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Worksheets

Mo AOC

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which antifungal agent is classified as a protein synthesis inhibitor that works in the cytoplasm?

a)

Tavaborole (Kerydin)

b)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

c)

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

d)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

2.

Which of the following drugs is NOT available in the US?

a)

Polyoxin D

b)

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

c)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

d)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

3.

Nikkomycin Z belongs to which pharmacological classification?

a)

Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitor

b)

Cell Membrane Synthesis Inhibitor

c)

Protein Synthesis Inhibitor

d)

Polyenes

4.

Which of the following is an investigational antifungal agent?

a)

Pneumocandins

b)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

c)

Nystatin (Nystop)

d)

Naftifine (Naftin)

5.

Which drug is the newest agent among the triterpenoids?

a)

Ibrexafungerp (Brexafemme)

b)

Rezafungin (Rezzayo)

c)

Micafungin (Mycamine)

d)

Amorolfine (Loceryl)

6.

Which of the following is a polyene antibiotic?

a)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

b)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

c)

Tolnaftate (Tinactin)

d)

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

7.

Which drug is classified as an allylamine?

a)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

b)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

c)

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

d)

Rezafungin (Rezzayo)

8.

Tolnaftate (Tinactin) belongs to which pharmacological class?

a)

Napthionmates

b)

Polyenes

c)

Echinocandins

d)

Triterpenoids

9.

Which of the following drugs is used as a cell wall synthesis inhibitor?

a)

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

b)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

c)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

d)

Tolnaftate (Tinactin)

10.

Which of the following is NOT a cell membrane synthesis inhibitor?

a)

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

b)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

c)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

d)

Tolnaftate (Tinactin)

11.

Which drug is classified as an echinocandin?

a)

Micafungin (Mycamine)

b)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

c)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

d)

Tolnaftate (Tinactin)

12.

Which of the following is a brand name for Anidulafungin?

a)

Eraxis

b)

Cancidas

c)

Mycamine

d)

Rezzayo

13.

Which of the following drugs is classified as a triterpenoid?

a)

Ibrexafungerp (Brexafemme)

b)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

c)

Terbinafine (Lamisil)

d)

Tolnaftate (Tinactin)

14.

Which of the following drugs is classified as a polyene antibiotic and is also known as Mycostatin?

a)

Nystatin

b)

Amphotericin B (AmBisome)

c)

Candidicin

d)

Filipin

15.

Which of the following is classified as a Thiazide azole antifungal?

a)

Abafungin (Abasol)

b)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

c)

Ketoconazole (Nizoral)

d)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja)

16.

Which drug is an example of an Imidazole azole antifungal?

a)

Luliconazole (Luzu)

b)

Fosfluconazole

c)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja)

d)

Abafungin (Abasol)

17.

Which of the following is NOT a marketed Triazole azole antifungal?

a)

Ravuconazole

b)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

c)

Itraconazole (Sporanox)

d)

Voriconazole (Vfend)

18.

Which azole antifungal is classified as a Tetrazole?

a)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja)

b)

Clotrimazole (Lotrimin OTC)

c)

Fosfluconazole

d)

Abafungin (Abasol)

19.

Which of the following is an anti-cancer agent classified as a Nitrogen Mustard?

a)

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

b)

Busulfan (Myleran)

c)

Cisplatin

d)

BCNU (Carmustine)

20.

Busulfan (Myleran) belongs to which class of alkylating agents?

a)

Alkyl Sulfonate

b)

Nitrogen Mustard

c)

Ethylenediamine

d)

Non-Classified Agent

21.

Which of the following is an Ethylenediamine alkylating agent?

a)

HMM (Hexamethylmelamine)

b)

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

c)

Busulfan (Myleran)

d)

Cisplatin

22.

Which anti-cancer agent is classified as a Nitrosourea?

a)

BCNU (Carmustine)

b)

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

c)

Busulfan (Myleran)

d)

Cisplatin

23.

Which of the following is a Non-Classified Agent that works by alkylation?

a)

Cisplatin

b)

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

c)

Busulfan (Myleran)

d)

HMM (Hexamethylmelamine)

24.

Which of the following is a Triazole azole antifungal?

a)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

b)

Abafungin (Abasol)

c)

Clotrimazole (Lotrimin OTC)

d)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja)

25.

