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Prometric Matenity Quiz

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A pregnant woman at 10 weeks’ gestation reports morning sickness. The nurse should recommend which intervention?

a)

Take iron supplements on an empty stomach

b)

Eat small, frequent meals

c)

Drink fluids only between meals

d)

Take antacids after each meal

2.

The primary purpose of folic acid supplementation before conception is to prevent:

a)

Congenital heart defects

b)

Neural tube defects

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Preterm birth

3.

Which sign indicates *probable* pregnancy?

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Fetal movement felt by the mother

c)

Positive pregnancy test

d)

Fetal heart tone heard on Doppler

4.

A woman at 18 weeks reports feeling fetal movement. This finding is known as:

a)

Quickening

b)

Ballottement

c)

Engagement

d)

Lightening

5.

A nurse teaches a patient about iron supplementation. Which statement indicates understanding?

a)

I will drink milk with my iron.

b)

I should take iron with orange juice.

c)

Iron may cause my blood pressure to increase.

d)

I should avoid taking vitamin C with iron.

6.

Which pregnancy hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the endometrium?

a)

Estrogen

b)

FSH

c)

Progesterone

d)

Oxytocin

7.

A woman in her second trimester has severe ankle edema. Which is the priority assessment?

a)

Check dietary intake

b)

Assess blood pressure

c)

Measure weight

d)

Assess fetal heart rate

8.

A woman at 28 weeks reports vaginal bleeding without pain. The nurse suspects:

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Abruptio placenta

c)

Uterine rupture

d)

Cervical insufficiency

9.

Which finding is associated with abruptio placenta?

a)

Painless bleeding

b)

Rigid, board-like abdomen

c)

Soft uterus

d)

Breech presentation

10.

Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is:

a)

Rh+ and fetus Rh+

b)

Rh- and fetus Rh+

c)

Rh+ and fetus Rh-

d)

Rh- and fetus Rh-

11.

The nurse anticipates Rho(D) immune globulin at:

a)

20 weeks

b)

28 weeks

c)

On confirmation of pregnancy

d)

At the first prenatal visit

12.

A non-stress test (NST) is considered reactive when:

a)

Two accelerations occur in 20 minutes

b)

No accelerations occur

c)

Decelerations occur with fetal movement

d)

Fetal movement is absent

13.

A biophysical profile assesses all except:

a)

Amniotic fluid volume

b)

Fetal breathing

c)

Placental maturity

d)

Fetal tone

14.

A woman with gestational diabetes needs more teaching when she states:

a)

I will monitor my blood glucose.

b)

I may need insulin.

c)

My baby may grow larger than normal.

d)

I no longer need glucose tests after delivery.

15.

The hallmark symptom of ectopic pregnancy is:

a)

Severe lower abdominal pain

b)

Nausea

c)

Increased fetal movement

d)

Heavy painless bleeding

16.

The nurse interprets a positive Chadwick sign as:

a)

Softening of the cervix

b)

Bluish discoloration of the cervix

c)

Fetal movement

d)

Softening of the uterus

17.

A woman with severe hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for:

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

18.

When is the glucose tolerance test (GTT) typically done?

a)

10–12 weeks

b)

14–16 weeks

c)

24–28 weeks

d)

36–38 weeks

19.

A sign of preeclampsia is:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Bradycardia

20.

The antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is:

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Potassium chloride

d)

Vitamin K

21.

Nifedipine is used in obstetrics primarily to:

a)

Improve fetal lung maturity

b)

Stop preterm labor

c)

Reduce postpartum hemorrhage

d)

Treat hypertension only

22.

A woman in the first trimester should increase calorie intake by:

a)

0 kcal/day

b)

200 kcal/day

c)

300 kcal/day

d)

500 kcal/day

23.

The fundal height at 20 weeks is typically at the level of:

a)

Symphysis pubis

b)

Halfway to the umbilicus

c)

Umbilicus

d)

Xiphoid process

24.

A normal finding at 32 weeks is:

a)

Fetal heart tones 160–180 bpm

b)

Reports of dyspnea

c)

Quickening just beginning

d)

Fundal height 20 cm

25.

TORCH infections include all except:

a)

Toxoplasmosis

b)

Rubella

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Chlamydia

26.

