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CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Exam Revision Questions

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines a peer-to-peer network?

a)

Each host acts as both client and server.

b)

A larger network with many servers and clients.

c)

Moves information using logical network and host IDs.

d)

The OS is deployed as a VM on a hypervisor.

2.

In a client-server network, which description is most accurate?

a)

Some nodes act as clients, like PCs and smartphones.

b)

Each node provides identical services.

c)

Only layer 3 devices can participate.

d)

Every node must host virtual appliances.

3.

Which option best describes an Enterprise LAN?

a)

A large network with many servers and clients.

b)

A small network between two laptops.

c)

A home Wi‑Fi network with one access point.

d)

A WAN connecting ISPs across continents.

4.

Which topology is commonly used in WANs, especially in public networks like the Internet?

a)

Mesh topology

b)

Star topology

c)

Ring topology

d)

Bus topology

5.

Which OSI layer moves information around the internetwork using logical network and host IDs?

a)

Network layer

b)

Data Link layer

c)

Physical layer

d)

Transport layer

6.

What are virtual appliances?

a)

The OS is deployed as a VM running on a hypervisor.

b)

Preconfigured physical routers.

c)

A scripting toolkit for CLI automation.

d)

A replacement for binary encoding at the Physical layer.

7.

Which statement accurately defines binary?

a)

Base 2 with digits 0 and 1; each place is the next power of 2.

b)

Base 10 with digits 0–9; each place increases by 10.

c)

Hexadecimal digits 0–F used for MAC addressing.

d)

A compression method for network traffic.

8.

What action should be taken during Troubleshooting Step 1?

a)

Question users about any changes.

b)

Form a theory of probable cause.

c)

Verify system functionality.

d)

Determine next steps if theory is confirmed.

9.

What is emphasized in Troubleshooting Step 3?

a)

If theory is confirmed, determine next steps to resolve the problem.

b)

Question users and document changes.

c)

Escalate immediately to vendor support.

d)

Close the ticket and record lessons learned.

10.

What is the purpose of Troubleshooting Step 7?

a)

Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

b)

Validate theory with a controlled test.

c)

Back up configurations before changes.

d)

Notify users of a scheduled outage.

11.

Which statement about Ethernet standards is true?

a)

They ensure network cabling meets bandwidth requirements.

b)

They guarantee zero packet loss on a LAN.

c)

They require fiber cabling for all backbones.

d)

They prohibit the use of copper in data centers.

12.

Which statement about copper cable is correct?

a)

It transmits electrical signals and creates low voltage.

b)

It transmits optical signals and requires a laser at each end.

c)

It carries only analog voice signals.

d)

It is immune to electromagnetic interference.

13.

Which use case is listed for twisted pair cables?

a)

Used for telephone and data networks.

b)

Used for long-haul submarine cables.

c)

For industrial control systems.

d)

For audio equipment in studios.

14.

What can a plenum space carry?

a)

HVAC systems can run through plenum spaces.

b)

Only electrical conduits are allowed in plenums.

c)

A plenum space cannot carry HVAC systems.

d)

Only water sprinklers may run through plenums.

15.

In the T568A wiring standard, which pairs connect to pins 1 and 2?

a)

Green pairs

b)

Orange pairs

c)

Brown pairs

d)

Blue pairs

16.

Which statement about fiber optic signals is accurate?

a)

They are difficult to intercept and have low attenuation over distance.

b)

They are easily intercepted and suffer from high attenuation.

c)

They require copper repeaters every 10 meters.

d)

They generate low voltage across the conductor.

17.

What do fiber patch cables connect?

a)

Wall ports to NICs and patch panels to switches.

b)

Wireless APs to controllers over PoE.

c)

ISP demarcation to customer routers over DSL.

d)

Servers directly to storage over SAS.

18.

What does Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) use?

a)

Multiple wavelengths on a single strand to carry multiple channels.

b)

Multiple strands for a single channel to reduce latency.

c)

Electrical multiplexing to combine copper pairs.

d)

Time slots that replace Ethernet framing.

19.

