Find the best answer/s: It is recommended that results in blood grouping should be recorded immediately in order to:

An individual who has a phenotype B is genotypically expressed as:

In blood grouping, this will show weak reactions with Anti-B sera particularly for patients diagnosed of having carcinoma of the colon

FACTS on A1 and A2 phenotypes, EXCEPT;

In blood typing, ________ occurs when the red cell testing does NOT agree with the serum testing result.

Select whether the following is a characteristic of Anti-A and Anti-B: Requires 37°C to agglutinate

Observation of agglutination in blood grouping is initially made by gently disturbing the tube containing the cell and the serum and viewing the:

Hemolysis is interpreted as a positive reaction in ABO typing BECAUSE lysis represents the destruction of the RBC membrane due to antigen-antibody reaction.

The sugar/s responsible for H specificity is/are:

RPM too high in centrifugation may result to: *

Monoclonal antiserum is routinely used in Blood Banking because of the following reasons, EXCEPT;

Probable cause of false negative result in blood grouping, EXCEPT; *

This comes from seed extracts that agglutinate human cells with some degree of specificity

An immunoglobulin that is normally found in trace concentrations in serum and is important in allergic reactions.

Contaminated reagents, uncalibrated centrifuge, mix-up of samples, and failure to add the sample are just few enumerated sources of errors in ABO identification. Collectively, these are called:

Select whether the following is a characteristic of Anti-A and Anti-B: Agglutinate in saline-suspended erythrocytes

Select whether the following is a characteristic of Anti-A and Anti-B: Do not produce in vivo or in vitro hemolysis.

Infants up to 6 months of age

Commonly used blood bank anti-sera should be routinely stored at _______ when not in use.

The precursor structure on which the A and B antigens are made: *

The major bond/s formed between antigens and antibodies is/are:

Antibodies or immunoglobulins are complex proteins with specificity to antigens. These antibodies are produced by:

Advantages of washed red cells in blood bank, EXCEPT; *

“Naturally occurring” antibodies *

The red blood cells of these individuals are absent with the normal ABH antigens and a double dose of the "h" gene is inherited.

How many drops of anti-sera is needed in blood typing? *

Reaction of patients RBCs (A2) with Anti-A1 lectin reagent:

Factor/s that may affect antigen-antibody reaction: *

The anti-sera (Anti-A & B) routinely used in blood banking have the following characteristics, EXCEPT;

Optimum proportion of antigen and antibody is met:

Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences antigen-antibody association?

Rouleaux formation is the condition to which it can produce an agglutination. This kind of problem encountered in blood grouping can be resolved by washing the patient’s red cells several times. This technique is called:

Which of the following is not a function of a blood bank?

Erythrocytes can be antigenic if their membrane contains:

Description of 3+: *

The “O” gene is considered an amorph. This is because:

The “O” gene is considered an amorph. This is because:

It does not elicit an immune response on its own but when coupled with a carrier protein of greater molecular weight, it can produce a reaction.

Identify the complementary antibody/ies of blood group AB.

Routine blood typing result of Patient “Kendra”: Anti-A +4 ; Anti-B 0. What is the blood type?

Treatment with ______ on RBCs results in the release of sialic acid from a membrane, causing the membrane to become more hydrophobic which allows RBCs to come closer together.

Production of antibodies peaks when an individual is between:

In the primary antibody response to a foreign antigen, the type of antibody initially formed is:

Zeta potential:

Performing cold auto-absorption for the removal of cold autoantibody from the serum is recommended in the performance of the test to resolve a discrepancy. Identify:

Location of ABO genes:

An example of a technical error that can result in an ABO discrepancy:

pH is one of the important factors affecting Ag-Ab reaction. The recommended pH for routine laboratory testing is:

Given the following reactions of antisera with RBCs: Anti-D 0; Anti-C +; Anti-E +; anti-c +; anti-e +. What is the phenotype expression in Fisher-Race?

Characteristics of routine reagent A and B cells used in reverse typing, EXCEPT;

Reverse typing by itself can be definitive for ABO grouping.

Anti-e is a frequently encountered antibody.

Weakened D blood donor units for transfusion is classified as:

Write: A = True; B = False The c antigen is the most potent immunogen of all of the Rh antigens.