The first stage of labor ends with:

a)

Delivery of placenta

b)

Full cervical dilation

c)

Crowning

d)

Engagement

27.

The best indicator of true labor is:

a)

Back pain

b)

Cervical dilation

c)

Contractions relieved by rest

d)

Irregular contractions

28.

Variable decelerations are caused by:

a)

Placental insufficiency

b)

Head compression

c)

Cord compression

d)

Uterine rupture

29.

Late decelerations indicate:

a)

Cord prolapse

b)

Fetal head compression

c)

Uteroplacental insufficiency

d)

Maternal fever

30.

A woman’s membranes rupture. The first action is to:

a)

Note the fluid color

b)

Assess fetal heart rate

c)

Take temperature

d)

Notify the provider

31.

Meconium-stained fluid indicates risk for:

a)

Cord prolapse

b)

Neonatal infection

c)

Respiratory distress

d)

Preterm labor

32.

The best position for relieving cord compression:

a)

Supine

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Knee-chest

d)

Semi-Fowler’s

33.

Oxytocin should be stopped when contractions last longer than:

a)

30 seconds

b)

60 seconds

c)

90 seconds

d)

120 seconds

34.

A nurse notes absent variability on FHR monitor. The priority is:

a)

Increase oxytocin

b)

Place in left lateral position

c)

Perform vaginal exam

d)

Encourage pushing

35.

A woman is 5 cm dilated. This is:

a)

Latent phase

b)

Active phase

c)

Transition phase

d)

Second stage

36.

If a woman is hyperventilating, the nurse should:

a)

Encourage deep breaths

b)

Use a paper bag

c)

Increase IV rate

d)

Administer oxygen

37.

A breech presentation increases risk for:

a)

Shoulder dystocia

b)

Cord prolapse

c)

Precipitous labor

d)

Maternal hypotension

38.

The preferred analgesic in early labor is:

a)

Meperidine

b)

Epidural

c)

Morphine

d)

Fentanyl

39.

A postpartum woman with a firm fundus but heavy bleeding likely has:

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Retained placental fragments

c)

Bladder distention

d)

Infection

40.

A woman fully dilated is instructed to push. The nurse should encourage pushing during:

a)

Contractions

b)

Every 10 seconds

c)

Between contractions

d)

At will

41.

Normal amniotic fluid is:

a)

Yellow

b)

Green

c)

Clear

d)

Bloody

42.

A prolonged labor risk is:

a)

Infection

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Precipitous birth

d)

Polyhydramnios

43.

When giving an epidural, the nurse must monitor for:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hypotension

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Fever

44.

A sign of placenta separation:

a)

Boggy uterus

b)

Sudden gush of blood

c)

Shortening of cord

d)

Absence of contractions

45.

A contraction stress test (CST) is positive when:

a)

Late decelerations occur

b)

Early decelerations occur

c)

No decelerations occur

d)

Fetal movement increases

46.

A woman feels intense rectal pressure at 8 cm. The nurse should:

a)

Tell her to bear down

b)

Encourage panting

c)

Let her push

d)

Notify NICU

47.

Fetal station 0 indicates:

a)

Head engaged

b)

Head above ischial spines

c)

Crowning

d)

Birth is imminent

48.

The best way to reduce perineal trauma is:

a)

Early pushing

b)

Fundal pressure

c)

Warm compresses

d)

Supine positioning

49.

The fetal position OA means:

a)

Occiput anterior

b)

Occiput aligned

c)

Occiput above

d)

Occiput asymmetric

50.

In shoulder dystocia, the first maneuver is:

a)

McRoberts maneuver

b)

Fundal pressure

c)

Vacuum extraction

d)

Cesarean delivery

51.

Tachysystole means:

a)

>5 contractions in 10 minutes

b)

<3 contractions in 10 minutes

c)

Contractions >120 seconds

d)

Contractions painless

52.

A sign of uterine rupture:

a)

Fetal bradycardia

b)

Back pain relieved by rest

c)

Increased variability

d)

Maternal hypertension

53.

Leopold maneuvers determine:

a)

Amniotic fluid index

b)

Fetal position

c)

Cervical dilation

d)

Engagement only

54.