Which throughput claim about Cat 6 over 100 meters is correct?

a)

It does not support 100 Gbps over 100 meters.

b)

It supports 100 Gbps over 100 meters.

c)

It supports 400 Gbps over 10 meters.

d)

It only supports 10 Mbps over 100 meters.

20.

Which component connects a host to the transmission medium?

a)

Network Interface Card (NIC)

b)

Small Form-factor Pluggable (SFP) module

c)

Transceiver within a router

d)

Wireless access point radio

21.

Which transceiver type uses LC connectors and supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet?

a)

SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable)

b)

RJ-45 copper transceiver

c)

QSFP (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable) for 40 GbE only

d)

GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) legacy module

22.

Which device acts as a multiport repeater so that all ports receive transmissions from any port?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router

d)

Bridge

23.

What is the table in a switch that stores mappings of source MAC addresses to switch ports?

a)

MAC Address Table

b)

ARP Cache

c)

Routing Table

d)

CAM-ARP Table

24.

Which protocol resolves an IPv4 address to a MAC address?

a)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

b)

Domain Name System (DNS)

c)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

d)

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

25.

Which term distinguishes the network ID from the host ID in an IPv4 address?

a)

Network Mask (Netmask)

b)

Default Gateway

c)

Subnet Router Anycast

d)

CIDR Router

26.

Which statement correctly describes an IPv4 address?

a)

It is 32 bits long and represented in binary.

b)

It is 64 bits long and represented only in hexadecimal.

c)

It is 128 bits long and represented in dotted decimal.

d)

It is 32 bytes long and represented in octal.

27.

What device does a host use to forward packets to a different network or subnet?

a)

Default Gateway

b)

Core Switch

c)

DHCP Relay

d)

DNS Resolver

28.

Which command renews a DHCP client lease in Windows?

a)

ipconfig /renew

b)

ipconfig /flushdns

c)

netstat -r

d)

arp -a

29.

Which device combines multiple input signals into one for transmission?

a)

Multiplexer

b)

Demultiplexer

c)

Switch

d)

Repeater

30.

Which network topology connects every device directly to every other device?

a)

Mesh topology

b)

Star topology

c)

Bus topology

d)

Ring topology

31.

Which command checks network connectivity by sending ICMP Echo Requests?

a)

ping

b)

tracert

c)

pathping

d)

nslookup

32.

Which protocol encrypts data in transit between email servers?

a)

STARTTLS

b)

TLS-PSK for Wi-Fi only

c)

SSLv2 mandatory

d)

IMAP without TLS

33.

Which tool is used to monitor and analyze network traffic packets?

a)

Wireshark

b)

Notepad++

c)

PowerShell ISE

d)

Event Viewer

34.

Which term refers to the IP address of the next router in the path to the destination?

a)

Default Gateway

b)

Next Hop

c)

Routing Table

d)

Subnet Mask

35.

Which technology improves network security and performance by segmenting a switched network into separate broadcast domains?

a)

Subnetting

b)

Network Address Translation (NAT)

c)

Port Forwarding

d)

Virtual LANs (VLANs)

36.

Which distance-vector routing protocol selects the best path based on the lowest hop count?

a)

OSPF

b)

EIGRP

c)

RIP

d)

BGP

37.

A routing issue occurs due to a missing route in the router’s configuration. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Incorrect subnet mask

b)

Missing route

c)

Router overload

d)

Incorrect IP address

38.

What mechanism allows an edge router to translate private LAN addresses to public Internet addresses, conserving public IPv4 space?

a)

DHCP

b)

VPN

c)

NAT

d)

DNS

39.

Which protocol at the Transport layer provides connectionless, best-effort delivery without acknowledgments or flow control?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

HTTP

d)

IP

40.

Which device filters traffic between private and public zones by analyzing connection requests and enforcing rules?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Load Balancer

d)

Firewall

41.

When a DHCP server provides settings like default gateway, DNS servers, and domain name along with IP address and mask, these are called:

a)

DHCP Options

b)

DHCP Reservations

c)

DHCP Lease Time

d)

DHCP Relay

42.

Which hierarchical model divides an enterprise network into access, distribution, and core layers?

a)

Three-tiered Hierarchy

b)

Flat Network Design

c)

Mesh Topology

d)

Spanning Tree Protocol

43.

