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Semester 1 Review Honors

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A student combines 20 g of substance A and 30 g of substance B in an open container. After the reaction, the product has a mass of 48 g.

What most likely explains the difference in mass?

a)

Atoms were destroyed during the reaction.

b)

Atoms were rearranged, and some gas escaped.

c)

The scale was inaccurate.

d)

Matter was converted into energy.

2.

The balanced equation is:

2Na+Cl2NaCl2Na+Cl_2\rightarrow NaCl

What does this equation show about the law of conservation of mass?

a)

The number of atoms is greater after the reaction.

b)

Sodium disappears and chlorine increases.

c)

The total number of atoms remains the same.

d)

The mass of the product is less than the reactants.

3.

A student burns a piece of magnesium in a closed system. The mass before the reaction is 5.4 g, and the mass after the reaction is also 5.4g.

What does this prove?

a)

Some atoms turned into energy.

b)

The container added extra mass.

c)

No new substance is formed.

d)

Mass is conserved when the system is closed.

4.

The total mass of the products in a chemical reaction is 72 g. The mass of one reactant is 25 g.

What is the mass of the remaining reactants?

a)

47 g

b)

97 g

c)

67 g

d)

57 g

5.

In the photosynthesis reaction:

6CO2+6H2O  C6+H12+O6+6O26CO_2+6H_2O\ \rightarrow\ C_6+H_{12}+O_6+6O_2

Which evidence from the equation supports the law of conservation of mass?

a)

Glucose contains more atoms than reactants

b)

The number of atoms on both sides is equal

c)

Oxygen is not conserved

d)

The reactants lose mass during the reaction

6.

What happens to atoms during a chemical reaction?

a)

Atoms are created or destroyed.

b)

Atoms combine into elements.

c)

Atoms rearrange to form new substances.

d)

Atoms turn into energy and disappear.

7.

A student mixes 80 g of reactant A and 20 g of reactant B.

What is the expected mass of the product if mass is conserved?

a)

60 g

b)

100 g

c)

90 g

d)

67 g

8.

Which elements are found in the chemical formula Na2CO3Na_2CO_3 ?

a)

Sodium, Oxygen, and Nitrogen

b)

Sodium, Calcium, and Oxygen

c)

Sodium, Carbon, and Oxygen

d)

Sodium and Calcium

9.

How many total atoms in H2SO4H_2SO_4 ?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

67

d)

8

10.

How many oxygen atoms are in Al2(SO4)3Al_2\left(SO_4\right)_3 ?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

67

d)

12

11.

How does the number of oxygen atoms compare in 2H2O versus 2CO22H_2O\ versus\ 2CO_2 ?

a)

Same number of oxygen

b)

2H2O2H_2O has more

c)

2CO22CO_2 has more

d)

Cannot be determined

12.

A student observed that a candle melts when heated, but releases black smoke when burned.

What conclusion can be made?

a)

Melting and burning are both chemical changes

b)

Melting is a physical change; burning is a chemical change

c)

Both changes are physical because no gas is formed

d)

Both changes are chemical because heat is added

13.

Sort these as chemical of physical changes:

Categorize the following

Formation of a precipitate

Rusting of iron
Burning of wood
Digestion of food
Baking a cake
Fermentation of sugar
Photosynthesis in plants
Vaporization of gasoline
Melting of ice
Boiling water
Dissolving sugar in water
Breaking a glass
Chopping wood
Mixing sand and salt
Crushing a can
Freezing water
Chemical Change
Physical Change
14.

A student applies a net force of 60 N to a box with a mass of 10 kg. What is the acceleration of the box?

a)

6 meters per second26\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

b)

67 meters per second267\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

c)

0.17 meters per second20.17\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

d)

600 meters per second2600\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

15.

If the net force on a 12 kg object is doubled, what happens to the acceleration?

a)

It is halved

b)

It is doubled

c)

It remains the same

d)

It becomes zero

16.

A ball with a mass of 2 kg accelerates at 4 meters per second24\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2 .

What is the net force acting on it?

a)

6 N

b)

67 N

c)

8 N

d)

4 N

17.

Which situation correctly demonstrates Newton's Second Law?

a)

A balloon rising because the air pushes it up.

b)

A car accelerating faster when pushed harder.

c)

A book resting on a table.

d)

Two objects repelling due to magnetism

18.