A woman in precipitous labor is at risk for:

a)

Cord prolapse

b)

Infection

c)

Perineal lacerations

d)

Hypotonic contractions

55.

A priority for a woman with severe back pain in labor is:

a)

Supine positioning

b)

Sacral counterpressure

c)

Ice packs

d)

Fundal massage

56.

Vacuum-assisted delivery risk:

a)

Facial palsy

b)

Cephalohematoma

c)

Neonatal jaundice

d)

Shoulder dystocia

57.

The best indicator of fetal well-being during labor:

a)

Fetal movement

b)

Maternal blood pressure

c)

Uterine size

d)

Maternal heart rate

58.

A woman in transition may show:

a)

Excitement

b)

Calmness

c)

Irritability

d)

Sleepiness

59.

A priority after spontaneous rupture of membranes with fetal tachycardia:

a)

Assess temperature

b)

Assess dilation

c)

Give IV fluids

d)

Start oxytocin

60.

A late postpartum hemorrhage is often caused by:

a)

Infection

b)

Retained placenta

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Uterine atony

61.

The fundus 6 hours after birth should be:

a)

2 cm above umbilicus

b)

At the umbilicus

c)

2 cm below umbilicus

d)

Not palpable

62.

Lochia serosa is:

a)

Bright red

b)

Pink or brown

c)

Yellow

d)

White

63.

A sign of postpartum infection:

a)

Firm fundus

b)

Foul-smelling lochia

c)

Moderate cramping

d)

Engorgement

64.

Breastfeeding mothers should increase calories by:

a)

100/day

b)

300/day

c)

500/day

d)

800/day

65.

The best treatment for uterine atony:

a)

Ice pack

b)

Fundal massage

c)

Analgesics

d)

Position change

66.

The nurse suspects postpartum depression when a mother:

a)

Has mild mood swings

b)

Cannot care for herself or baby

c)

Feels tired

d)

Has appetite changes

67.

After epidural anesthesia, the priority assessment is:

a)

Nausea

b)

Headache

c)

Blood pressure

d)

Temperature

68.

The newborn with APGAR 8 at 1 minute needs:

a)

Immediate CPR

b)

Oxygen

c)

Routine care

d)

Intubation

69.

A normal newborn respiratory rate:

a)

10–20

b)

20–30

c)

30–60

d)

60–80

70.

A sign of newborn hypoglycemia:

a)

Tremors

b)

Crying loudly

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Pink color

71.

A newborn with cephalohematoma has bleeding:

a)

Above periosteum

b)

Below periosteum

c)

Crossing suture lines

d)

Inside skull

72.

Phototherapy requires:

a)

Covering eyes

b)

Bundling infant

c)

Reducing feeds

d)

No diaper

73.

A sign of respiratory distress in the newborn:

a)

Nasal flaring

b)

Pink skin

c)

Quiet breathing

d)

Sleeping well

74.

The best breastfeeding latch includes:

a)

Lips folded inward

b)

Only nipple in mouth

c)

Areola partially in mouth

d)

No audible swallowing

75.

A boggy uterus deviated to the right indicates:

a)

Infection

b)

Bladder distention

c)

Retained placenta

d)

Hemorrhage

76.

After circumcision, the nurse expects:

a)

Yellow exudate

b)

Infection

c)

Active bleeding

d)

Redness

77.

Newborn vitamin K is given to:

a)

Prevent anemia

b)

Prevent hemorrhage

c)

Improve immunity

d)

Improve digestion

78.

A danger sign in postpartum:

a)

Passing small clots

b)

Fever >38°C

c)

Moderate cramps

d)

Breast fullness

79.

A woman with mastitis should:

a)

Stop breastfeeding

b)

Apply warm compress

c)

Apply cold compress

d)

Avoid fluids

80.

A normal newborn heart rate:

a)

40–60

b)

60–80

c)

90–110

d)

110–160

81.

A positive Babinski reflex is:

a)

Abnormal

b)

Normal

c)

Indicates CNS damage

d)

Seen only in preterm

82.

After birth, the uterus decreases about:

a)

1 cm/day

b)

2 cm/day

c)

5 cm/day

d)

0.5 cm/day

83.