Select the correct pairing of drug and its class:

a)

Melphalan (Alkeran) - Nitrogen Mustard

b)

Cisplatin - Nitrosourea

c)

Busulfan (Myleran) - Imidazole

d)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja) - Triazole

26.

Which of the following is an Imidazole azole antifungal used as an OTC product?

a)

Clotrimazole (Lotrimin OTC)

b)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

c)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja)

d)

Abafungin (Abasol)

27.

Which anti-cancer agent is also known as Mustargen?

a)

Mechlorethamine

b)

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

c)

Busulfan (Myleran)

d)

Cisplatin

28.

Which of the following is a Triazole azole antifungal that is not marketed?

a)

Albanaconazole

b)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

c)

Itraconazole (Sporanox)

d)

Voriconazole (Vfend)

29.

Which drug is classified as a Nitrosourea and is also known as Zanosar?

a)

Streptozotocin

b)

BCNU (Carmustine)

c)

CCNU (Lomustine)

d)

CH3 CONU (Semustine)

30.

Which of the following is a Triazole azole antifungal used for treating fungal infections?

a)

Voriconazole (Vfend)

b)

Abafungin (Abasol)

c)

Clotrimazole (Lotrimin OTC)

d)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja)

31.

Which anti-cancer agent is also known as Yondelis?

a)

Trabectedin

b)

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

c)

Busulfan (Myleran)

d)

Cisplatin

32.

Which of the following is an Imidazole azole antifungal used for vaginal infections?

a)

Tioconazole (Vagistat-1)

b)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

c)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja)

d)

Abafungin (Abasol)

33.

Which anti-cancer agent is also known as Alkeran?

a)

Melphalan

b)

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

c)

Busulfan (Myleran)

d)

Cisplatin

34.

Which of the following is a Triazole azole antifungal used for oral administration?

a)

Itraconazole (Sporanox)

b)

Abafungin (Abasol)

c)

Clotrimazole (Lotrimin OTC)

d)

Oteseconazole (Vivoja)

35.

Which of the following is a Folic Acid Analog used as an antimetabolite in cancer therapy?

a)

Methotrexate

b)

5-FU with additional supportive drugs

c)

Etoposide

d)

Bevacizumab

36.

Which drug is classified as a nucleoside (purine) antimetabolite?

a)

Methotrexate

b)

5-FU

c)

Prednisone

d)

Trastuzumab

37.

Which regimen is used for the induction of remission in Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)?

a)

Danorubicin + Vincristine + Prednisone

b)

Methotrexate + 6MP

c)

Mitoxantrone + Ifosfamide + Mesna + Etoposide

d)

HyperCVAD-B

38.

Which combination regimen is used for Choriocarcinoma (Hydatidiform)?

a)

EMA-CO

b)

CAF

c)

FAM

d)

MACAO

39.

Which regimen is used for Burkitt's Lymphoma?

a)

MACAO

b)

CAF

c)

FAM

d)

EMA-CO

40.

Which of the following is NOT a combination regimen for breast cancer?

a)

CAF

b)

FAC

c)

FAM

d)

CMF

41.

Which of the following is a combination regimen for gastric (stomach) cancer?

a)

FAM

b)

CAF

c)

EMA-CO

d)

MACAO

42.

Match the following drug types to their examples:

a)

Folic Acid Analogs

b)

Nucleosides (Purines)

43.

Match the following cancers to their corresponding combination regimens:

a)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)

b)

Choriocarcinoma (Hydatidiform)

c)

Burkitt's Lymphoma

44.

Which of the following is a Trastuzumab (Herceptin) combination for breast cancer?

a)

TA

b)

FAM

c)

EMA-CO

d)

MACAO

45.

Which of the following is a Bevacizumab (Avastin) combination for breast cancer?

a)

Bev + Taxol (Paclitaxel)

b)

CAF

c)

FAM

d)

EMA-CO

46.

Why are combination regimens used in cancer therapy?

a)

To increase effectiveness and reduce resistance

b)

To use only one drug for simplicity

c)

To avoid side effects by using fewer drugs

d)

To treat only one type of cancer

47.

Compare the use of Methotrexate and 5-FU in cancer therapy. Which statement is correct?

a)

Methotrexate is a Folic Acid Analog, while 5-FU is a Nucleoside (Purine) antimetabolite.

b)

Both Methotrexate and 5-FU are Folic Acid Analogs.

c)

5-FU is used only for breast cancer, while Methotrexate is used for gastric cancer.

d)

Methotrexate and 5-FU are both used in the same combination regimens.

