Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Worksheet Questions Extraction

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the Carr's index of good flow powder property

a)

5-15

b)

12-16

c)

18-21

d)

28-35

2.

Which microorganism is involved in the assay of Rifampicin

a)

Bacillus subtilis

b)

Micrococcus luteus

c)

Bacillus pumilus

d)

Bacillus cereus

3.

Which percentage of dextrose is isotonic with the blood plasma

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

4.

What is the biological source of Alexandrian Senna

a)

Cassia aungustifolia

b)

Cassia acutifolia

c)

Cassia Bravifolia

d)

Cassia Nerifolia

5.

HLB of SPAN and TWEEN surfactants may be obtained from which of the following equations

a)

HLB = E/5

b)

HLB = (E+P)/5

c)

HLB = 20 (1 − S/A)

d)

HLB = (hydrophilic group numbers) − (lipophilic group numbers) + 7

6.

If the given drug is absorbed by passive what will be its absorption kinetics

a)

Zero Order

b)

First Order

c)

Second order

d)

Pseudo-zero Order

7.

Which of the following is delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction

a)

Arthus reaction

b)

Penicillin sensitivity

c)

Tuberculin sensitivity

d)

ABO incompatibility

8.

Which of the following is NOT suitable as a post-coital contraceptive

a)

Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg

b)

Ulipristal acetate 30 mg

c)

Mifepristone 10-25 mg

d)

Mestranol 1.5 mg

9.

Which of the following properties are characteristics of tannins: P) They give a precipitate with alkaloids; Q) They give a yellow or bluish red color with iron(III) chloride; R) They transform hide into leather; S) They give a pale-pink precipitate with iodine

a)

P, Q, S

b)

P and Q

c)

P and R

d)

Only Q

10.

Adverse drug event reporting is the responsibility of all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Pharmacist and physician

b)

Manufacturer

c)

Consumer

d)

Regulatory authorities

11.

Time dependent dilatant behavior is known as

a)

Thixotrophy

b)

Rheopexy

c)

Rheomalaxis

d)

Plastic

12.

Chairman of DTAB is

a)

Health minister of India

b)

Director general of Health services

c)

Drug controller of India

d)

President of AICTE

13.

Plasmodesmata is

a)

Lignified element

b)

Vascular element

c)

Very fine protoplasmic thread

d)

None

14.

Efficiency of drug is checked in modest population in

a)

Clinical trial-phase1

b)

Clinical trial-phase2

c)

Clinical trial-phase3

d)

Clinical trial-phase4

15.

Which of the following statements is correct for gram positive bacteria

a)

Cell wall has a thin peptidoglycan layer

b)

Cell wall lipid content is very low and smaller volume of periplasm

c)

Lipopolysaccharide layer is present

d)

Teichoic acid is present

16.

The terms upper consulate temperature and lower consulate temperature are related to which phenomenon

a)

Cloud point

b)

Critical solution temperature

c)

Kraft point

d)

Phase inversion

17.

Match the alkaloid Pilocarpine with its synthesis precursor

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Histidine

d)

Acetate derived

18.

Match the alkaloid Connine with its synthesis precursor

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Histidine

d)

Acetate derived

19.

Match the alkaloid Caffeine with its synthesis precursor

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Histidine

d)

Acetate derived

20.

Match the alkaloid Yohimbine with its synthesis precursor

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Histidine

d)

Acetate derived

21.

Which one of the following is a solid dosage form excipient which can play the role of a diluent, a disintegrant, a glidant, a lubricant and a pore/channel former

a)

Lactose

b)

Microcrystalline cellulose

c)

Ethyl cellulose

d)

Eudragit RL 100

22.

What is the required floor area for running a pharmacy for wholesale or distribution

a)

6 sq meters

b)

10 sq meters

c)

15 sq meters

d)

30 sq meters

23.

Bioavailability differences among drug's oral formulations are most likely to occur if it

a)

Is freely water soluble

b)

Is incompletely absorbed

c)

Is completely absorbed

d)

Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

24.