A newborn who is sleepy and hard to wake for feeds shows signs of:

a)

Normal behavior

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hyperbilirubinemia

d)

Overstimulation

84.

Cracked nipples in breastfeeding are most commonly caused by:

a)

Incorrect latch

b)

Infection

c)

Dehydration

d)

Long feed duration

85.

A sign of postpartum hemorrhage:

a)

Saturating a pad in 1 hour

b)

Passing small clots

c)

Lochia serosa at day 3

d)

Mild dizziness

86.

Normal newborn temperature:

a)

35.0–35.5°C

b)

35.5–36.0°C

c)

36.5–37.5°C

d)

37.5–38.5°C

87.

A newborn with jaundice at 12 hours of life suggests:

a)

Physiologic jaundice

b)

Pathologic jaundice

c)

Breast milk jaundice

d)

Dehydration

88.

Priority action after postpartum hemorrhage:

a)

Give antibiotics

b)

Increase IV fluids

c)

Reduce oxytocin

d)

Apply ice packs

89.

When bottle-feeding, the best position for newborn is:

a)

Supine

b)

Side-lying

c)

Semi-upright

d)

Prone

90.

A sign of neonatal sepsis:

a)

Jitteriness

b)

Temperature instability

c)

Strong cry

d)

Good feeding

91.

A postpartum woman who cannot void and has a firm fundus likely has:

a)

Retained placenta

b)

UTI

c)

Bladder edema

d)

None; this is normal

92.

A newborn with vernix caseosa:

a)

Requires immediate removal

b)

Should be gently left in place

c)

Indicates infection

d)

Indicates dehydration

93.

A normal newborn weight loss is:

a)

1–2%

b)

5–10%

c)

10–20%

d)

20–30%

94.

The first action for a newborn with apnea:

a)

Start CPR

b)

Stimulate the soles

c)

Give oxygen

d)

Call physician

95.

Colostrum is rich in:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Fats

d)

Vitamins

96.

A newborn with grunting likely has:

a)

Thermoregulation problem

b)

Respiratory distress

c)

Hunger

d)

Colic

97.

Postpartum blues typically resolve within:

a)

24 hours

b)

1–2 days

c)

3–5 days

d)

2 weeks

98.

After cesarean birth, early ambulation helps prevent:

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Gas pain

c)

Thrombophlebitis

d)

Hypertension

99.

A positive Ortolani sign indicates:

a)

Hip dysplasia

b)

Cardiac defect

c)

Neurologic problem

d)

GI obstruction

100.

The primary cause of cold stress in newborns is:

a)

Thin skin

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Large body surface area

d)

Low brown fat

101.

A postpartum mother reports severe perineal pain and difficulty sitting. The nurse notes a firm fundus and minimal lochia. What complication is most likely?

a)

Uterine atony

b)

Perineal hematoma

c)

Endometritis

d)

Hemorrhage

102.

The nurse caring for a newborn exposed to maternal opioid use should anticipate which finding?

a)

Hypotonia

b)

Decreased crying

c)

High-pitched cry

d)

Low respiratory rate

103.

A woman at 32 weeks arrives with preterm contractions. Which medication is used to accelerate fetal lung maturity?

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Terbutaline

c)

Betamethasone

d)

Oxytocin

104.

A breastfeeding mother asks how to increase her milk supply. The nurse’s best response is:

a)

Limit your fluids.

b)

Breastfeed more frequently.

c)

Give your baby water between feeds.

d)

Skip night feeds to rest.

105.

A neonate with caput succedaneum has edema that:

a)

Does not cross suture lines

b)

Crosses suture lines

c)

Is filled with blood

d)

Lasts for several weeks

106.

The nurse assesses a patient who is 16-weeks pregnant. The patient states that she had taken isotretinoin (Accutane), a known teratogen for acne during her third, fourth, and fifth week of pregnancy. According to the chart, the nurse CAN expect fetal damage to the central nervous system as well as the?

a)

Palate and ears

b)

Heart, lower limbs, and palate

c)

Limbs, eyes, and teeth

d)

Heart, eyes, and limbs

107.

