WorksheetsCC-P19
Total questions: 157
Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Stimulate the release of anterior pituitary hormones
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
2.
Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
3.
Inhibit the release of certain anterior pituitary hormones
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
4.
Secreted by the anterior pituitary and stimulate the activity of other endocrine glands
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
5.
Secreted by all endocrine organs other than the hypothalamus
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
6.
Cannot cross the cell membrane due to their large molecular size thus, produce their effects on the outer surface of the cell
a)
Peptides and Proteins
b)
Steroids
c)
Amines
7.
Water-soluble and not bound to carrier protei
a)
Peptides and Proteins
b)
Steroids
c)
Amines
8.
• Synthesized from cholesterol
a)
Peptides and Proteins
b)
Steroids
c)
Amines
9.
Synthesized from an amino acid (tyrosine)
a)
Peptides and Proteins
b)
Steroids
c)
Amines
10.
Thyroid hormones, Catecholamines
a)
Peptides and Proteins
b)
Steroids
c)
Amines
11.
Intermediary between steroid and protein hormones
a)
Peptides and Proteins
b)
Steroids
c)
Amines
12.
Water-insoluble and circulate bound to a carrier protein
a)
Peptides and Proteins
b)
Steroids
c)
Amines
13.
Glycoproteins (FSH, LH, TSH, hCG), Polypeptides (ACTH, GH, PRL, ADH, oxytocin, PTH, Calcitonin, Insulin, Glucagon, Gastrin)
a)
Peptides and Proteins
b)
Steroids
c)
Amines
14.
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
15.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
16.
Luteinizing hormone (LH
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
17.
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
18.
Dopamine
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
19.
Somatostatin
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
20.
Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
21.
Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
a)
Releasing hormones
b)
Inhibitory hormones
c)
Tropic hormones
d)
Effector hormones
22.
Stimulatory
a)
Positive Feedback Mechanism
b)
Negative Feedback Mechanism
23.
System in which an increase in the product results to elevation of the activity of the system and the production rate
a)
Positive Feedback Mechanism
b)
Negative Feedback Mechanism
24.
Inhibitory
a)
Positive Feedback Mechanism
b)
Negative Feedback Mechanism
25.
System in which an increase in the product results to decreased activity of the system and the production rate
a)
Positive Feedback Mechanism
b)
Negative Feedback Mechanism
26.
feedback mechanism between the pituitary and hypothalamus
a)
Long Feedback mechanism
b)
Short Feedback mechanism
c)
Ultrashort feedback mechanism
27.
– feedback of hormones at the level of the pituitary gland
a)
Long Feedback mechanism
b)
Short Feedback mechanism
c)
Ultrashort feedback mechanism
28.
feedback from hormones produced in the pituitary target glands on the hypothalamus
a)
Long Feedback mechanism
b)
Short Feedback mechanism
c)
Ultrashort feedback mechanism
29.
• Portion of the brain located in the walls and floor of the third ventricle
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Pineal gland
c)
Pituitary gland
d)
Anterior pituitary gland
30.
• Link between the nervous system and endocrine system
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Pineal gland
c)
Pituitary gland
d)
Anterior pituitary gland
31.
Secretes melatonin that decreases the pigmentation of the skin and regulates sleep-wake cycle
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Pineal gland
c)
Pituitary gland
d)
Anterior pituitary gland
32.
• Known as the "master gland"
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Pineal gland
c)
Pituitary gland
d)
Anterior pituitary gland
33.
• True endocrine gland
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Pineal gland
c)
Pituitary gland
d)
Anterior pituitary gland
34.
• Regulates production of: growth hormone, prolactin, TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Pineal gland
c)
Pituitary gland
d)
Anterior pituitary gland
35.
Stimulates the release of FSH and LH
a)
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
b)
Coticotropin releasing hormone
c)
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
d)
GH-releasing hormone
36.
Stimulates the release of ACTH
a)
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
b)
Coticotropin releasing hormone
c)
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
d)
GH-releasing hormone
37.
Stimulates the release of TSH
a)
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
b)
Coticotropin releasing hormone
c)
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
d)
GH-releasing hormone
38.
Stimulates the release of GH
a)
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
b)
Coticotropin releasing hormone
c)
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
d)
GH-releasing hormone
39.
Inhibits the release of GH
a)
Somatostatin
b)
Dopamine
40.
Inhibits the release of Prolactin
a)
Somatostatin
b)
Dopamine
41.