Match the drug Ergotamine with its receptor profile

a)

5-HT2 antagonist

b)

5-HT1 partial agonist/antagonist

c)

5-HT3 antagonist

d)

5-HT1D agonist

25.

Match the drug Ondansetron with its receptor profile

a)

5-HT2 antagonist

b)

5-HT1 partial agonist/antagonist

c)

5-HT3 antagonist

d)

5-HT1D agonist

26.

Match the drug Sumatriptan with its receptor profile

a)

5-HT2 antagonist

b)

5-HT1 partial agonist/antagonist

c)

5-HT3 antagonist

d)

5-HT1D agonist

27.

Match the drug Ketanserin with its receptor profile

a)

5-HT2 antagonist

b)

5-HT1 partial agonist/antagonist

c)

5-HT3 antagonist

d)

5-HT1D agonist

28.

What strategy of drug design is frequently used on complex lead compounds derived from natural products

a)

Extension

b)

Simplication

c)

Rigidication

d)

Conformational block

29.

Which type of photon detector is commonly microfabricated into arrays of 500 or More individual detectors

a)

Photocell

b)

Phototube

c)

Photomultiplier tube

d)

Photodiode

30.

Which of the following is a phse II drug metabolism reaction associated with genetic polymorphism

a)

Glucuronidation

b)

Acetylation

c)

Reduction

d)

Glutathione conjugation

31.

A gram-negative diplococcus associated with urinary tract infection , pelvic inflammatory disease and conjunctivitis, meningitis is

a)

Neissria gonorrhoeae

b)

Chlamdia Trachomatis

c)

Hemophilus influenza

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

32.

Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect

a)

Estrogen

b)

Human chorionic gonadotropin

c)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

d)

Luteinizing hormone

33.

Drug Z is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent effective for the treatment of pinworm. Identify drug Z

a)

Phyrantel

b)

Paramomycin

c)

Integrase

d)

Protease

34.

Methenamine used for UTI is a prodrug. How and to what is is converted into

a)

At low pH of Urine, to formaldehye

b)

At high pH of urine, to aminosalicylic acid

c)

At low pH of Urine, to amonosalicylic acid

d)

At high pH of urine,to formaldehye

35.

The correct order for the basic features of a mass spectrometer is

a)

Acceleration, deflection, detection, ionization

b)

Ionization ,Acceleration, deflection, detection

c)

Acceleration, ionization, deflection, detection

d)

Acceleration, deflection, ionization, detection

36.

Match the following enzymes/protein with specific functions in DNA replication: Helicases — select the correct function

a)

Processive unwinding of DNA

b)

Seals the single strand

c)

Relieves torsional strain

d)

Initates synthesis of RNA Primers

37.

Match the following enzymes/protein with specific functions in DNA replication: DNA Primses — select the correct function

a)

Processive unwinding of DNA

b)

Seals the single strand

c)

Relieves torsional strain

d)

Initates synthesis of RNA Primers

38.

Match the following enzymes/protein with specific functions in DNA replication: DNA ligases — select the correct function

a)

Processive unwinding of DNA

b)

Seals the single strand

c)

Relieves torsional strain

d)

Initates synthesis of RNA Primers

39.

Match the following enzymes/protein with specific functions in DNA replication: Topoisomerases — select the correct function

a)

Processive unwinding of DNA

b)

Seals the single strand

c)

Relieves torsional strain

d)

Initates synthesis of RNA Primers

40.

Which is the first line drug for the treatment of generalized seizures

a)

Valproic acid

b)

Anhydrotetracycline

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Doxycycline

41.

Tetracycline in basic solution is usstable and forms which product

a)

Epitthracycline

b)

Anhydrotetracycline

c)

Isotetracycline

d)

Doxycycline

42.

The location of the blood-brain barrier is considered to be

a)

At the level of the brain capillaries

b)

At the level of gila

c)

At the level of neorons

d)

At the level of dendrites

43.