A five-month-old boy has been vomiting green-colored vomit for ten hours. He has intermittent abdominal pain during which he draws his legs up to his chest, turns pale, and cries forcefully. On observation, there is bleeding in the stool which has a jelly-like consistency. Abdominal palpation reveals a long tube-like mass. There is no fever, rash, nor diarrhea. Bowel sounds are hyperactive in all quadrants. Which is the most likely form of initial treatment?

a)

Manual manipulation

b)

Surgical resection

c)

Barium enema

d)

Endoscopy

108.

A 6-month-old premature infant is being discharged from the neonatal intensive care unit after having no apneic periods for the past week. Although the child has had no apneic periods for the past week, an apnea monitor will be sent home with the parents. The BEST short-term goal relating to the nursing diagnosis of ineffective breathing pattern related to apnea is that the?

a)

Infant will be free of cyanosis

b)

Infant will have no apneic episodes

c)

Infant will maintain oxygen saturation above 95%

d)

Infant will have a respiratory rate between 30 and 60 breaths per minute

109.

Apnea monitor will sound loudly and stimulate the child to breathe with episodes of apnea. What is the correct response to this situation?

a)

Apnea monitor will sound loudly and stimulate the child to breathe with episodes of apnea

b)

Apnea monitor will sound loudly and alert the parents to stimulate the child to breathe with episodes of apnea

c)

Child will have no episodes of apnea or cyanosis while on apnea monitor

d)

Child will sleep in their parent's bed each night until there is no apnea two weeks

110.

A gravida 3 Para 2 presents to the Maternity Triage Unit after the amniotic membranes ruptured at home. The fluid is noted to be clear. The neonate's head is engaged into the pelvis and the patient is having contractions every 5 to 7 minutes. Each contraction lasts for 60-90 seconds. An examination of the cervix finds 4 centimeters dilatation and 90% effacement. She is uncomfortable during contractions and rates the pain at a level 7, on a pain scale of 1-10. Which finding is most indicative that she is in true labor?

a)

Level of pain

b)

Cervical dilatation and effacement

c)

Engagement of presenting part fractions

d)

Frequency and length of contraction

111.

A pregnant woman at 32 weeks’ gestation complains of feeling dizzy and lightheaded while her fundal height is being measured. Her skin is pale and moist. What is the initial response the nurse should do?

a)

Assess the woman blood pressure

b)

Check pulse

c)

Raise woman leg

d)

Turn woman on her left side

112.

A 28 years old female with 33 weeks pregnant with her second child has uncontrolled hypertension. The patient has a story of abruptio placenta on her medical records. What is the risk factor affected?

a)

Age

b)

C-Section

c)

Childhood polio

d)

Preeclampsia

113.

A nurse is caring for a child who is post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. The nurse should plan to assess which of the following complications?

a)

Pulmonary hypertension

b)

Haemorrhage

c)

Hearing loss

d)

Cor pulmonale

114.

A 6-month-old boy is admitted with failure to thrive. Based on his growth chart, the nurse should consider which of the following as the cause of the child's failure to thrive?

a)

Parent-child interaction

b)

Malrotation of the colon

c)

Genetic chromosomal abnormalities

d)

Congenital heart disease

115.

The district nurse attends a mother and a girl who was born five days previously. At birth, the baby had weighed 3.5 kilograms. The mother becomes worried when she hears that the baby weighs 3.3 kilograms today. The infant is pink, alert and active with 6-8 wet diapers and four stools per day. Blanching of the skin shows a light yellow color of the forehead but a pink sternum. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Notify the paediatrician

b)

Obtain blood for bilirubin analysis

c)

Reassure the mother and continue observing

d)

Request the mother go to the clinic to re-weigh

116.

A gravid 3, para 2 presents to the Labor and Delivery Unit with contractions occurring every 3-5 minutes and lasting for 60-90 seconds. During contractions, she closed her eyes and is focused on breathing to cope with the pain. At the end of each contraction she opens her eyes and resumes talking with the nurse and her husband. What is the expected cervical dilatation in centimetres?

a)

1-3

b)

4-7

c)

8-10

d)

11-13

117.

A pregnant woman in the first stage of labor has progressed from 3 to 7 cm in cervical dilation. In which of the following phases the cervical dilation occurs most rapidly?

a)

Active phase

b)

Latent phase

c)

Transition phase

d)

Preparatory phase

118.

