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Study Guide 1, Part 3 Quiz

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

General lack of nutrition and wasting occurring in the course of a chronic disease is called

a)

bulimia.

b)

dyspepsia.

c)

enteritis.

d)

cachexia.

e)

diverticulosis.

2.

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is also known as

a)

borborygmus

b)

spastic colon

c)

colonalgia

d)

colonic irrigation

e)

coloptosis

3.

Downward displacement of internal organs is called

a)

visceropexy.

b)

Crohn’s disease.

c)

ascites.

d)

visceroptosis.

e)

borborygmus.

4.

A gastric ulcer is also known as a(n)

a)

duodenal ulcer.

b)

esophageal ulcer.

c)

hepatic ulcer.

d)

cystic ulcer.

e)

peptic ulcer.

5.

A condition of stones in the common bile duct is called

a)

cholangiectasis.

b)

cholecystopathy.

c)

choledocholithiasis.

d)

choledochal.

e)

cholelith.

6.

Jaundice is caused by excessive levels of

a)

saliva.

b)

chyme.

c)

gastric acid.

d)

insulin.

e)

bilirubin.

7.

Acute gastritis or peptic ulcer may cause

a)
diarrhea.
b)

sialorrhea

c)

hyperemesis

d)

hematemesis

8.

A suture of the rectum is called

a)

proctopexy.

b)

proctorrhea.

c)

proctorrhaphy.

d)

proctoplasty.

e)

proctoscopy.

9.

Suture of the second portion of the small intestine is known as

a)

enterorrhaphy.

b)

ileorrhaphy.

c)

duodenorrhaphy.

d)

jejunorrhaphy.

e)

colorrhaphy.

10.

Structural abnormalities of the esophagus may be diagnosed by endoscopy of the

a)

lower GI tract.

b)

rectum.

c)

small intestine.

d)

upper GI tract.

e)

sigmoid colon.

11.

The procedure that takes radiographic images of the gallbladder after administration of a contrast medium is called

a)

barium swallow.

b)

choledochocystography.

c)

cholecystography.

d)

sialography.

e)

cholangiography.

12.

Which test identifies microorganisms or parasites present in feces?

a)

Serum bilirubin

b)

Stool culture

c)

Liver function test (LFT)

d)

Stool guaiac

e)

Hemoccult

13.

The endoscopic examination of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine is called

a)

esophagogastroscopy.

b)

gastroduodenoesophagoscopy.

c)

esophagogastroduodenoscopy.

d)

gastroenteroscopy.

e)

colonofibroscopy.

14.

The terms congenital and strangulated are associated with the surgical procedure called

a)

anastomosis.

b)

hemorrhoidectomy.

c)

hernioplasty.

d)

colostomy.

e)

pyloromyotomy.

15.

Which noninvasive procedure uses shock waves to break up stones in the biliary ducts?

a)

Lithectomy

b)

Cholelithectomy

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

e)

Choledocholithotomy

16.

Metamucil is used to treat

a)

spasms.

b)

constipation.

c)

loose stools.

d)

nausea.

e)

vomiting.

17.

Which medications help treat irritable bowel syndrome?

a)

Antacids

b)

Antispasmodics

c)

Laxatives

d)

Antidiarrheals

e)

Antiemetics

18.

A series of radiographic images of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine is abbreviated as

a)

UGIS.

b)

GI.

c)

GBS.

d)

GB.

e)

GERD.

19.

The blood test that evaluates liver injury and function is abbreviated as

a)

LGI.

b)

UGIS.

c)

HAV.

d)

LFT.

e)

HDV.

20.

The space in the chest between the lungs is called the

a)

pleural cavity.

b)

diaphragm.

c)

alveolus.

d)

sinus cavity.

e)

mediastinum.

21.

The exchange of oxygen (O₂) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) in body cells is called

a)

inhalation.

b)

metabolism.

c)

external respiration.

d)

internal respiration.

e)

catabolism.

22.

Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ occurs in the

a)

pulmonary capillaries.

b)

pulmonary vein.

c)

bronchioles.

d)

cilia.

e)

pulmonary artery.

23.

Hairlike structures that move particles upward to the pharynx for coughing or swallowing are called

a)

alveoli.

b)

bronchioles.

c)

cilia.

d)

cartilage rings.

e)

neurons.

24.

The parietal pleura glides smoothly over the visceral pleura because the pleural cavity normally contains a small amount of

a)

pus.

b)

blood.

c)

air.

d)

sputum.

e)

lubricating fluid.

25.

The combining form (CF) thorac/o means _______.

a)

chest

b)

heart

c)

lung

d)

bone

26.

Prefix brady- means

a)

rapid.

b)

imperfect.

c)

usual.

d)

poor.

e)

slow.

27.

The presence of pus in the pleural cavity is called

a)

empyema.

b)

pyosis.

c)

pyemia.

d)

pyothoracosis.

e)

empyosis.

28.

What is a characteristic of influenza?

a)

Chronic cough

b)

Bacterial origin

c)

Productive cough

d)

Myalgia

e)

Hemoptysis

29.

Which is a hereditary disorder that commonly affects the lungs?

a)

Respiratory distress syndrome

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Pneumocystis pneumonia

e)

Hyaline membrane disease

30.

The term epistaxis means

a)

coughing.

b)

an abnormal respiratory sound.

c)

shallow breathing.

d)

a nosebleed.

e)

an insufficiency of blood oxygen.

31.

The ease with which lungs expand and fill with air is called

a)

expectancy.

b)

aeration.

c)

compliance.

d)

surfactant.

e)

ventilation.

32.