A 15 kg cart is pushed with a force of 75 N. What is its acceleration?

a)

67 meters per second267\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

b)

5 meters per second25\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

c)

3 meters per second23\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

d)

1 meters per second21\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

19.

If the same net force is applied to two objects, which will accelerate more?

a)

The one with more mass

b)

The one with less mass

c)

They will accelerate the same

d)

The one with friction

20.

If an object's mass is reduced by half while keeping the same force, what happens to its acceleration?

a)

It doubles

b)

It halves

c)

It stays the same

d)

It becomes zero

21.

Two identical forces are applied to a 2 kg ball and a 4 kg ball. Which has a higher acceleration?

a)

2 kg ball

b)

4 kg ball

c)

Both accelerate equally

d)

Neither moves

22.

What must happen to acceleration if mass increases and force stays the same?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It stays the same

d)

It becomes negative

23.

If you triple the net force on an object while keeping mass constant, how does the acceleration change?

a)

It becomes 1/3

b)

It triples

c)

It doubles

d)

It stays the same

24.

If you apply a force of 100 N to a 20 kg cart. What is the acceleration?

a)

67 meters per second267\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

b)

5 meters per second25\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

c)

10 meters per second210\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

d)

200 meters per second2200\ meters\ per\ \sec ond^2

25.

What best explains the relationship between force an acceleration?

a)

Inverse - more force equals less accerlation

b)

Direct - more force equals more acceleration

c)

They are unrelated

d)

Force only affects speed, not acceleration

26.

How does Newton's First Law apply to the need for seatbelts in a car crash?

a)

Objects at rest stay at rest unless a force is applied

b)

Seatbelts cause accerlation

c)

Passengers will stay in motion unless acted on by the seatbelt

d)

The car moves forward because of friction

27.

During a car crash, the passenger's head moves forward while the torso is restrained by the seatbelt. Which law best explains the head's continued motion.

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

Law of Conservation of Mass

28.

A football player collides with another player and is knocked backward. Which law best explains the opposing forces they exert on each other?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

Law of Gravity

29.

Why does a rocket require more fuel to accelerate a heavier payload?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

Newton's Zero Law

30.

Two tectonic plates push against each other until one slips, releasing energy in an earthquake. Which law best describes the buildup and sudden release of force?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

Law of Momentum

31.

Why does a more massive tectonic plate require more energy to move during tectonic shifts?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

Law of Inertia

32.

A gymnast pushes off the vault an flips in the air. Which law explains the gymnast's forward motion after leaving the vault?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Law of 67s

33.

In which system do Newton's First, Second, and Third Laws act simultaneously?

a)

A parked car

b)

A person sitting in a chair

c)

A roller coaster in motion with passengers inside

d)

A still glass of water

34.

A baseball is hit, flies through the air, and lands in a glove. Which law is represented when the glove applies force to stop it?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

All three laws

35.

A student increases the amplitude of a wave. What effect does this have on the wave's energy?

a)

The energy decreases

b)

The energy stays the same

c)

The energy increases

d)

The frequency increases

36.

Two waves travel through the same medium. One has a longer wavelength and the same speed. What can be said about its frequency?

a)

It has a higher frequency

b)

It has the same frequency

c)

It has a lower frequency

d)

It has more energy

37.

A wave with a high frequency has which of the following characteristics?

a)

Long wavelength and low energy

b)

Short wavelength and high energy

c)

High amplitude and low speed

d)

High speed and long wavelength

38.

A student compares two waves and notices one wave has higher peaks and deeper troughs. What wave property is being compared?

a)

Wavelength

b)

Frequency

c)

Amplitude

d)

Speed

39.

Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and highest frequency?

a)

Radio Waves

b)

Infrared Waves

c)

Ultraviolet Waves

d)

Gamma Rays

40.

A microwave and a radio wave are compared. Which statement is correct?

a)

Microwaves have lower frequency and longer wavelength

b)

Microwaves have higher frequency and shorter wavelength

c)

Radio waves have more energy

d)

Radio waves travel faster

41.

A toy car travels 10 meters in 2 seconds. What is its average speed?

a)

20 m/s

b)

5 m/s

c)

2 m/s

d)

67 m/s

42.