A child presents to the emergency department with complaint of chest pain on exertion, shortness of breath, and dizziness. Upon examination the nurse notes palpitation and a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sterna border. Skin colour is normal. The nurse suspects:

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Aortic regurgitation

c)

Mitral stenosis

d)

Mitral valve prolapse

119.

The nurse is caring for a full-term newborn who was delivered vaginally 5 minutes ago. The infant's APGAR score was 8 at one minute and 10 at 5 minutes. Which of the following has the highest PRIORITY?

a)

Maintaining the infant in the supine position

b)

Assessing the infant's red reflex

c)

Preventing heat loss from the infant

d)

Administering humidified oxygen to the infant

120.

An eight-year-old boy has a new diagnosis of Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder (ADHD) and begins pharmacological and psychological therapies. His medication regimen includes short-acting methylphenidate 5 mg orally every 12 hours. Which side effect is most likely?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Initial increased hyperactivity

c)

Lethargy

d)

Hypertension

121.

A nurse is admitting a two-year-old child with an umbilical hernia. Which of the following interventions does NOT meet the child's developmental needs?

a)

Allowing the child to make choices when possible

b)

Providing rooming in and unlimited visitation

c)

Attempting to continue rituals used at home

d)

Maintaining strict bed rest

122.

Prior to providing care for a hospitalized infant, the nurse who focuses on preventive measures must:

a)

Introduce self to parent

b)

Perform hand hygiene

c)

Have a witness present

d)

Assess the child's developmental level

123.

A first-time mother of a three-week-old breastfed baby brings the infant to the clinic and complains that her child has been forcefully vomiting after feeding. He was born at 40 weeks.

a)

Assess feeding technique

b)

Perform hand hygiene

c)

Refer to a pediatrician

d)

Monitor weight gain

124.

A newborn was delivered pre-term weighing 2700 grams with Apgar scores of 4 and 6, respectively. When the mother had presented to the Obstetrical Triage Unit, she was already 7 centimeters dilated and fully effaced. Her due date was unknown as she had no parental care. The infant showed signs of fetal distress and was finally delivered by Caesarean section. At birth a large, thin, membranous sac was protruding from the umbilical base. What is the priority nursing intervention at birth?

a)

Maintain cardio respiratory stability

b)

Protect the herniated viscera

c)

Manage fluid intake and output

d)

Establish vascular access

125.

A nurse is caring for an infant with respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate?

a)

Measure oxygen saturation level once a shift

b)

Suction frequently for 30-45 seconds each time

c)

Monitor for symptoms of hyperglycaemia

d)

Maintain infant temperature 36.7° and 37.8°C

126.

The nurse is caring for a 4 year-old patient with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis and pneumonia. The child is feeling better on the 3rd day of the hospitalization and 'wants to play.' What would be the BEST choice of entertainment?

a)

Blowing bubbles

b)

Looking at picture books

c)

Watching videos

d)

Riding in a wagon

127.

A nine year-old child has been diagnosed with external otitis. In addition to assessing severity of symptoms and need for pain relief, the nurse should assess:

a)

The hearing of the child

b)

The tympanic temperature

c)

Speech and language development

d)

Ear hygiene and the need for earplugs

128.

A nurse is communicating with a moderately autistic child during a developmental and behavioural assessment. The nurse uses non-verbal techniques to engage the child's cooperation. She uses facial expressions when responding and simple body language to communicate commands. What is the most likely age of the child?

a)

One

b)

Three

c)

Six

d)

Nine

129.

A child is treated for superficial (first-degree) thermal burns to the thigh. The child is in great discomfort and does not eat. Which of the following diagnoses should receive PRIORITY?

a)

Altered nutrition

b)

Impaired skin integrity

c)

Risk for infection

d)

Acute pain

130.

A child with asthma has an order for albuterol, before administration of the medication the nurse MUST?

a)

Pre-oxygenate the patient

b)

Assess the patient's heart rate

c)

Obtain venous access

d)

Feed the patient a snack

131.

The nurse is assessing the growth and development of a healthy three-year-old child. The nurse should expect the child to be able to?

a)

Ride a bicycle

b)

Jump rope

c)

Throw a ball overhead

d)

Hop on one foot

132.