What type of sleep apnea commonly causes loud snoring?

a)

Mixed

b)

Cheyne-Stokes

c)

Obstructive

d)

Complex

e)

Central

33.

Swelling of the nasal sinuses associated with upper respiratory infections commonly causes

a)

apnea.

b)

anosmia.

c)

acidosis.

d)

asphyxia.

e)

atelectasis.

34.

Which disorder is a lung disease that produces a thick (viscous) mucus that blocks the airways?

a)

Cheyne-Stokes

b)

Coryza

c)

Croup

d)

Cystic fibrosis

e)

Pertussis

35.

What procedure helps maintain an open airway to facilitate ventilation?

a)

A. Auscultation

b)

B. Percussion

c)

C. Spirometry

d)

D. Postural drainage

e)

E. Endotracheal intubation

36.

Treatment of lung disorders using medications delivered directly to the lungs is called

a)

antral lavage.

b)

thoracentesis.

c)

aerosol therapy.

d)

chemotherapy.

e)

actinotherapy.

37.

Which procedure is a surgical puncture of the pleural cavity?

a)

Pneumocentesis

b)

Empyema

c)

Pneumotomy

d)

Thoracotomy

e)

Thoracentesis

38.

Use of a stethoscope to detect abnormal lung sounds is called

a)

stethogram.

b)

percussion.

c)

stridor.

d)

aeration.

e)

auscultation.

39.

Which laboratory test identifies the disease-causing organisms of the lower respiratory tract?

a)

Arterial blood gas

b)

Throat culture

c)

Sputum culture

d)

Sweat test

e)

Throat swab

40.

Which structure receives deoxygenated blood from the venae cavae?

a)

Left atrium

b)

Aorta

c)

Right atrium

d)

Left ventricle

e)

Right ventricle

41.

Which microscopic vessel enables nutrients and oxygen to pass into the surrounding tissues?

a)

A. Aorta

b)

B. Vein

c)

C. Capillary

d)

D. Artery

e)

E. Venule

42.

The combining form (CF) vascul/o means

a)

fatty plaque.

b)

blood flow.

c)

plug.

d)

vessel (usually blood or lymph).

e)

pressure.

43.

The CF phleb/o means

a)

plaque.

b)

embolus.

c)

vein.

d)

hardening.

e)

narrowing, stricture.

44.

The CF sphygm/o means

a)

A. pulse.

b)

B. symptom.

c)

C. sphincter.

d)

D. stopping.

e)

E. starting.

45.

The suffix -stenosis means

a)

different.

b)

foreign.

c)

stop.

d)

stroke.

e)

narrowing, stricture.

46.

An inadequate supply of blood to surrounding tissues is called

a)

infarction.

b)

malnutrition.

c)

dystrophy.

d)

hypocapnia.

e)

ischemia.

47.

A soft, blowing sound heard on auscultation that is associated with movement of blood or valvular action is called

a)

Adams-Stokes syndrome.

b)

Cheyne-Stokes syndrome.

c)

regurgitation.

d)

diaphoresis.

e)

bruit.

48.

A mass composed of fibrin and platelets that collect on valve leaflets or their cords is called a(n)

a)

embolus.

b)

vegetation.

c)

plaque.

d)

thrombus.

e)

bacterium.

49.

Although rare, the most common primary tumor of the heart is

a)

melanoma.

b)

sarcoma.

c)

cardioma.

d)

myxoma.

e)

angioma.

50.

An abnormal widening or ballooning of a blood vessel resulting from wall weakness is called

a)

stenosis.

b)

commissure.

c)

aneurysm.

d)

sclerosis.

e)

angiopathy.

51.

Varicose veins of the rectum are called

a)

thrombi.

b)

emboli.

c)

hemorrhoids.

d)

myxomas.

e)

varices.

52.

Which diagnostic procedure assesses blood flow velocity in different areas of the heart?

a)

Phonocardiography

b)

Echocardiography

c)

Doppler echocardiography

d)

Digital subtraction angiography

e)

Angiography

53.

Which procedure removes a blood clot?

a)

Thrombopoiesis

b)

Catheterization

c)

Thrombectomy

d)

Valvotomy

e)

Venisection

54.

Which procedure involves an electrocardiogram (ECG) taken with a small portable recorder capable of storing information for up to 24 to 48 hours?

a)

Stress test

b)

Nuclear stress test

c)

Angioplasty

d)

Cardiac monitor test

e)

Holter monitor test

55.

Which procedure involves injection of a chemical irritant into a vein to treat varicose veins?

a)

Hydrotherapy

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Sclerotherapy

d)

Radiotherapy

e)

Irotomy

56.

Which diagnostic test involves a series of blood tests that include total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein, low-density lipoprotein, and triglycerides?

a)

Ischemic profile

b)

Infarction profile

c)

Coronary artery disease (CAD) profile

d)

Cardiac insufficiency profile

e)

Lipid profile

57.

Which abbreviation stands for the condition in which the leaflets of the mitral valve prolapse into the left atrium during systole?

a)

CHF

b)

ACD

c)

MVP

d)

CHS

e)

BBB

58.

Which abbreviation refers to a clot in the deep veins of the lower legs?

a)

ASHD

b)

PTCA

c)

LV

d)

DVT

e)

ACE

59.

Which abbreviation refers to a narrowing of the aorta?

a)

CHD

b)

VSD

c)

DVT

d)

LV

e)

AS

60.

What does the term congenital hernia mean?

a)

hernia caused during puberty

b)

hernia present because of obstruction

c)

hernia present at birth

d)

hernia caused by infection

e)

hernia present in pregnant women