Secretes growth hormone
a)
Somatotrophs
b)
Lactotrophs or Mammotrophs
c)
Thyrotrophs
d)
Gonadotrophs
e)
Corticotrophs
42.
Secretes prolactin
a)
Somatotrophs
b)
Lactotrophs or Mammotrophs
c)
Thyrotrophs
d)
Gonadotrophs
e)
Corticotrophs
43.
Secretes TSH
a)
Somatotrophs
b)
Lactotrophs or Mammotrophs
c)
Thyrotrophs
d)
Gonadotrophs
e)
Corticotrophs
44.
Secretes FSH and LH
a)
Somatotrophs
b)
Lactotrophs or Mammotrophs
c)
Thyrotrophs
d)
Gonadotrophs
e)
Corticotrophs
45.
Secretes proopiomelanocortin
a)
Somatotrophs
b)
Lactotrophs or Mammotrophs
c)
Thyrotrophs
d)
Gonadotrophs
e)
Corticotrophs
46.
Most abundant of all the pituitary hormones
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
47.
aids in spermatogenesis
a)
FSH
b)
LH
48.
helps Leydig cells to produce testosterone (male)
a)
FSH
b)
LH
49.
necessary for ovulation and final follicular growth (female)
a)
FSH
b)
LH
50.
Controlled by GH-RH
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
51.
Important markers in diagnosing fertility and menstrual cycle disorders
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
52.
Present in the blood of both male and female across ages
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
53.
Pituitary lactogenic hormone, stress hormone, and direct effector hormone
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
54.
Produced in response to low serum cortisol
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
55.
Regulator of adrenal androgen synthesis
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
56.
Main stimulus for the uptake of iodide by the thyroid gland
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
57.
Stimulates thyroid hormone synthesis
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
58.
Thyrotropin
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
59.
Gold standard in identifying central precocious puberty and premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonodal axis
a)
Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone Stimulation Test
b)
Oral GLucose tolerance Test
c)
Water Deprivation Test
d)
AVP and Copeptin
e)
Desmopressin
60.
• Increased: Hypogonadism, amenorrhea, galactorrhea, PCOS
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
61.
Major inhibitor: Dopamine
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
62.
Deep sleep effect on growth hormone
a)
Major stimulus
b)
Major inhibitor
63.
Somatostatin effect on growth hormone
a)
Major stimulus
b)
Major inhibitor
64.
Structurally similar to prolactin and human placental lactogen
a)
Growth hormone
b)
FSH and LH
c)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
d)
Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
e)
Prolactin
65.
Most common cause of GH deficiency in children
a)
Idiopathic GHD
b)
Pituitary adenoma
c)
Acromegaly
66.
Most common cause etiology in adult-onset GH deficiency
a)
Idiopathic GHD
b)
Pituitary adenoma
c)
Acromegaly
67.
Due to overproduction of growth hormone; usually observed during adulthood
a)
Idiopathic GHD
b)
Pituitary adenoma
c)
Acromegaly
68.
Sometomedin C or Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 is a screening test for?
a)
Idiopathic GHD
b)
Pituitary adenoma
c)
Acromegaly
69.
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (75 grams glucose) is a confirmatory test for?
a)
Idiopathic GHD
b)
Pituitary adenoma
c)
Acromegaly
70.
Physical activity test is a screening test for?
a)
Idiopathic GHD
b)
Pituitary adenoma
c)
Acromegaly
71.
Insulin Tolerance test, Arginine Stimulation Test and GLucagon stimulation test are confirmatory tests for?
a)
Idiopathic GHD
b)
Pituitary adenoma
c)
Acromegaly
72.
What is the screening test for growth hormone deficiency (Idiopathic GHD and Pituitary adenoma)?
a)
Physical Activity test
b)
Insulin Tolerance test
c)
Arginine Stimulation Test
d)
Glucagon Stimulation Test
e)
Somatomedin C or Insulin-Like Growth Factor
73.
What is the confirmatory test GOLD STANDARD for growth hormone deficiency (Idiopathic GHD and Pituitary adenoma)?
a)
Physical Activity test
b)
Insulin Tolerance test
c)
Arginine Stimulation Test
d)
Glucagon Stimulation Test
e)
Somatomedin C or Insulin-Like Growth Factor
74.
What is the SECOND confirmatory test for growth hormone deficiency (Idiopathic GHD and Pituitary adenoma)?
a)
Physical Activity test
b)
Insulin Tolerance test
c)
Arginine Stimulation Test
d)
Glucagon Stimulation Test
e)
Somatomedin C or Insulin-Like Growth Factor
75.