A Windows host cannot reach a DHCP server and self-assigns an address in the range 169.254.1.1–169.254.254.254. What feature is this?

a)

Static IP Assignment

b)

DHCP Reservation

c)

APIPA addressing

d)

Link-Local Addressing

44.

On an 802.1Q trunk, which VLAN is untagged traffic placed into by default for legacy devices?

a)

Native VLAN

b)

Management VLAN

c)

Voice VLAN

d)

Default VLAN

45.

How can a network with multiple subnets handle DHCP for all segments without a server on each subnet?

a)

Static IP addressing

b)

DHCP relay

c)

DNS forwarding

d)

NAT traversal

46.

You can ping a host’s default gateway but cannot reach remote networks. What is the likely issue?

a)

DNS issues

b)

Default gateway misconfiguration

c)

Firewall blocking traffic

d)

Routing table issues

47.

What uniquely identifies a host on the Internet and prevents duplicate names across domains?

a)

Hostname only

b)

IP address alone

c)

Subdomain hierarchy

d)

Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

48.

Which Transport-layer protocol is connection-oriented, uses acknowledgments, and ensures reliable delivery?

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

ICMP

d)

ARP

49.

Which statement best describes the Slew method in network time synchronization?

a)

A rapid correction that sets the clock to the correct time, risking disruption

b)

A slower NTP adjustment that nudges the clock by small increments

c)

A manual process where administrators reset the BIOS clock

d)

A one-time calibration done only at device provisioning

50.

Which option identifies the primary purpose of the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) in enterprise environments?

a)

Providing encrypted email delivery between mail servers

b)

Facilitating administrative upload and download of files to and from servers and appliances

c)

Monitoring CPU and memory utilization on network devices

d)

Synchronizing system time across distributed systems

51.

Syslog is most accurately characterized as which of the following?

a)

A de facto standard protocol and supporting software for centralized collection of log events from distributed systems

b)

A peer-to-peer file sharing protocol designed for multimedia content

c)

A transport-layer protocol that ensures sequencing and retransmission

d)

A cloud backup format for archiving system images

52.

In cybersecurity, what does the term Vulnerability refer to?

a)

An automated patch that fixes discovered defects without downtime

b)

A weakness that could be accidentally triggered or intentionally exploited to cause a security breach

c)

A confirmed incident where data has already been exfiltrated

d)

A legal requirement to disclose software defects to regulators

53.

Which statement about Load Balancers aligns with their role in networked services?

a)

They are groups of compromised hosts used to launch DDoS and DRDoS attacks after malware installation

b)

They distribute client requests across multiple servers to improve availability and performance of applications and services

c)

They replace NTP servers by slewing time across data centers

d)

They act solely as storage devices for backing up system logs via Syslog

54.

Which term describes an attack where a malicious server provides incorrect default gateway and/or DNS resolver settings to clients to redirect their traffic?

a)

Rogue DHCP

b)

MAC flooding attacks

c)

Spoofing attacks

d)

Performance metrics

55.

Which backup approach creates a snapshot-style image of the entire system that can be restored to any device of the same make and model?

a)

Incremental backup

b)

Differential backup

c)

State/bare metal

d)

File-level copy

56.

Which attack aims to overwhelm a switch’s memory that stores the MAC address table?

a)

ARP poisoning

b)

MAC flooding attacks

c)

Port scanning

d)

DNS tunneling

57.

Which term refers to indicators such as bandwidth, utilisation, CPU/memory, and storage that are monitored to judge whether a host or appliance is operating normally?

a)

Service level objectives

b)

Baseline thresholds

c)

Performance metrics

d)

Capacity planning

58.

Which description best matches the impact of corrupt forwarding at the Data Link layer (Layer 2), which can be substantial and difficult to mitigate?

a)

Pharming attacks

b)

Spoofing attacks

c)

Brute-force attacks

d)

War driving

59.

What is the term for a logical partition of a network that improves security by isolating traffic between different segments?

a)

Subnet mask

b)

VLAN

c)

Trunk port

d)

DMZ

60.