The following drug metabolizing reaction in entirely non-microsomal:

a)

Glucuronide conjugation

b)

Acetylation

c)

Oxidation

d)

Reduction

44.

Which of the following methods is used to determine whether a process functions properly for its intended use

a)

Capacity

b)

Inspection

c)

Validation

d)

Design Review

45.

Match product, source and plant part form which they areobtained: Bacosides — select the correct source and plant part

a)

Aciacia catechu, Herb

b)

Rubiatctorium, Leaf

c)

Bacopamonnieri, Herb

d)

Lawsoniainternis, Stem

46.

Match product, source and plant part form which they areobtained: Cutch — select the correct source and plant part

a)

Aciacia catechu, Stem

b)

Rubiatctorium, Root

c)

Bacopamonnieri, Leaf

d)

Lawsoniainternis, Herb

47.

Match product, source and plant part form which they areobtained: Henna — select the correct source and plant part

a)

Aciacia catechu, Root

b)

Rubiatctorium, Stem

c)

Bacopamonnieri, Herb

d)

Lawsoniainternis, Leaf

48.

Match product, source and plant part form which they areobtained: Alizarm — select the correct source and plant part

a)

Aciacia catechu, Leaf

b)

Rubiatctorium, Root

c)

Bacopamonnieri, Stem

d)

Lawsoniainternis, Herb

49.

What is the significance of term overfill

a)

It is similar to overage

b)

It is the excess volume to be field in containers as vials, ampoules to avoid loss by degradation

c)

It is the excess filing of container as vials, ampoules to avoid the loss during case

d)

It is violation of packaging regulation as per GMP

50.

Identity the false statements

a)

A characteristics of drugs eliminated by zero order kinetic process is that the half –life is not constrains

b)

The plasma drug concertation versus time curve for a drug eliminated by zero order kinetics linear

c)

A fundamental characteristics of all first order pharmacogenetics processes is that the rate of the process is proportional to drug concentration

d)

A characteristics of absorption by lipid diffusion is its saturability at high drug concentrations

51.

2’, 3’-Didehydro-3’-deoxy thymidine is the chemical name of which of following antiviral agents

a)

Didenosine

b)

Zidovudine

c)

Stavudine

d)

Zalcitabine

52.

Oseltamivir is antiviral drug. It produces its action by inhibiting which enzymes

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Neuraminidase

c)

Praziquantel

d)

Ivermectin

53.

In NMR spectrum, a signal is observed as triplet. What will be the ratio of relative peak areas in this signal

a)

1:1:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

1:3:1

d)

1:4:1

54.

Which problem can arise if the material to be compressed into tablet tends to adhere to die walls

a)

Picking

b)

Sticking

c)

Capping

d)

Marbling

55.

What is the half life of Tc-99m

a)

66 years

b)

66 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

60 minutes

56.

Eudragits are

a)

Phthalate polymers

b)

Cellulose polymers

c)

Acrylate polymers

d)

Amide polymers

57.

Drugs (price control) order 1995 and related orders form time to time are enforeced by

a)

NPPA

b)

CSIR

c)

DBT

d)

ICMR

58.

Match the drugs with plant from which they are isolated and their families — For Artemisinin, choose the correct plant and family from the lists: plants (Periwinkle; May apple; Sweet wormwood; Maxican wild yam) and families (Dioscoreaceae; Apocynaceae; Berberidaceae; Asteraceae)

a)

Sweet wormwood; Asteraceae

b)

Periwinkle; Apocynaceae

c)

May apple; Berberidaceae

d)

Maxican wild yam; Dioscoreaceae

59.

Match the drugs with plant from which they are isolated and their families — For Diosgenin, choose the correct plant and family from the lists: plants (Periwinkle; May apple; Sweet wormwood; Maxican wild yam) and families (Dioscoreaceae; Apocynaceae; Berberidaceae; Asteraceae)

a)

Periwinkle; Apocynaceae

b)

Maxican wild yam; Dioscoreaceae

c)

May apple; Berberidaceae

d)

Sweet wormwood; Asteraceae

60.