What is the THIRD confirmatory test for growth hormone deficiency (Idiopathic GHD and Pituitary adenoma)?
a)
Physical Activity test
b)
Insulin Tolerance test
c)
Arginine Stimulation Test
d)
Glucagon Stimulation Test
e)
Somatomedin C or Insulin-Like Growth Factor
76.
What is the screening test for acromegaly?
a)
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
b)
Insulin Tolerance test
c)
Arginine Stimulation Test
d)
Glucagon Stimulation Test
e)
Somatomedin C or Insulin-Like Growth Factor
77.
What is the confirmatory test for acromegaly?
a)
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
b)
Insulin Tolerance test
c)
Arginine Stimulation Test
d)
Glucagon Stimulation Test
e)
Somatomedin C or Insulin-Like Growth Factor
78.
• Releases hormones secreted by the hypothalamus: oxytocin, ADH / vasopressin
a)
Posterior Pituitary Gland
b)
Parathyroid gland
c)
Thyroid Gland
d)
Adrenal Gland
79.
Located on or near the thyroid capsule and sometimes within the thyroid gland
a)
Posterior Pituitary Gland
b)
Parathyroid gland
c)
Thyroid Gland
d)
Adrenal Gland
80.
• Preserves calcium and phosphate ions within reference limit
a)
Posterior Pituitary Gland
b)
Parathyroid gland
c)
Thyroid Gland
d)
Adrenal Gland
81.
• Regulates the plasma calcium concentration
a)
Posterior Pituitary Gland
b)
Parathyroid gland
c)
Thyroid Gland
d)
Adrenal Gland
82.
Also known as the butterfly-shaped gland
a)
Posterior Pituitary Gland
b)
Parathyroid gland
c)
Thyroid Gland
d)
Adrenal Gland
83.
Pyramid-like shape gland located above the kidneys
a)
Posterior Pituitary Gland
b)
Parathyroid gland
c)
Thyroid Gland
d)
Adrenal Gland
84.
Arginine Vasopressin
a)
Oxytocin
b)
Anti-diuretic Hormone
85.
Stimulates contraction of the gravid uterus at term – “Fergusson reflex”
a)
Oxytocin
b)
Anti-diuretic Hormone
86.
Stimulates muscle contraction during delivery and lactation
a)
Oxytocin
b)
Anti-diuretic Hormone
87.
Increases blood pressure
a)
Oxytocin
b)
Anti-diuretic Hormone
88.
Regulates the total concentration of blood though water balance (osmotic homeostasis)
a)
Oxytocin
b)
Anti-diuretic Hormone
89.
Decreases production of urine by promoting reabsorption of water
a)
Oxytocin
b)
Anti-diuretic Hormone
90.
True / Hypothalamic / Cranial / Central DI
a)
Neurogenic DI
b)
Nephrogenic DI
c)
Psychogenic DI
d)
Gestational DI
91.
Primary / Dipsogenic DI
a)
Neurogenic DI
b)
Nephrogenic DI
c)
Psychogenic DI
d)
Gestational DI
92.
Also known as the compulsive water drinking disorder without stimulus
a)
Neurogenic DI
b)
Nephrogenic DI
c)
Psychogenic DI
d)
Gestational DI
93.
Develops due to the excessive activity of the placental cysteine aminopeptidase or placental vasopressinase
a)
Neurogenic DI
b)
Nephrogenic DI
c)
Psychogenic DI
d)
Gestational DI
94.
May be due to a faulty thirst hypothalamic mechanism
a)
Neurogenic DI
b)
Nephrogenic DI
c)
Psychogenic DI
d)
Gestational DI
95.
Abnormally functioning ADH receptors (Renal resistance to ADH action)
a)
Neurogenic DI
b)
Nephrogenic DI
c)
Psychogenic DI
d)
Gestational DI
96.
Characterized by either a complete absence of or low ADH with effective AVP receptors
a)
Neurogenic DI
b)
Nephrogenic DI
c)
Psychogenic DI
d)
Gestational DI
97.
What is the gold standard for DI?
a)
Water Deprivation Test
b)
AVP and Copeptin
c)
Desmopressin
d)
3% Hypertonic Saline Infusion with Copeptin
98.
What differentiates neurogenic DI form primary polydipsia?
a)
Water Deprivation Test
b)
AVP and Copeptin
c)
Desmopressin
d)
3% Hypertonic Saline Infusion with Copeptin
99.
