar, what occurs?

a)

Negative transfer

b)

Fossilization

c)

Positive transfer

d)

Attrition

127.

A teacher notices a shy student avoids speaking despite having a strong vocabulary. Which personality factor is influencing SLA?

a)

Empathy

b)

Inhibition

c)

Extroversion

d)

Risk-taking

128.

Compare integrative and instrumental motivation. Which evaluation best explains their impact?

a)

Integrative fosters cultural connection, while instrumental focuses on practical goals.

b)

Both motivations are identical in purpose.

c)

Instrumental always leads to better fluency than integrative.

d)

Integrative discourages cultural learning.

129.

Considering Krashen’s Input Hypothesis and Vygotsky’s ZPD, what synthesis best explains effective SLA?

a)

SLA requires comprehensible input slightly above current level, supported by guided interaction.

b)

SLA depends only on memorization of vocabulary.

c)

SLA occurs without social context or input.

d)

SLA is purely innate and unaffected by the environment.