48.

Analyze the structure of the HyperCVAD regimen for ALL. Which statement best describes it?

a)

It consists of fractionated cycles with alternating drug combinations.

b)

It uses only one drug throughout the regimen.

c)

It is used exclusively for breast cancer.

d)

It is a single-step induction regimen.

49.

What is the significance of using multiple drugs in a regimen for breast cancer?

a)

It targets different pathways to improve treatment outcomes.

b)

It reduces the cost of therapy.

c)

It limits the number of side effects.

d)

It is only used for early-stage cancer.

50.

Which drug regimen is commonly used for bladder cancer?

a)

CAP

b)

FOLFIRI

c)

CABO

d)

SD

51.

Which combination of drugs is used to treat osteosarcoma (bony sarcoma)?

a)

Cyclophosphamide + Vincristine + Doxorubicin + Dacarbazine + Ifosfamide + Cisplatin

b)

FOLFIRI + Soltuximab OR Bevasizumab

c)

Cis-Taxol + CisMV

d)

FCE + ELF

52.

Which regimen includes Capecitabine + Trastuzumab + Irinotecan?

a)

FuP

b)

FCE

c)

FAMTX

d)

Capecitabine + Trastuzumab + Irinotecan

53.

Which regimen is used for colorectal cancer and includes Bevasizumab (anti-VEGF)?

a)

FOLFIRI + Soltuximab OR Bevasizumab (anti-VEGF)

b)

CAPOX

c)

XELOX

d)

CISCO

54.

Which of the following is NOT a regimen for head & neck cancer?

a)

CABO

b)

CFC

c)

MF

d)

CAPOX

55.

Which of the following is a correct example of a mold?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Mucus

c)

FOLFIRI

d)

CAP

56.

What is a characteristic of mold morphology?

a)

Elongation and branching (hyphae) which can lead to a mycelium

b)

Reproduce by binary fission

c)

Form spores only

d)

Produce toxins

57.

Which species is classified as a pathogenic mold?

a)

Rhizopus

b)

FOLFIRI

c)

CAPOX

d)

Cis-Taxol

58.

Which of the following is an alkylating anti-cancer drug?

a)

Cyclophosphamide

b)

FOLFIRI

c)

CAPOX

d)

Aspergillus

59.

Which regimen is used for pancreatic cancer?

a)

SD

b)

CAPOX

c)

CFC

d)

Cis-Taxol

60.

Which of the following regimens is used for bladder cancer?

a)

CISCO

b)

CAP

c)

FOLFIRI

d)

CABO

61.

Which of the following is a superficial fungal infection?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

Mucus

c)

Rhizopus

d)

Cyclophosphamide

62.

Which of the following is a subcutaneous fungal infection?

a)

Rhizopus

b)

Mucus

c)

CAPOX

d)

FOLFIRI

63.

Which of the following statements about mold reproduction is correct?

a)

Molds reproduce by budding

b)

Molds reproduce by binary fission

c)

Molds reproduce by forming hyphae

d)

Molds reproduce by producing toxins

64.

Which of the following regimens is used for head & neck cancer and includes Cisplatin?

a)

CisFu

b)

CAPOX

c)

FOLFIRI

d)

SD

65.

Which of the following best describes the morphology of yeasts?

a)

Round in shape

b)

Oval with projections

c)

Filamentous

d)

Irregular clusters

66.

Which of the following is an example of a yeast?

a)

Candida species

b)

Histoplasma species

c)

Cyclophosphamide

d)

Busulfan

67.

Dimorphic fungi are unique because they can exist as which two forms?

a)

Yeasts and molds

b)

Bacteria and viruses

c)

Spores and cysts

d)

Protozoa and algae

68.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a dimorphic fungus?

a)

Candida species

b)

Histoplasma species

c)

Blastomyces species

d)

Coccidioides species

69.

Which group of alkylating anti-cancer drugs includes Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

a)

Nitrogen mustards (Chlorethamines)

b)

Alkyl sulfonates

c)

Nitrosoureas

d)

Thiazines

70.