Which network device forwards frames only to the port associated with the destination MAC address, unlike a hub?

a)

Repeater

b)

Router

c)

Switch

d)

Bridge-mode modem

61.

Which method translates private IP addresses to a public IP address for communication over the internet?

a)

PAT chaining

b)

NAT

c)

Proxy ARP

d)

Split tunneling

62.

Which system translates human-readable domain names into numerical IP addresses to help devices locate each other on the internet?

a)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

b)

DNS (Domain Name System)

c)

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

d)

QoS (Quality of Service)

63.

Which device connects different networks and determines the best path for data packets to travel?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Hub

d)

Repeater

64.

What term describes the networking technique that prioritises certain types of traffic to ensure better performance for critical services?

a)

DMZ (Demilitarized Zone)

b)

QoS (Quality of Service)

c)

VLAN (Virtual LAN)

d)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

65.

Which network segment sits between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network to add a layer of protection?

a)

VLAN

b)

DMZ

c)

Subnet

d)

WAN

66.

Which protocol maps an IP address to a MAC address within a local network?

a)

DNS

b)

NAT

c)

ARP

d)

ICMP

67.

Which technology provides a secure, encrypted tunnel that allows remote users to access a corporate network over the internet?

a)

NAT

b)

VPN

c)

Proxy caching

d)

Port mirroring

68.

Firewalls can be categorised based on whether they maintain a state table for established connections. Which pair correctly lists these types?

a)

Packet and Proxy

b)

Host-based and Network-based

c)

Stateful and Stateless

d)

Static and Dynamic

69.

An organisation structures its network into zones to guide security rules. Which combination lists five commonly used security zones?

a)

Private server administrative networks, Private client network, Guest, Public server network, Public

b)

Data center, Branch office, Cloud, Remote user, Partner

c)

Core, Distribution, Access, Wireless, Edge

d)

Development, Testing, Staging, Production, Archive

70.

Which option best identifies three examples of physical security measures?

a)

Firewalls, IDS, and IPS

b)

Door locks, security guards, and CCTV

c)

VPN, NAT, and VLAN

d)

QoS, ARP, and DNS

71.

Which set lists three wireless standards that are commonly referenced in enterprise environments?

a)

802.11n, 802.11ac, 802.11ax

b)

802.3af, 802.1Q, 802.1X

c)

SAS, SATA, NVMe

d)

TLS, SSH, IPsec

72.

Which physical security control directly restricts entry to a server room by requiring a physical mechanism to open a door?

a)

Locks

b)

Geofencing

c)

PTZ cameras

d)

Motion-detection lighting

73.

IEEE 802.11n primarily improved WLAN performance by introducing which capability?

a)

Operation only in the 5 GHz band

b)

Support for MU-MIMO and OFDMA

c)

Higher throughput using MIMO and channel bonding

d)

Power-saving mode that disables beacons

74.

A WLAN deployed for legacy devices needs the earliest widely adopted 2.4 GHz standard with data rates up to 11 Mbps. Which IEEE 802.11 version should be enabled?

a)

802.11a

b)

802.11b

c)

802.11g

d)

802.11ac

75.

Refer to the first network diagram: Identify the topology shown and select the most accurate description.

a)

Bus topology where all devices share a single backbone cable

b)

Star topology where all nodes connect to a central switch or hub

c)

Ring topology where data travels in one direction between neighbors

d)

Mesh topology where every node has a link to every other node

76.

Refer to the second and third network diagrams: Which pairing correctly matches each image to its topology?

a)

Image 9.1.2: Star; Image 9.1.3: Bus

b)

Image 9.1.2: Full mesh; Image 9.1.3: Hybrid (combination of topologies)

c)

Image 9.1.2: Ring; Image 9.1.3: Tree only

d)

Image 9.1.2: Bus; Image 9.1.3: Star

77.

Refer to the image: Identify the network device shown. It has multiple WAN/LAN ports, console interfaces, and performs packet forwarding between different logical networks at the OSI Network layer.

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Wireless access point

d)

Network interface card

78.