A four-year-old boy presented with a firm and non-tender mass that his mother had discovered in the right upper abdominal quadrant. He was admitted to the hospital and underwent complete surgical excision of a renal tumor that had extended beyond the kidney. The child was then scheduled for radiation and chemotherapy treatment. Which stage was the tumor?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

133.

As the nurse enters the room of a newly admitted primigravid client diagnosed with severe preeclampsia, the client begins to experience a seizure. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Insert an airway to improve oxygenation

b)

Note the time when seizure begin and end

c)

Call for immediate assistance

d)

Turn the client to her left side

134.

A 32-year-old multigravida returns to the clinic for a routine prenatal visit at 36 weeks gestation. The assessment during this visit includes blood pressure which result 140/90 mm Hg; pulse 80 beats/min; respiratory rate 16 breaths/min. What further information should the nurse obtain to determine if this client is becoming preeclamptic?

a)

Headaches

b)

Blood glucose level

c)

Proteinuria

d)

Peripheral edema

135.

When assessing neonate’s hydration, the nurse should check for the skin’s?

a)

Color

b)

Tone

c)

Moisture

d)

Elasticity

136.

A child with asthma is experiencing thick respiratory secretions resulting in increased work of breathing. What is the best nursing intervention?

a)

Decrease humidity of room

b)

Eliminate dairy products

c)

Increase fluid

d)

Reposition on the left side

137.

A nurse administers an albuterol nebulizer on a child diagnosed with asthma exacerbation. Which of the following indicates effectiveness of the treatment?

a)

Oxygen saturation 95%

b)

Nasal flaring

c)

Respiratory rate

138.

The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old patient with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis and pneumonia. The child is feeling better on the third day of hospitalization and wants to play on the bed. What is the best choice of playing?

a)

Riding a wagon

b)

Watching videos

c)

Blowing bubbles

d)

Picture books

139.

An 8-month-old child has had four ear infections in the past 3 months and was discharged. Which statement by parents indicates the need for further discharge teaching?

a)

My child should not be around people smoking

b)

My child should not use a pacifier after age 6 months

c)

I should never put my baby to bed with a bottle

d)

My child should drink his bottle while lying flat in my lap

140.

A pregnant woman comes to gynecological care with vaginal bleeding, dark blood, and abdominal cramps. When the physician assessment found fatal death, what type of abortion is this?

a)

Missing abortion

b)

Incomplete abortion

c)

Threatening abortion

d)

Complete abortion

141.

A nurse is assessing a client in labor and finds that her contractions are lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and her cervix is 6 cm dilated. The nurse would document the client in what phase of stage 1 labor?

a)

Early phase

b)

Active phase

c)

Latent phase

d)

Transitional phase

142.

Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy with severe hemorrhages occurring?

a)

Abruptio placenta

b)

Ectopic pregnancy

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Incompetent cervix

143.

At which age is the measles vaccine most effective?

a)

6 months

b)

12 months

c)

2 months

d)

15 months

144.

During the vulnerable stage of a child’s life and to ensure early protection from the polio virus, which month should the second dose of the vaccine be administered?

a)

6-18 months

b)

4 months

c)

2 months

d)

4-6 years

145.

While caring for a neonate with meningococcal, the nurse should avoid positioning on which side?

a)

Left side

b)

Right side

c)

Back

d)

Abdomen

146.

What is the reflex where a neonate quickly reaches their arms up, outwards, and cries?

a)

Moro reflex

b)

Grasping reflex

c)

Tonic neck reflex

d)

Babinski reflex

147.

The definition of nursing assessment below is right, except....

a)

Initial stage of the nursing process

b)

Systematic process in collecting data

c)

Determine the nursing problem or collaboration problem

d)

As the fundamental in determining patient's problem

e)

Continuing process

148.

Which one is not the example of objective data?

a)

Vital signs (Blood pressure, Heart Rate, etc)

b)

Medical Record

c)

Physical assessment

d)

Patient's daily activity

e)

Observation data

149.

Below is the right example of primary data source

a)

Patient's family

b)

Medical record

c)

Client

d)

Literature review

150.

Which one is included in the internal interview obstacles?

a)

Lack of privacy

b)

Loud environment

c)

Narrow space for interview

d)

Interruption