Match the drugs with plant from which they are isolated and their families — For Etoposide, choose the correct plant and family from the lists: plants (Periwinkle; May apple; Sweet wormwood; Maxican wild yam) and families (Dioscoreaceae; Apocynaceae; Berberidaceae; Asteraceae)

a)

Sweet wormwood; Asteraceae

b)

Maxican wild yam; Dioscoreaceae

c)

May apple; Berberidaceae

d)

Periwinkle; Apocynaceae

61.

Match the drugs with plant from which they are isolated and their families — For Vinblastine and Vincristine, choose the correct plant and family from the lists: plants (Periwinkle; May apple; Sweet wormwood; Maxican wild yam) and families (Dioscoreaceae; Apocynaceae; Berberidaceae; Asteraceae)

a)

May apple; Berberidaceae

b)

Periwinkle; Apocynaceae

c)

Sweet wormwood; Asteraceae

d)

Maxican wild yam; Dioscoreaceae

62.

Which of the following is an irreversible phenomenon related to stability of emulsion

a)

Craking

b)

Creaming

c)

Coalescence

d)

Flocculation

63.

If a drug is highly bound to plasma proteins, what might be its reason or consequence

a)

It most likely carried by α-glycorprotien

b)

It has a high renal clearance

c)

It has a large Vd

d)

It is a likely candidate for drug interactions

64.

In order to make a generic substitution ; a pharmacist must do

a)

Notify the patient of the substitution

b)

Charge the same or lower price for the generic

c)

Place the brand name on the label and write “substitute for”

d)

Obtain the physician’s consent to substitute the product

65.

Which of the following groups can form ionic interactions and also act as a hydrogen bond acceptor

a)

Hydroxyl group (OH)

b)

Carboxylate group (RCOO)

c)

Aminononium group (RNH3+)

d)

Ketone (C=O)

66.

Which of the following drug does not give pink colour with ruthenium red

a)

Agar

b)

Guar gum

c)

Pectin

d)

Isabgol

67.

The IUPAC name, 4-Amino-N(5,6-dimethoxy-4-pyrimidinyl) benzenesulfonamide belong to which generic drug

a)

Sulfadimidine

b)

Sulfadoxine

c)

Sulfalene

d)

Sufamerazine

68.

Method of inspections used to determine the absorption rate constants. It assumes that (P) Ka is at least five time grater activities (Q) Absorption in complete (i.e. >95% complete) at the time of peak concentration (R) Both Absorption and elimination are first order processes

a)

P and Q

b)

Q and R

c)

Q and R

d)

P and R

69.

The clinical trial registry in India is maintained by

a)

World health organization, Delhi

b)

Indian council of medical research, New Delhi

c)

Institute of Clinical Research, New Delhi

d)

Central drugs standard control Organization, New Delhi

70.

What is the correct order for unsaturation in following fatty acids (1) Palmitoleic Acid (2) Linolenic (3) Linoleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid

a)

1>2>3>4

b)

3>4>2>1

c)

4>3>2>1

d)

4>2>3>1

71.

Which of the following is an example of Diaz onium ion

a)

CH3 N3

b)

CH N•

c)

H N-NH •

d)

None of these

72.

Which term describes ‘The degree to which a set of inherent properties of a product system, of process fulfils requirements, the best’

a)

Standard

b)

Quality

c)

Quality objective

d)

State of control

73.

What will be AUC value of lidocaine if the administered dose is 0.2 g and the total body clearance is 45 L/h

a)

4.44 h·mg/L

b)

0.0044 h·mg/L

c)

9.00 h·gm/L

d)

9000 h·mg/L

74.

Toluene is converted of which compound in presence of CrO3 with acetic anhydride

a)

Benzyl alcohol

b)

Benzaldehyde

c)

Benzoic acid

d)

Benzoin

75.

Select the correct mode of action for Artemisinin from the following: (P) Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Transport (Q) Inhibition of heme polymerase (R) Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered radicals (S) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

a)

Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Transport

b)

Inhibition of heme polymerase

c)

Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered radicals

d)

Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

76.