Busulfan (Myleran) belongs to which class of alkylating agents?

a)

Alkyl sulfonates

b)

Nitrogen mustards

c)

Thiazines

d)

Methyl-hydrazines

71.

Which of the following is an example of a nitrosourea alkylating agent?

a)

Carmustine (BCNU)

b)

Mechlorethamine (Mustargen)

c)

Temodar

d)

Hydroxymethylmelamine (HML)

72.

Temodar is classified under which type of alkylating anti-cancer drug?

a)

Methyl-hydrazines

b)

Thiazines

c)

Nitrogen mustards

d)

Alkyl sulfonates

73.

Which of the following statements is true about dimorphic fungi?

a)

They can exist as both yeasts and molds.

b)

They are only found as yeasts.

c)

They are only found as molds.

d)

They are classified as bacteria.

74.

Which of the following is an example of a thiazine alkylating agent?

a)

Decarbazine (DTIC)

b)

Procarbazine

c)

Chlorambucil (Leukeran)

d)

ThioTEFA

75.

Which of the following is a superficial fungal infection that affects the scalp or head?

a)

Tinea Capitis

b)

Tinea Pedis

c)

Tinea Corporis

d)

Tinea Barbae

76.

Which infection is classified as a systemic fungal infection and affects the blood system?

a)

Candidemia

b)

Rhinosporidiosis

c)

Seborrhea

d)

Ringworm

77.

What is the mechanism of action of Kerydin (Tavaborole)?

a)

Inhibits Leucyl tRNA synthase, disrupting protein synthesis in fungal cells

b)

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking folic acid metabolism

c)

Produces F-dUMP to inhibit thymidylate synthase and DNA production

d)

Inhibits de novo synthesis of nucleic acids

78.

Which drug acts as a folic acid metabolite and inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)?

a)

Methotrexate (MTX)

b)

Kerydin (Tavaborole)

c)

5-FU (Fluorouracil)

d)

Sporothrix

79.

Which of the following is NOT a subcutaneous fungal infection?

a)

Seborrhea

b)

Rhinosporidiosis

c)

Maduromycosis

d)

Chromoblastomycosis

80.

What is the primary mechanism of action of 5-FU (Fluorouracil)?

a)

Produces F-dUMP to inhibit thymidylate synthase and DNA production

b)

Inhibits Leucyl tRNA synthase

c)

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

d)

Inhibits de novo synthesis of nucleic acids

81.

Which superficial fungal infection is commonly known as athlete's foot?

a)

Tinea Pedis

b)

Tinea Corporis

c)

Tinea Barbae

d)

Tinea Capitis

82.

Methotrexate (MTX) inhibits which enzyme that is needed to make DNA (polyglutamate)?

a)

Thymidylate synthase

b)

Leucyl tRNA synthase

c)

Dihydrofolate reductase

d)

Thymidine kinase

83.

Which of the following is an immediate adverse effect of Amphotericin B?

a)

Nausea and vomiting (NVD)

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Hemorrhagic cystitis

d)

Bone marrow depression

84.

Which long-term adverse effect of Amphotericin B is associated with changes in renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Hypersensitivity

c)

Pulmonary bleeding

d)

Electrolyte imbalance

85.

Which adverse effect is commonly seen in patients receiving Cytoxan (Cyclophosphamide) and is managed with Zofran?

a)

Highly emetogenic effect

b)

Hemorrhagic cystitis

c)

Alopecia

d)

SIADH

86.

Which of the following is a CNS-related adverse effect of 5-FU (Fluorouracil)?

a)

Acute cerebellar syndrome

b)

Hemorrhagic cystitis

c)

HUS (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome)

d)

Alopecia

87.

Which adverse effect is associated with Caspofungin and involves vasodilation, hypotension, and facial edema?

a)

Histamine-like reactions

b)

Non-specific GI effects

c)

Increased eosinophils

d)

Urinary ADEs

88.

Which electrolyte imbalance is a long-term adverse effect of Amphotericin B?

a)

Decreased magnesium, potassium, calcium, and phosphate

b)

Increased sodium and chloride

c)

Decreased glucose and bicarbonate

d)

Increased potassium and calcium

89.

Which adverse effect of Amphotericin B can be reversed or prevented by sodium loading the patient?

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Hypersensitivity

c)

Pulmonary bleeding

d)

CNS effects

90.