A student investigates how different surfaces affect speed. The same cart travels 6 meters in 3 seconds on Surface A and 6 meters in 2 seconds on Surface B. Which statement is correct?

a)

The cart moved faster on Surface A

b)

The speed was the same on both surfaces

c)

The cart moved faster on Surface B

d)

There is not enough information

43.

Which of the following would cause an object's velocity to change but not its speed?

a)

Increasing distance

b)

Changing direction while maintaining constant speed

c)

Increasing time

d)

Stopping completely

44.

An object moves 10 meters in 2 seconds, then 10 more meters in the next 2 seconds. Which distance time graph best represents this motion?

a)

A curved line that increases steeply

b)

A straight diagonal line

c)

A horizontal line

d)

A line that curves downward

45.

A student describes a graph where the line slopes upward and then becomes horizontal. What happened during the second part of the graph?

a)

The object moved faster

b)

The object remained still

c)

The object moved backward

d)

The object decreased in speed

46.

A distance- time graph shows two lines: Line A is steeper than Line B. What does this mean?

a)

Line B has a greater speed

b)

Line A is slower

c)

Line A has a greater speed

d)

Both are moving at the same speed

47.

Why do convection currents occur in Earth's mantle and atmosphere?

a)

Because gases and liquids transfer heat through radiation

b)

Because cold matter rises and warm matter sinks

c)

Because energy moves in a vacuum

d)

Because warm matter rises and cool matter sinks

48.

How does thermal energy transfer from the Sun to Earth through space?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

Reflection

49.

A metal spoon becomes hot after sitting in a pot of boiling soup. What method of thermal energy transfer is responsible?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

Insulation

50.

A student slides a book across a table. The book slows down and stops. Which two forces are most responsible for this?

a)

Applied force and gravity

b)

Friction and gravity

c)

Friction and magnetism

d)

Normal force and gravity

51.

A skateboarder moves down a ramp. Which force causes the motion and which one resists it?

a)

Gravity causes motion; friction resists

b)

Normal force causes motion; gravity resists

c)

Friction causes motion; magnetism resists

d)

Gravity causes motion; magnetism resists

52.

A box is pushed with a 10 N to the right and 6 N to the left. What is the net force on the box, and is it balanced or unbalanced?

a)

4 N to the right; unbalanced

b)

4 N to the left; balanced

c)

16 N to the right; unbalanced

d)

0 N; balanced

53.

Why does photosynthesis demonstrate conservation of energy in a system?

a)

Because energy is destroyed by sunlight

b)

Because energy is created during the process

c)

Because light energy is transformed into chemical energy stored in glucose

d)

Because light energy is converted into thermal energy only

54.

A student compresses and releases a spring, creating a wave. What type of wave is demonstrated, and how is energy transferred?

a)

Longitudinal; energy travels in the same direction as the compressions

b)

Transverse; energy travels perpendicular to the compressions

c)

Longitudinal; energy traves in circlesl

d)

Transverse; energy travels in the opposite direction

55.

Sort these crustal features based on boundary

Categorize the following

Mountains

Volcanic Mountains - Convergent

Oceanic Trenches

Rift Valleys

Mid Ocean Ridges

Volcanic Mountain - Divergent

Fault Lines

Earthquakes

Tsunami

Rock Slides

Convergent Boundary
Divergent Boundary
Transform Boundaries
56.
a)
Warm Front
b)
High Air Pressure
c)
Cold Front
d)
High Temperatures
57.
a)
Low Clouds
b)
Low Temperatures
c)
Light Wind
d)
Low Air Pressure
58.
a)
High Pressure
b)
Warm Front
c)
Cold Front
d)
Mountains
59.
High Pressure is associated with this type of weather...
a)
Cloudy/Overcast Weather
b)
Cold Weather
c)
Warm Weather
d)
Fair Weather
60.
What causes warm air to rise?
a)
the fact that it's less dense than cold air 
b)
The fact that it weighs more than cold air 
c)
The fact that it has higher pressure than cold
d)
the fact that its more dense than cold air 
61.
Hot air moves in __________________direction.
a)
Upward
b)
Downward
c)
Circular
d)
Sideways
62.

The cold front is moving

a)

east and southeast

b)

west and northwest

c)

north

d)

south

63.