Select the correct mode of action for Pyrimethamine from the following: (P) Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Transport (Q) Inhibition of heme polymerase (R) Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered radicals (S) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

a)

Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Transport

b)

Inhibition of heme polymerase

c)

Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered radicals

d)

Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

77.

Select the correct mode of action for Quinine from the following: (P) Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Transport (Q) Inhibition of heme polymerase (R) Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered radicals (S) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

a)

Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Transport

b)

Inhibition of heme polymerase

c)

Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered radicals

d)

Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

78.

Select the correct mode of action for Atovaquone/Proguanil from the following: (P) Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Transport (Q) Inhibition of heme polymerase (R) Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered radicals (S) Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

a)

Inhibition of parasite mitochondrial electron Transport

b)

Inhibition of heme polymerase

c)

Generation of oxygen and carbon- centered radicals

d)

Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

79.

Methyl ether of erythromycin is

a)

Clarithromycin

b)

Dirithromycin

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Mithramycin

80.

Ebullioscopic method is based on which of the following observation

a)

Freezing point depression

b)

Boiling point elevation

c)

Osmotic pressure change

d)

None of the above

81.

How many fundamental vibrations can be expected for C2H5Cl

a)

7

b)

11

c)

14

d)

18

82.

Which of the antibodies provide passive immunity to newborn baby

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

83.

Increased number of mitosis may be present in the following tissue EXCEPT

a)

Bone marrow cells

b)

Nails

c)

Hepatocytes

d)

Intestinal Cells

84.

To which chemical class the vinca alkaloids belong

a)

Tropane

b)

Indole

c)

Tryptopha

d)

Purine

85.

An antibiotic that resembles the 3' end of a charged tRNA molecule is

a)

Streptomycin

b)

Vancamycin

c)

Puromycin

d)

Tetracycline

86.

If the cohesive forces between similar molecules are less than the adhesive forces between dissimilar molecules, a deviation in Raoult’s law is observed. Here which deviation will be seen

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Absent

d)

Either positive or negative

87.

Phenylalanine, a precursor of most of the phenolics in higher plants, is a product of which one of the following pathways

a)

Shikimic acid pathway

b)

Malonic acid pathway

c)

Mevalonic acid pathway

d)

Methylerythritol pathway

88.

Within how many days a pharmacist should dispense diluted aqueous mixtures

a)

7 days

b)

14 days

c)

21 days

d)

30 days

89.

What molecular feature is penicillin G is said to mimic

a)

Disaccharide of N-acetylmuranicanid N- acetylglucosamine

b)

N-acetylneuraminic acid

c)

The pentapeptide moiety of five glycine units

d)

The dipeptide moiety D-ala-D-Ala

90.

If a drug is known to be distributed into total body water, how many milligrams are needed to obtain an initial plasma level of 5 mg/L in a patient weighting 70 kg

a)

210

b)

150

c)

50

d)

35

91.

What does ‘pharmacokinetic compartment’ mean

a)

Part of the body water which is located is the vascular system

b)

Total body water

c)

Plasma, intracellular fluid, together, anatomical water compartments where drug is absorbed

d)

Part of the body water in which the change of a drug concentration has the same kinetics

92.

The resistance to macrolide antibiotics by gram positive organism is developed due to

a)

Decreases uptake of antibiotics

b)

Synthesis of esterase enzyme that hydrolyzes lactone ring of macrolide

c)

Methylation of 50S subunit at the antibiotic binding site

d)

Increased metabolism of antibiotic

93.

The ethanolic solution contaminated with benzene showed absorbance of 0.69 at 260 nm in a 2 cm cell. If the molar absorptivity of benzene in ethanol is 230 M^{-1} cm^{-1}, what is the concentration of benzene in the solution

a)

0.003 M

b)

0.0015 M

c)

0.001 M

d)

0.015 M

94.

The most effective agent for treating psychosis would be

a)

Buspirone

b)

Sertraline

c)

Dextroamphetamine

d)

Olanzapine

95.