Which of the following is a skin adverse effect of 5-FU (Fluorouracil)?

a)

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

b)

Alopecia

c)

Rash

d)

Facial edema

91.

Which adverse effect is shared by both Amphotericin B and Caspofungin?

a)

Nausea and vomiting (NVD)

b)

Hemorrhagic cystitis

c)

Bone marrow depression

d)

Sterility

92.

Which adverse effect of Cytoxan (Cyclophosphamide) affects the gonads and may result in sterility?

a)

Sterility

b)

Hemorrhagic cystitis

c)

Alopecia

d)

SIADH

93.

Which adverse effect of Amphotericin B is seen more in IV or IT administration and does not cross the blood-brain barrier regularly?

a)

CNS effects (headache, dizziness, confusion, insomnia)

b)

Pulmonary bleeding

c)

Electrolyte imbalance

d)

GI effects

94.

Which adverse effect of Caspofungin involves elevation of red blood cells and protein in the urine?

a)

Urinary adverse effects

b)

Histamine-like reactions

c)

Non-specific GI effects

d)

Increased eosinophils

95.

Which adverse effect of Amphotericin B is characterized by normocytic normochromic anemia and is seen in renal failure?

a)

Hematologic effects

b)

Pulmonary effects

c)

GI effects

d)

CNS effects

96.

Which adverse effect of 5-FU (Fluorouracil) is related to the cardiovascular system?

a)

Myocardial infarction (MI) and angina

b)

Blurry vision and diplopia

c)

Bone marrow depression

d)

Hemorrhagic cystitis

97.

Which adverse effect of Amphotericin B is immediate and involves muscle pain?

a)

Myalgia

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Pulmonary bleeding

98.

Which anti-cancer drug is associated with pulmonary fibrosis as its therapy-limiting toxicity?

a)

Bleomycin

b)

Cyclophosphamide

c)

Methotrexate

d)

5-FU (5-Fluorouracil)

99.

Hemorrhagic cystitis caused by cyclophosphamide can be managed by which of the following methods?

a)

Hydration with normal saline and Mesna

b)

Reducing the dosage to half

c)

Switching to oral administration

d)

Administering with acidic foods

100.

What is the initial intravenous dose of Caspofungin for adults?

a)

70 mg x 1 day

b)

50 mg IV QD

c)

250 mg PO QD

d)

200 mg IV QD

101.

What is the approximate percentage of protein binding for Caspofungin?

a)

97%

b)

70%

c)

40%

d)

50%

102.

Which metabolic process does Caspofungin undergo?

a)

Hydrolysis and N-Acetylation

b)

Oxidation by CYP3A4

c)

Glucuronidation

d)

Deamination

103.

Which route accounts for the highest percentage of Caspofungin excretion?

a)

Fecal excretion

b)

Renal excretion

c)

Pulmonary excretion

d)

Biliary excretion

104.

What is the main route of administration for Terbinafine?

a)

Oral (PO)

b)

Intravenous (IV)

c)

Topical

d)

Subcutaneous

105.

What is the initial half-life of Terbinafine?

a)

36 hours

b)

9-11 hours

c)

40-50 hours

d)

200-400 hours

106.

Which enzymes are involved in the metabolism of Terbinafine?

a)

1A2, 2C8, 2C9, 2C19, 3A4

b)

CYP2D6 only

c)

CYP3A4 and CYP2C19 only

d)

CYP1A2 and CYP2C9 only

107.

How does the administration of Terbinafine with acidic foods affect its absorption?

a)

Absorption is decreased, leading to reduced effectiveness

b)

Absorption is increased, leading to enhanced effectiveness

c)

No effect on absorption

d)

Absorption is unchanged but metabolism is increased

108.

Which enzyme, when inhibited, leads to increased toxicity of Voriconazole (Vfend)?

a)

2C9, 2C19, and 3A4

b)

Only 2C9

c)

Only 3A4

d)

Only 2C19

109.

What is the recommended oral dosage regimen for Voriconazole (Vfend)?

a)

200 mg every 12 hours on an empty stomach

b)

400 mg once daily with food

c)

100 mg every 6 hours with food

d)

300 mg every 24 hours on an empty stomach

110.

What is the primary route of excretion for Brexafemme (Ibrexafungerp)?

a)

Primarily feces

b)

Primarily urine

c)

Primarily sweat

d)

Primarily saliva

111.