A cold front is approaching Minneapolis. What will happen to the air temperature?

a)

stay the same

b)

increase

c)

decrease

64.
Choose the best forecast for Seattle on Saturday.
a)
rain
b)
sunny skies
c)
warmer temperatures
d)
snow
65.
Choose the best forecast for Chicago on Saturday.
a)
rain
b)
warmer temperatures
c)
snow
d)
sunny skies
66.
Choose the best forecast for Dallas on Saturday.
a)
thunderstorms
b)
snow
c)
warmer temperatures
d)
clear skies
67.
Choose the best forecast for Los Angeles on Saturday.
a)
cooler temperatures
b)
warmer temperatures 
c)
low pressure
d)
snow
68.
a)
High Air Pressure
b)
High Temperatures
c)
Heavy Rain
d)
Hail
69.

Why do you see precipitation near the L? (select 2 answers)

a)

because that is low pressure and that is where air rises, forming clouds

b)

because that is where air is falling and it brings rain with it

c)

because southern Ohio is always rainy this time of year

d)

because the cold front is meeting the warm front which forces warm air to rise rapidly forming clouds

70.

The Jet Stream is a global pattern of atmospheric movement that influences patterns in local weather. Based on the information provided in the weather map, which city shown will most likely experience a drop in pressure over the next few days?

a)

Baltimore

b)

Portland

c)

Rapid City

71.

Near which two cities are the low pressure systems located?

a)

Seattle & San Francisco

b)

Chicago & Seattle

c)

Dallas & Houston

d)

Chicago & Nashville

72.

Near which city is the high pressure system located?

a)

Seattle

b)

Minneapolis

c)

Dallas

d)

Chicago

73.

Which two cities are most likely to experience clear, dry weather?

a)

Seattle & San Francisco

b)

Chicago & Minneapolis

c)

Chicago & Nashville

d)

Dallas & Houston

74.

Tim said that Chicago is most likely to experience rainy weather. Jennifer thinks that Dallas is most likely to experience rainy weather.

Which student is correct?

a)

Tim because Chicago is the closest to a low pressure system and they produce precipitation.

b)

Jennifer because high pressure systems produce precipitation

c)

Both students are correct because all systems produce precipitation

d)

Neither of the students are correct because the cities are not close enough to the system.

75.

Why does city "B" have clear skies?

a)

It is in North America

b)

There is not a front moving through city "B"

c)

Clouds do not form in the West

d)

It is located near a high pressure system

76.

Where on Earth would cold currents originate?

a)

Near the equator

b)

Near the poles

c)

Near the coast

d)

Near the center of the largest oceans

77.

Why is water warmer near the equator?

a)

Because the equator receives less direct sunlight

b)

Because of the deserts located there

c)

Because the equator receives more direct sunlight

d)

Because the equator has warmer wind currents

78.

Coastal regions near warm currents tend to have cooler climates.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The sun provides the energy necessary to drive convection within Earth's oceans.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Ocean currents have an effect on:

a)

climate and weather

b)

temperature and weather

c)

weather and density

d)

salinity and climate

81.

On the H-R diagram, it compares a star's brightness to its

a)

Temperature

b)

Composition

c)

Age

82.

What are 90% of stars classified as on the H-R diagram?

a)

Supergiants

b)

White Dwarfs

c)

Main Sequence

d)

Giants

83.

How does star E compare to star B in the diagram?

a)

Star E is hotter and brighter than star B.

b)

Star E is hotter and dimmer than star B.

c)

Star E is cooler and brighter than star B.

d)

Star E is cooler and dimmer than star B.

84.

Select any statement that is true about Star F on the diagram.

a)

Star F is a main sequence star.

b)

Star F is a blue star.

c)

Star F is a Spectral Type K star.

d)

Star F is a dim star.

e)

Star F has a low temperature.

85.

Which of these galaxies would be considered an elliptical galaxy?

a)

b)

c)

d)

86.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular 
d)
Irrational
87.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
d)
Irrational
88.

The attractive force between objects is called....

a)

force

b)

Gravity

c)

inertia

d)

motion

89.
The path a star takes during its life cycle depends solely on its _____.
a)
temperature
b)
luminosity
c)
mass
d)
location
90.
Question Image

Match the correct part of the chemical equation with its descriptor.

a)

A

1.

Reactants

b)

B

2.

Yields

c)

C

3.

Products

d)

D

4.

Subscript

e)

E

5.

Coefficient