TGA is regulatory body of which country

a)

Europe

b)

Australia

c)

Canada

d)

UK

96.

Which prostaglandins have a keto function at C-9 and a α-Hydroxyl group at C-11 in prostanoic acid backbone

a)

PGA

b)

PGI

c)

PGE

d)

PGF

97.

When morphine is heated at 140°C under pressure, with strong HCL, it converts into

a)

Morphinone

b)

Apomorphine

c)

Codeine

d)

Oxymorphine

98.

All of the following are gram-negative rods EXCEPT

a)

Clostridium

b)

Escherichia

c)

Salmonella

d)

Shigella

99.

The cells which secrets male sexhormone testosterone are

a)

Crypts of lieberkuhn

b)

Escherichia

c)

Salmonella

d)

Shigella

100.

If QA and QC are compared

a)

Both are literally the same

b)

QA is a higher activity in the management hierarchy

c)

QA is a higher activity in the management hierarchy

d)

QA is a done by the production person and QC is done by analyst

101.

Bio availability of drug refers to (P) The ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites (Q) Fraction of the drug reaching the target to produce the action (R) The length of time an administered drug is available for action (S) Percentages of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form

a)

Only P

b)

Q and R

c)

R and S

d)

Only S

102.

Following intravenous administration, drugs are distributed fastest to

a)

The skin, kidney, and brain

b)

The liver, kidney, and brain

c)

The liver, adipose, and brain

d)

The liver, kidney, and adipose

103.

Which of the following agents act as hypoglycemic as ATP sensitive potassium channel blocker

a)

Mitiglinide

b)

Pioglitazone

c)

Liraglutide

d)

Sitagliptin

104.

Carbilide shows stongs IR absorption in which of the following range in cm⁻¹

a)

3200-3600

b)

1640-1690

c)

1000-1300

d)

2210-2260

105.

Match the drugs with their adverse effects — Cyclophosphamide

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

c)

Acute hemorrhage cystitis

d)

Cardiotoxicity

106.

Match the drugs with their adverse effects — Doxorubicin

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

c)

Acute hemorrhage cystitis

d)

Cardiotoxicity

107.

Match the drugs with their adverse effects — Bleomycin

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

c)

Acute hemorrhage cystitis

d)

Cardiotoxicity

108.

Match the drugs with their adverse effects — Cisplatin

a)

Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

c)

Acute hemorrhage cystitis

d)

Cardiotoxicity

109.

Which one of the following technique is used to determine glass transition temperature

a)

X-ray diffractometry

b)

Raman spectroscopy

c)

Differential scanning calorimetry

d)

Atomic forced microscopy

110.

Match the schedules with the particulars they describe — Schedule T

a)

Standards for patent or proprietary medicines

b)

Requirements/ guidelines to import &/or manufactures new Drug

c)

GMP practices for Ayurvedic, siddha & Unani medicines

d)

Particulars to be shown in the manufacturing records

111.

Match the schedules with the particulars they describe — Schedule U

a)

Standards for patent or proprietary medicines

b)

Requirements/ guidelines to import &/or manufactures new Drug

c)

GMP practices for Ayurvedic, siddha & Unani medicines

d)

Particulars to be shown in the manufacturing records

112.

Match the schedules with the particulars they describe — Schedule V

a)

Standards for patent or proprietary medicines

b)

Requirements/ guidelines to import &/or manufactures new Drug

c)

GMP practices for Ayurvedic, siddha & Unani medicines

d)

Particulars to be shown in the manufacturing records

113.

Match the schedules with the particulars they describe — Schedule Y

a)

Standards for patent or proprietary medicines

b)

Requirements/ guidelines to import &/or manufactures new Drug

c)

GMP practices for Ayurvedic, siddha & Unani medicines

d)

Particulars to be shown in the manufacturing records

114.

Which of the following UV rays cause cancer

a)

UVA

b)

UVB

c)

UVC

d)

All of the above

115.