Which statement best describes the distribution of Brexafemme (Ibrexafungerp)?

a)

It has a half-life of 20 hours and plasma protein binding greater than 90%.

b)

It is rapidly distributed with a half-life of 2 hours and low plasma protein binding.

c)

It is not distributed in the body and has no plasma protein binding.

d)

It has a half-life of 5 hours and plasma protein binding less than 50%.

112.

Which of the following is NOT a route of administration for Amphotericin B (AmBisome, Fungizone)?

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous (IV)

c)

Intraventricular (ventricles of the brain)

d)

Intramuscular (IM)

113.

What is the maintenance intravenous dose of Voriconazole (Vfend) after the loading dose?

a)

4 mg/kg every 12 hours

b)

6 mg/kg every 12 hours

c)

2 mg/kg every 24 hours

d)

8 mg/kg every 6 hours

114.

Which metabolic enzymes are involved in the metabolism of Brexafemme (Ibrexafungerp)?

a)

3A4 and 2C8

b)

2C9 and 2C19

c)

3A4 and 3A5

d)

2C8 and 2C19

115.

What is the half-life of Voriconazole (Vfend) in adults at standard doses?

a)

Approximately 6-9 hours

b)

Approximately 2-4 hours

c)

Approximately 12-15 hours

d)

Approximately 20 hours

116.

Which antifungal drug regimen is NOT effective in treating Tinea infections but is effective in treating Candidal infections?

a)

Topical 3% preparations (cream and lotion forms)

b)

Oral tablet form

c)

Intravenous injection

d)

Inhalation via pulmonary system

117.

Which body fluids or cavities are antifungal drugs well distributed into?

a)

Peritoneum, pleural cavity, aqueous humor, synovial fluid

b)

Vitreous humor and CSF

c)

Blood and lymph

d)

Only the renal system

118.

What is the biphasic half-life of the antifungal drug described?

a)

Initial: ~24 hours, Terminal: ~15 days

b)

Initial: ~15 days, Terminal: ~24 hours

c)

Initial: ~7 weeks, Terminal: ~2-5%

d)

Initial: ~20-50 hours, Terminal: ~30-40 hours

119.

Which statement best describes the metabolism of the antifungal drug described in the distribution and excretion section?

a)

No metabolism occurs

b)

Metabolized by CYP3A4

c)

Metabolized in the liver

d)

Metabolized in the kidneys

120.

How long can it take for the antifungal drug to be fully excreted after the last dose?

a)

Up to 7 weeks

b)

Up to 24 hours

c)

Up to 15 days

d)

Up to 2-5%

121.

Which route of administration is used for Fluconazole (Diflucan)?

a)

PO (tablet, oral suspension) and IV

b)

Only IV

c)

Only PO (tablet, oral suspension)

d)

Topical application

122.

What is the bioavailability of Fluconazole (Diflucan)?

a)

90%

b)

99.8%

c)

11-12%

d)

30-40%

123.

Which antifungal drug penetrates the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

a)

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

b)

Itraconazole (Sporanox)

c)

Both Fluconazole and Itraconazole

d)

Neither drug

124.

Which enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of Itraconazole (Sporanox)?

a)

CYP3A4

b)

None

c)

CYP2D6

d)

CYP2C9

125.

Which of the following is a non-cancer indication for Methotrexate (MTX) or Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)?

a)

Refer to the table for non-cancer indications

b)

Only used for cancer treatment

c)

Used exclusively for fungal infections

d)

Used for viral infections

126.

Which drugs are included in the M2 regimen for treating Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Carmustine, Melphalan, Cyclophosphamide, Vincristine, Prednisone

b)

Carmustine, Melphalan, Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin, Prednisone

c)

Carmustine, Melphalan, Cyclophosphamide, Prednisone

d)

Melphalan, Prednisone

127.

What is the mechanism of action of Thalidomide when used in combination regimens for Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Stimulation of caspase-8 leading to increased apoptosis, inhibition of IL-6, and angiogenesis (new blood vessels formed)

b)

Direct inhibition of DNA synthesis and cell division

c)

Blocking the action of proteasome inhibitors

d)

Increasing the production of white blood cells

128.

Which regimen for Multiple Myeloma includes Doxorubicin (Adriamycin), Vincristine, and Prednisone?

a)

M2 regimen

b)

DVP regimen

c)

MP regimen

d)

Dex + Thalidomide derivatives

129.