Refer to the image: Identify the network device shown. It provides many Ethernet ports and is used to establish contention-free network segments at OSI layer 2.

a)

Switch

b)

Router

c)

Modem

d)

Firewall appliance

79.

Which topology connects each node to a central point, typically a switch or a router?

a)

Star topology

b)

Mesh topology

c)

Hybrid topology

d)

Bus topology

80.

Which topology is often used in WANs where each device has a point-to-point connection with every other device?

a)

Mesh topology

b)

Star topology

c)

Ring topology

d)

Tree topology

81.

Which statement best describes a hybrid topology?

a)

A topology that uses a single physical layout for the whole network

b)

A topology that uses a combination of physical or logical topologies

c)

A topology limited to wireless networks only

d)

A topology where every device connects directly to every other device

82.

At which OSI layer does a router primarily operate when forwarding packets between logical networks of different layer 1 and 2 types?

a)

Network layer (Layer 3)

b)

Data Link layer (Layer 2)

c)

Physical layer (Layer 1)

d)

Transport layer (Layer 4)

83.

What is the full form of the abbreviation WEP in networking security?

a)

Wired Equivalent Privacy

b)

Wireless Encrypted Protocol

c)

Wide Ethernet Protection

d)

Web Encryption Profile

84.

What does TKIP stand for in Wi‑Fi security?

a)

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol

b)

Transport Key Internet Protection

c)

Trusted Key Infrastructure Policy

d)

Token Key Interchange Procedure

85.

In the context of wireless communication, RF stands for:

a)

Radio Frequency

b)

Routing Function

c)

Rapid Frame

d)

Remote Facility

86.

A secure tunnel over a public network is commonly called a: What does VPN stand for?

a)

Virtual Private Network

b)

Verified Public Node

c)

Variable Packet Network

d)

Virtual Packet Notation

87.

In remote connectivity, the acronym RAS expands to:

a)

Remote Access Service

b)

Router Authentication System

c)

Remote Administration Server

d)

Resource Allocation Suite

88.

Which statement best defines a datacentre in the context of cloud and enterprise IT?

a)

A site dedicated to provisioning server resources

b)

A desktop computer used for local virtualization

c)

A wireless access point for public networks

d)

A client application for remote login

89.

In networking, what does North-South traffic refer to?

a)

Traffic moving between servers inside the same rack

b)

Traffic that goes to and from a datacentre

c)

Traffic that moves between virtual machines on the same host

d)

Traffic limited to storage arrays within a SAN

90.

Scalability can be achieved by which pair of actions?

a)

Overclocking CPUs and compressing logs

b)

Adding nodes (horizontal scaling) or adding resources to each node (vertical scaling)

c)

Replacing spinning disks with SSDs and enabling caching

d)

Segmenting VLANs and changing subnets

91.

Which cloud model is described as a means of provisioning IT resources such as servers, load balancers, and SAN components quickly?

a)

IaaS

b)

SaaS

c)

PaaS

d)

On-premises

92.

Which cloud model is a different model of provisioning software applications, typically delivered to end users?

a)

IaaS

b)

SaaS

c)

PaaS

d)

Bare-metal hosting

93.

Which cloud model provides resources somewhere between SaaS and IaaS?

a)

PaaS

b)

SaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

Colocation

94.

What best describes the function of a NAT gateway in a cloud environment?

a)

Allows an instance to connect out to the Internet or to other AWS services but does not allow connections initiated from the Internet

b)

Enables public inbound SSH access to private subnets

c)

Provides DNS resolution for internal hostnames

d)

Creates a site-to-site VPN between datacentres

95.

Which statement most accurately explains a playbook in automation?

a)

A manual checklist for technicians to follow without code

b)

Each configuration or build task is performed by a block of code, scripting as many stages of the SOP as possible with defined points for human verification

c)

A collection of firewall rules managed only through a GUI

d)

A compiled binary that runs without human oversight or documentation

96.

A team needs to scale a web service to handle more users while keeping cost efficient. Based on the provided guidance, which approach is most appropriate?

a)

Buy a larger single server only

b)

Add more nodes to distribute load or increase resources per node, depending on constraints

c)

Migrate to a different programming language

d)

Disable logging to reduce I/O