Which are the types of antibodies involved in hypersensitivity reactions

a)

IgG and IgD

b)

IgG and IgM

c)

IgD and IgA

d)

IgM and IgD

116.

The term used to describe unequal distribution of colour on a tablet is

a)

Chipping

b)

Mottling

c)

Lamination

d)

Double impress

117.

Why acetyl chloride undergoes nucleophilic substitution at a faster rate than methyl acetate

a)

The ester is more sterically hindered than the acid chloride

b)

The chloride ion is a better leaving group than methoxide

c)

The acid chloride is more sterically hindered than the ester

d)

The methoxide ion is a better leaving group than chloride

118.

The key concept of Total Quality Managements (TQM) is

a)

Total control of all quality related activities

b)

Commitment of all employees to quality improvement and having team meetings

c)

Top management’s direct involvement

d)

The Introduction ot the ISO 9000 Series

119.

A drug of low water solubility when given orally is absorbed up to 90% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class according to BCS classification

a)

Class IV

b)

Class III

c)

Class II

d)

Class I

120.

Which of the following is NOT a component of evaporator

a)

Heat exchange

b)

Vacuum separator

c)

Condenser

d)

Cyclone separator

121.

In parkinson’s disease, there is a predominant loss of dopaminergic neurons

a)

Substantia

b)

Cerebellar

c)

Cerebral cortex

d)

Locus ceruleus

122.

At equilibrium the receptor occupancy is related to drug concentration by

a)

Henderson-Hasselbach equation

b)

Hill-Langmuir equation

c)

Lineweaver-Burk equation

d)

Langmuir adsorption isotherm

123.

Which method is not suitable to calculate area under the curve

a)

Least square method

b)

Weighing and planimetry

c)

Trapezoid rule

d)

Integration of curve

124.

OROS is a technology developed for/as

a)

Oral release rapid onset system

b)

Orally rapid disintegrating tablets

c)

Osmotic controlled oral drug delivery system

d)

Transdermal drug delivery system

125.

Match the events in tablet manufacturing process with the effects found in tables: Rapid drying of coated tablets after coating. Choose the correct effect from: Increased disintegration time, Weight variation, Orange peel, Blistering

a)

Increased disintegration time

b)

Weight variation

c)

Orange peel

d)

Blistering

126.

Match the events in tablet manufacturing process with the effects found in tables: Use to highly viscous solution. Choose the correct effect from: Increased disintegration time, Weight variation, Orange peel, Blistering

a)

Increased disintegration time

b)

Weight variation

c)

Orange peel

d)

Blistering

127.

Match the events in tablet manufacturing process with the effects found in tables: Improper feed rate form hopper. Choose the correct effect from: Increased disintegration time, Weight variation, Orange peel, Blistering

a)

Increased disintegration time

b)

Weight variation

c)

Orange peel

d)

Blistering

128.

Match the events in tablet manufacturing process with the effects found in tables: Excessive compression force. Choose the correct effect from: Increased disintegration time, Weight variation, Orange peel, Blistering

a)

Increased disintegration time

b)

Weight variation

c)

Orange peel

d)

Blistering

129.

At pH 5, the ratio of the protonated to unprotonated forms of morphine pKa 7 would be

a)

1:100

b)

1:10

c)

10:1

d)

100:1

130.

What structure is formed if the acyl side chain of penicillin is hydrolysed

a)

Penicellenic acids

b)

Penillic acids

c)

7-Aminopenicillanic acid

d)

6-Aminopenicillanic acid

131.

The clinical trial is being conducted with 1500 volunteers which may spans on period of 2 years as per protocol. The clinical trial is in which phase

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Phase 4

132.

Which of the following drug has not undergone a clinical trial for its use to decrease intracranial pressure

a)

Dideoxyinosine

b)

Zidovudine

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

Nicotine

133.

Colloidal depression have which type of rheology

a)

Newtonian

b)

Pseudoplastic

c)

Non-Newtonian

d)

Dilatant

134.