Cells carrying a weak D antigen require the use of what test to demonstrate its presence?

The term Rh positive refers to the presence of:

A decrease in the antibody levels in older individuals, especially in reverse ABO blood typing may result to what reaction?

Major categories of ABO discrepancies are divided into:

A person who expresses no Rh antigens on the RBC is said to be partial D.

ABO antibodies decrease in strength as individuals grow older, THUS in elderly patients, the agglutinins may be difficult to detect.

Rh antibodies are predominantly:

Rh (+) samples when typed with Anti-D are expected to have strong positive reactivity. However, in some individuals, reactivity is weak and shows no agglutination with routine Anti-D testing.

If a group AB, Rh negative patient is admitted with massive bleeding, which of the following units of packed cells would be the least desirable to transfuse?

Genes that are likely to control the expression of Rh proteins on chromosome 1 of humans.

Inheritance of Rh antigen is possibly a/an:

What is the most dramatic Rh trans position effect which weakens the D antigen?

The Rh antibody was so named on the basis of antibody production by guinea pigs and rabbits when transfused with the rhesus monkey RBCs.

Similar with the ABO blood group system, Rh antibodies also bind complement.

Rh antibodies would best react at what temperature?

Write: A = True; B = False Most Rh antibodies are stimulated by RBC antigens.

Referred to as a phenotype occurring in individuals whose RBCs possess an extremely low number of D antigen sites that most reagent anti-D are unable to detect.

The primary function of Rh:

In the Rh blood group system, D antigen is the highly immunogenic while _____ is said to be the least.

Except in the case of newborn and very young infants, a reverse cell typing should also be performed to verify the results of forward typing.

The C antigen in Fisher-Race is equivalent in Weiner's nomenclature as:

Rh terminology that has no genetic basis and assigns a number to each antigen of the system in order of its discovery or recognized relationship.

The pre-warm technique is most useful in investigating which types of blood bank problems?

That the patient’s red cell group is not what it seems

What is the phenotype expression in Fisher-Race given the following reactions of antisera with RBCs: Anti-D 0; Anti-C 0; Anti-E 0; anti-c +; anti-e +.

Rh terminologies that are based on postulated genetic theories of Rh inheritance:

One or more D epitopes within the D protein is either missing or altered:

This represents the absence of a D antigen according to Fisher-Race terminology.

Choose the correct order of antigens that are highly immunogenic to the least.

When D antigen expression is weakened because one or more D epitopes within the entire D protein is either missing or altered. This called:

Blood donor units for transfusion are considered Rh positive if either the D or weak D test is positive.

FACTS on Rh blood group system, EXCEPT;

Rh antibodies are mostly IgM and can therefore cross the placenta.

When no Rh antigens are expressed on the RBC membrane, the term ____ is used to express the phenotype.

Phenotypically, erythrocytes of the partial D type react similarly to:

Production of antibodies peaks when an individual is between:

Inconsistent results of forward and reverse grouping must be resolved. Pertinent information on patients are necessary, EXCEPT;

Rh antibodies are usually produced following exposure of the individual’s immune system to foreign red cells either through.

Rh negative individuals can arise from different mutations and are common among the following ethnic background, EXCEPT;

A pregnant woman produces an antibody directed at an antigen present on fetal cells but absent from maternal cells usually at the second pregnancy.

Antibodies present before 3 to 6 months of age are:

The Rh antigen on the RBC is normal but the steric arrangement of the C antigen in relationship with the D antigen appears to interfere with the execution of the D antigen thus resulting in its weakened expression.

In the Rosenfield alpha/numeric terminology, a number is assigned to each antigen of the Rh system in order of its discovery.

The D phenotype does not code for the production of ____ antigen/s.

Cord blood cells from newborn infants are readily tested for:

Prevention of susceptible D negative mothers from forming anti-D during pregnancy can be possible through the introduction of:

Rh incompatibility can be a major cause of what complications in pregnancy?

D antigen is highly immunogenic that an exposure to _______ of Rh-positive RBCs can stimulate antibody production in a Rh-negative individual.

It is hypothesized that the gene for Rh produces an agglutinogen that contains blood factors to which each of the factor is an antigen acknowledged by an antibody.