What differentiates neurogenic DI from nephrogenic DI?
a)
Water Deprivation Test
b)
AVP and Copeptin
c)
Desmopressin
d)
3% Hypertonic Saline Infusion with Copeptin
100.
Metabolically active form
a)
T3
b)
T4
101.
Triiodothyronine
a)
T3
b)
T4
102.
• Principal application is in diagnosis of T3 thyrotoxicosis
a)
T3
b)
T4
103.
has no affinity for prealbumin
a)
T3
b)
T4
104.
Principal secretory product
a)
T3
b)
T4
105.
Plasma concentration is a good indicator of thyroid secretory rate
a)
T3
b)
T4
106.
Tetraiodothyronine
a)
T3
b)
T4
107.
Transports majority of T3
a)
Thyroxine-Binding Globulin
b)
Thyroxine-Binding Prealbumin
c)
Albumin
108.
Transports 70% of total T4
a)
Thyroxine-Binding Globulin
b)
Thyroxine-Binding Prealbumin
c)
Albumin
109.
Transports 20% of total T4
a)
Thyroxine-Binding Globulin
b)
Thyroxine-Binding Prealbumin
c)
Albumin
110.
Transports T3 and 10% of T4
a)
Thyroxine-Binding Globulin
b)
Thyroxine-Binding Prealbumin
c)
Albumin
111.
Increased T3, T4, decreased TSH, TRH
a)
Primary hyperthyroidism
b)
Secondary hyperthyroidism
c)
Tertiary hyperthyroidism
112.
Increased T3, T4, increased TSH, decreased TRH
a)
Primary hyperthyroidism
b)
Secondary hyperthyroidism
c)
Tertiary hyperthyroidism
113.
Increased T3, T4, increased TSH, increasedTRH
a)
Primary hyperthyroidism
b)
Secondary hyperthyroidism
c)
Tertiary hyperthyroidism
114.
/ Subacute Nonsuppurative / De Quervain
a)
Thyrotoxicosis
b)
Grave's Disease
c)
Subacute Granulomatous Painful Thyroiditis
d)
Postpartum Thyroiditis
e)
Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
115.
Applied to a group of syndromes caused by high levels of free thyroid hormones in the circulation
a)
Thyrotoxicosis
b)
Grave's Disease
c)
Subacute Granulomatous Painful Thyroiditis
d)
Postpartum Thyroiditis
e)
Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
116.
Most common cause of hyperthyroidism/thyrotoxicosis
a)
Thyrotoxicosis
b)
Grave's Disease
c)
Subacute Granulomatous Painful Thyroiditis
d)
Postpartum Thyroiditis
e)
Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
117.
Autoimmune disease in which antibodies are produced, activating TSH receptor
a)
Thyrotoxicosis
b)
Grave's Disease
c)
Subacute Granulomatous Painful Thyroiditis
d)
Postpartum Thyroiditis
e)
Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
118.
Associated with neck pain, low grade fever and swings in thyroid function tests
a)
Thyrotoxicosis
b)
Grave's Disease
c)
Subacute Granulomatous Painful Thyroiditis
d)
Postpartum Thyroiditis
e)
Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
119.
Possibly caused by viral infections
a)
Thyrotoxicosis
b)
Grave's Disease
c)
Subacute Granulomatous Painful Thyroiditis
d)
Postpartum Thyroiditis
e)
Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
120.
Has autoimmune relatedness with painless tenderness or enlargement of the thyroid
a)
Thyrotoxicosis
b)
Grave's Disease
c)
Subacute Granulomatous Painful Thyroiditis
d)
Postpartum Thyroiditis
e)
Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
121.
Show no clinical symptoms but TSH level is low
a)
Thyrotoxicosis
b)
Grave's Disease
c)
Subacute Granulomatous Painful Thyroiditis
d)
Postpartum Thyroiditis
e)
Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
122.
Decreased T3, T4, Increased TSH, TRH
a)
Primary hypothyroidism
b)
Secondary hypothyroidism
c)
Tertiary hypothyroidism
123.
Myxedema coma – severe form of
a)
Primary hypothyroidism
b)
Secondary hypothyroidism
c)
Tertiary hypothyroidism
124.
Decreased T3, T4, Decreased TSH, increased TRH
a)
Primary hypothyroidism
b)
Secondary hypothyroidism
c)
Tertiary hypothyroidism
125.
Decreased T3, T4, Decreased TSH, Decreased TRH
a)
Primary hypothyroidism
b)
Secondary hypothyroidism
c)
Tertiary hypothyroidism
126.