Which of the reactive oxygen species is most dangerous to cells

a)

Singlet oxygen

b)

Hydroxyl radical

c)

Superoxide

d)

Peroxide

135.

The Gibb’s Phase rule

a)

Holds only for systems with more than components

b)

Predicts that a maximum of three phase can exits in one components system

c)

Does not count phase compositions as intensive variables

d)

Does not count pressure and temperature as intensive variables

136.

Nerve impulse from the cochlea arrive first in which region of the brain

a)

Auditory cortex

b)

Thalamus

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Inferior colliculus

137.

The product of a Michael reaction of a ketone enolate to ana, b-unsaturated ketone is............And addition reaction occurs in a/an

a)

1,5-deketone; 1,4 fashion

b)

α-substituted acetate; 1,2 fashion

c)

β-hydroxy keto; 1,3 - fashion

d)

α, β - keto ester; 1,5 –fashion

138.

Which of the following is a drug considered as potassium sparing diuretic

a)

Trimatrine

b)

Chlorthiazide

c)

Mannitol

d)

Furosemide

139.

Which of the reagent from the given can be used to protect ketone group

a)

Acidic methanol

b)

Basic methanol

c)

Methanol + KCN

d)

Phenobarbitone

140.

Which of the following drugs causes less inhibition or REM sleep

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Ethanol

c)

Lorazepam

d)

Phenobarbitone

141.

The starting materials for synthesis of sulfamethoxazole are

a)

4-Aminobenzene-1-sulfonyl amide + 3-chloro-5-methyl isoxazole

b)

4-Aminobenzene-1-sulfonyl amide + 3-amino-5-methyl isoxazole

c)

4-Aminobenzene-1-sulfonyl amide + 3-amino-5-methyl isoxazole

d)

4-Aminobenzene-1-sulfonyl amide + 5-chloro-5-methyl isoxazole

142.

Match the following plant product with their chemical class: b-amyrin — choose the correct class.

a)

Alkaloid secondary alcohol

b)

Alkaloid, phenol

c)

Triterpene, secondary alcohol

d)

Acyclic triterpene, polyene

143.

Match the following plant product with their chemical class: Squalene — choose the correct class.

a)

Alkaloid secondary alcohol

b)

Alkaloid, phenol

c)

Triterpene, secondary alcohol

d)

Acyclic triterpene, polyene

144.

Match the following plant product with their chemical class: Morphine — choose the correct class.

a)

Alkaloid secondary alcohol

b)

Alkaloid, phenol

c)

Triterpene, secondary alcohol

d)

Acyclic triterpene, polyene

145.

Match the following plant product with their chemical class: Ephedrine — choose the correct class.

a)

Alkaloid secondary alcohol

b)

Alkaloid, phenol

c)

Triterpene, secondary alcohol

d)

Acyclic triterpene, polyene

146.

All of the following except one are subject to therapeutic drug monitoring. Which one is the exception?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Lithium

c)

Gentamicin

d)

Losartan

147.

Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because

a)

It is required for the process of transamination

b)

It is a co‑factor in oxidative reduction

c)

It is a co‑enzyme for transketolase in the pentose phosphate pathway

d)

It is a co‑enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha‑ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

148.

Which of the following drugs are often found in both prescription and over‑the‑counter nasal decongestants?

a)

Alpha 2 agonists

b)

Alpha 1 agonists

c)

Alpha 1 antagonists

d)

Beta 2 agonists

149.

What is the surface tension of water at 25°C?

a)

58 dyne/cm

b)

68 dyne/cm

c)

72 dyne/cm

d)

82 dyne/cm

150.

Acridine and xanthene rings are related to each other in that

a)

Xanthene is oxygen isoster of acridine

b)

Acridine is oxygen isoster of xanthene

c)

Xanthene is nitrogen isoster of acridine

d)

Xanthene is sulfur isoster as acridine

Similar Resources on Wayground

English for Midwifery Quiz - 15 November

150 questions

English for Midwifery Quiz - 15 November

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Page 1

153 questions

Page 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

University