Which combination is used in the MP regimen for Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Melphalan and Prednisone

b)

Carmustine and Melphalan

c)

Melphalan and Cyclophosphamide

d)

Doxorubicin and Vincristine

130.

Which proteasome inhibitor is paired with Dexamethasone in the DC regimen for Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Carfilzomib (Kyprolis)

b)

Ixazomib (Ninlaro)

c)

Bortezomib (Velcade)

d)

Lenalidomide (Revlimid)

131.

Which derivative is combined with Dexamethasone in the DL regimen for Multiple Myeloma?

a)

Lenalidomide (Revlimid)

b)

Pomalidomide (Pomalyst)

c)

Thalidomide (Thalomid)

d)

Bortezomib (Velcade)

132.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes only Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) and Cyclophosphamide?

a)

AC

b)

ACT

c)

CAF

d)

FAC

133.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes Taxotere (Docetaxel) and Adriamycin (Doxorubicin)?

a)

TAC

b)

ACTH

c)

ACD

d)

FEC

134.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes Herceptin (Trastuzumab)?

a)

ACTH

b)

TAC

c)

CAF

d)

CMF

135.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes 5FU, Epirubicin, and Cyclophosphamide?

a)

FEC

b)

FECD

c)

CAF

d)

CMF

136.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes Epirubicin (antibiotic) and Cyclophosphamide only?

a)

EC

b)

CAF

c)

FAC

d)

FEC

137.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes 5FU, Epirubicin, Cyclophosphamide, and Docetaxel?

a)

FECD

b)

FEC

c)

CAF

d)

CMF

138.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes Cyclophosphamide, Adriamycin, and 5FU?

a)

CAF

b)

FAC

c)

CMF

d)

FEC

139.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes 5FU, Adriamycin, and Cyclophosphamide?

a)

FAC

b)

CAF

c)

CMF

d)

FEC

140.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes Novantrone, 5FU, and Leucovorin (rescue agent)?

a)

NFL

b)

CFM

c)

VATH

d)

CMF

141.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes Vincristine, Adriamycin, ThioTEPA, and Halotestin?

a)

VATH

b)

NFL

c)

CFM

d)

CMF

142.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes Cyclophosphamide, Methotrexate, and 5FU?

a)

CMF

b)

CAF

c)

FAC

d)

FEC

143.

Which regimen for Breast Cancer includes Cyclophosphamide, Methotrexate, 5FU, and Vincristine?

a)

CMF VP (Cooper's Regimen)

b)

CMF

c)

CAF

d)

FAC

144.

Which regimen for Multiple Myeloma includes Melphalan and Prednisone?

a)

MP regimen

b)

M2 regimen

c)

DVP regimen

d)

Dex + Thalidomide derivatives

145.

Which regimen for Multiple Myeloma includes Dexamethasone and Bortezomib?

a)

DB regimen

b)

DC regimen

c)

DL regimen

d)

DT regimen

146.

Which regimen for Multiple Myeloma includes Dexamethasone and Lenalidomide?

a)

DL regimen

b)

DP regimen

c)

DC regimen

d)

DB regimen

147.

Which drugs are included in the CAP regimen for ovarian cancer?

a)

Cytoxan + Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) + Platinol (Cisplatin)

b)

Cytoxan + Carboplatin

c)

Cisplatin + Cytoxan + Adriamycin (Doxorubicin)

d)

Cyclophosphamide + Hexamethylmelamine + Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) + Platin (Cisplatin)

148.

What is the main drug combination in the ADC regimen?

a)

Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) + Taxotere (Docetaxel) + Cyclophosphamide

b)

Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) + Cyclophosphamide + Vincristine

c)

Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) + Taxol (Paclitaxel) + Cyclophosphamide

d)

Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) + Hexamethylmelamine + Cyclophosphamide

149.

Which regimen for head & neck cancer includes Oxaliplatin, 5FU, and Folinic Acid (Leucovorin)?

a)

OFF regimen

b)

CFC regimen

c)

MF regimen

d)

CFL regimen

150.

Which drug is common to both the CHAD and CHAP regimens for ovarian cancer?

a)

Cyclophosphamide

b)

Cisplatin

c)

Adriamycin (Doxorubicin)

d)

Hexamethylmelamine

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