The major crossmatch consists of a mixture of:

The primary purpose(s) of the immediate spin phase major crossmatch is (are) to:

Match the type of transfusion reaction with the condition: URTICARIA.

Match the type of transfusion reaction with the condition: Hemolysis of erythrocytes during or immediately after blood infusion.

The prompt thing to do if there is occurrence of a transfusion reaction:

A transfusion reaction can include:

The usual consequence/s of a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is/are:

The type of cell most frequently responsible for febrile transfusion reactions is the:

Non antibody cause/s of acute hemolytic reaction/s include/s:

Performing ____ with the patient's sample and donor's red cell is a vital consideration before conducting a crossmatch.

Match the type of transfusion reaction with the condition: Infectious diseases.

To prevent delayed transfusion reactions, blood specimens used for compatibility testing should be no more than ____ old, if a patient has been recently transfused.

The most severe form of a transfusion reaction is:

no more than ____ old, if a patient has been recently transfused.

The most severe form of a transfusion reaction is:

The following causes false positive compatibility test results, EXCEPT;

The time allowed for the incubation of the microtube at 37°C and done after the addition of the patient's sample is:

This technology is based on the controlled centrifugation of RBCs using gel for trapping the agglutinates and is performed in a specially designed microtube.

If a patient is group AB and donor blood of the recipient’s own group is not available, what other type can be used as packed RBCs?

If a patient is group A and donor blood of the recipient’s own group is not available, what other type can be used as packed RBCs?

If a patient is group O and donor blood of the recipient’s own type is not available, what other type/s can be used as packed RBCs?

Reagents to boost antigen-antibody reactions:

The most frequent cause of febrile transfusion reaction is the presence of ____ in the recipient:

Tests mandatory before blood can be released for transfusion, EXCEPT;

GEL test card: The appearance of a solid band of RBCs formed at top of the gel is interpreted as:

What is the recommended length of time for centrifugation in gel card crossmatch?

Recommended patient's sample for pre-transfusion testing:

The most common initial symptoms of an acute hemolytic reaction is:

A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of ___ occurring in association with the transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation.

The factor/s that determine/s whether a transfusion reaction will be acute or delayed and intravascular or extravascular is/are:

The mixing between the recipient’s serum with donor RBCs and centrifuging immediately:

What is the required RBC suspension needed for crossmatch using the gel technology?

At centrifugation, what will happen to the large RBC agglutinates?

Match the type of transfusion reaction with the condition: Graft-versus-host disease

A reaction where unagglutinated RBCs pass through the column of the microtube forming a pellet at the bottom after centrifugation.

The poorest ABO choice of blood for an AB recipient is:

Considered as the utmost advantage of gel technology:

A substitute blood group for an 'O' blood.

The phase in the major crossmatch where it detects clinically significant agglutinating or hemolyzing antibodies and those of the Rh antibodies and Lewis system.

Ratio between patient's serum and donor's red cell in tube method crossmatch:

The most frequent cause of fatal transfusion reactions is:

The presence of all coagulation factors can be found in:

Identify the donor deferral as appropriate: Positive for HIV antibody

Which of the following infections can be potentially transmitted through blood or blood component transfusion?

Allogeneic donor must have a hematocrit count of at least:

Leukocytes are reduced to a certain extent inorder to diminish HLA alloimmunization and CMV transmission. As to what count is it reduced?

Granulocyte transfusions are clinically appropriate for:

A standardized medical history questionnaire in blood donation was developed by task force consists of:

Product of fractionation of pooled plasma and useful in treating patients requiring volume replacement.

Registration of donors includes the following data, EXCEPT;

An allogeneic donor should weigh at least:

Donor-patient is also referred to as:

What blood component is most often recommended and transfused to infants below four months of age?

The most common cause of allergic reactions:

A donor experiencing convulsions defines what

type of donor reaction?

The ideal interval for blood donation is _____ to

give time for the body to replenish the lost fluids

and red cells.*

A. every month

B. every 3 to 4 months

C. once a year

D. every 2 weeks

Minimum retention time for donor records: *

a. 2 to 10 years

b. 2 years

c. 5 to 10 years

d. 3 yrs