Most common cause of primary hypothyroidism
a)
Hashimoto's Disease
b)
Myxedema
c)
Ridel's Thyroiditis
d)
Subclinical hypothyroidism
127.
Describes the peculiar nonpitting swelling of the skin
a)
Hashimoto's Disease
b)
Myxedema
c)
Ridel's Thyroiditis
d)
Subclinical hypothyroidism
128.
Rare inflammatory disease of the thyroid gland
a)
Hashimoto's Disease
b)
Myxedema
c)
Ridel's Thyroiditis
d)
Subclinical hypothyroidism
129.
Immunoglobulin-induced dysfunction of the thyroid
a)
Hashimoto's Disease
b)
Myxedema
c)
Ridel's Thyroiditis
d)
Subclinical hypothyroidism
130.
Show no clinical symptoms but TSH level is slightly increased
a)
Hashimoto's Disease
b)
Myxedema
c)
Ridel's Thyroiditis
d)
Subclinical hypothyroidism
131.
Cretinism
a)
Congenital Hypothyroidism
b)
Central Hypothyroidism
132.
Defect in the development or function of the gland since inception
a)
Congenital Hypothyroidism
b)
Central Hypothyroidism
133.
Due to abnormality or mutations in the gene encoding for the TSH beta subunit or TRH receptor
a)
Congenital Hypothyroidism
b)
Central Hypothyroidism
134.
(+) TPO antibody
a)
Hashimoto's Disease
b)
Myxedema
c)
Ridel's Thyroiditis
d)
Subclinical hypothyroidism
135.
Measures the relationship between TRH and TSH secretions
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
136.
Most important thyroid function test
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
137.
Used to differentiate primary from secondary thyroid disorders
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
138.
Biological inactive metabolite of T4
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
139.
Third major circulating thyroid hormone
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
140.
Detects patients with euthyroid sick syndrome (↑)
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
141.
Biological active fraction of T4 in plasma
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
142.
Used to differentiate drug-induced TSH elevation and hypothyroidism
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
143.
Utilized to confirm results of FT3 and FT4
a)
Thyroxine-Binding Globulin (TBG)
b)
T3 Uptake / T3 Resin Uptake (T3U)
c)
Free Thyroxine Index (FTI)
d)
Tanned Erythrocyte Hemagglutination
144.
Measures the number if available binding sites of TBG
a)
Thyroxine-Binding Globulin (TBG)
b)
T3 Uptake / T3 Resin Uptake (T3U)
c)
Free Thyroxine Index (FTI)
d)
Tanned Erythrocyte Hemagglutination
145.
Indirectly assesses the level of free T4 in the blood
a)
Thyroxine-Binding Globulin (TBG)
b)
T3 Uptake / T3 Resin Uptake (T3U)
c)
Free Thyroxine Index (FTI)
d)
Tanned Erythrocyte Hemagglutination
146.
Measures antithyroglobulin antibodies
a)
Thyroxine-Binding Globulin (TBG)
b)
T3 Uptake / T3 Resin Uptake (T3U)
c)
Free Thyroxine Index (FTI)
d)
Tanned Erythrocyte Hemagglutination
147.
Best method for detecting clinically significant thyroid dysfunction
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
148.
Helpful in the detection of thyroid hormones resistance syndromes
a)
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH) Stimulation
b)
TSH test
c)
Reverse T3
d)
Free Thyroxine (fT4)
149.
Used as a post-operative marker of thyroid cancer
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Serum Calcitonin
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
150.
Used in monitoring the course of metastatic or recurrence of thyroid cancer
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Serum Calcitonin
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
151.
Thyroid nuclear medicine evaluation
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Serum Calcitonin
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
152.
Determines the amount of iodine trap or accumulates in the thyroid gland
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Serum Calcitonin
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
153.
Evaluates destructive thyroiditis
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Serum Calcitonin
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
154.
Assists in the diagnosis of medullary thyroid cancer
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Serum Calcitonin
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
155.
Most accurate tool in the evaluation of thyroid nodules without hyperthyroidism
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Serum Calcitonin
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
156.
Used to identify patients with thyroid cancers or the presence of residual or recurrent disease
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Recombinant Human TSH
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
157.
Marker for detecting medullary thyroid carcinoma
a)
Thyroglobulin
b)
Radioactive Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
c)
Serum Calcitonin
d)
Pentagastrin (Pg) Stimulation Test
e)
Fine Needle Aspiration
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