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Production Planning & Methods of Production (Q1-25)

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a key component of production planning?

a)

Price discrimination

b)

Workforce scheduling

c)

Investment appraisal

d)

Market segmentation

2.

A production plan that is based on meeting customer orders as they arrive is referred to as:

a)

Just-in-case

b)

Just-in-time

c)

Batch scheduling

d)

Demand-pull pricing

3.

A Gantt chart is primarily used to:

a)

Forecast stock levels

b)

Graphically schedule tasks over time

c)

Set product prices

d)

Measure workforce motivation

4.

Capacity utilization is calculated by:

a)

(Actual output ÷ Maximum output) × 100

b)

(Sales ÷ Costs) × 100

c)

Maximum output − Actual output

d)

(Profit ÷ Capacity) × 100

5.

High capacity utilization typically leads to:

a)

Higher unit costs

b)

Lower productivity

c)

Greater efficiency

d)

Less employee workload

6.

A major limitation of production planning tools is that they:

a)

Are too simple to use

b)

Cannot predict external changes accurately

c)

Eliminate the need for scheduling

d)

Increase production costs

7.

Operations managers use productivity ratios to measure:

a)

Revenue per unit sold

b)

Output relative to inputs

c)

Market share

d)

Production technology

8.

A buffer stock is maintained to:

a)

Reduce excess supply

b)

Prevent stockouts

c)

Minimize batch size

d)

Increase JIT efficiency

9.

Which factor most affects demand forecasting?

a)

Electricity costs

b)

Seasonal variations

c)

Office layout

d)

Recruitment policies

10.

A firm that produces at a level below capacity is said to have:

a)

Spare capacity

b)

Overutilization

c)

Diseconomies of scale

d)

Market cannibalization

11.

Routing in production refers to:

a)

Assigning workers to tasks

b)

Selecting the path materials follow

c)

Setting prices for production schedules

d)

Monitoring product quality

12.

Which type of production plan focuses on balancing workforce levels with fluctuating demand?

a)

Level production

b)

Chase production

c)

Flow production

d)

Mass customization

13.

Lead time refers to the time between:

a)

Receiving raw materials and payment

b)

Ordering stock and receiving it

c)

Production and distribution

d)

Product design and launch

14.

Production planning helps businesses primarily by:

a)

Increasing product prices

b)

Ensuring efficient resource use

c)

Reducing employee training needs

d)

Increasing taxes

15.

A project that involves unique, one-off tasks is best planned using:

a)

CPA

b)

JIT

c)

Batch production

d)

Kaizen

16.

A major weakness of capacity underutilization is:

a)

Lower fixed costs

b)

Higher average costs

c)

Higher productivity

d)

Increased wastage

17.

Production scheduling determines:

a)

Total sales value

b)

When specific tasks occur

c)

The firm's market structure

d)

Labor union relations

18.

Which is NOT a production resource?

a)

Land

b)

Capital

c)

Labor

d)

Dividend policy

19.

Bottlenecks in production typically cause:

a)

Reduced waiting times

b)

Higher throughput

c)

Production delays

d)

Lower unit costs

20.

The critical path in CPA is the sequence of activities with:

a)

Maximum slack

b)

No slack

c)

Lower unit costs

d)

Maximum profitability

21.

Batch production is most appropriate when:

a)

Products are highly individualized

b)

A single product is mass-produced

c)

There is moderate product variety

d)

Demand is extremely unpredictable

22.

Flow production is best defined as:

a)

Producing goods in groups

b)

A continuous production process

c)

Customizing products for individual buyers

d)

Producing at home

23.

Job production typically results in:

a)

High economies of scale

b)

Standardized goods

c)

Labor-intensive processes

d)

Fast throughput times

24.

Mass production maximizes:

a)

Customization

b)

Economies of scale

c)

Lead time

d)

Job specialization

25.

Which method allows for unique, one-off items?

a)

Flow production

b)

Batch production

c)

Job production

d)

Cell production

26.

The major disadvantage of flow production is:

a)

High need for skilled labor

b)

High initial capital costs

c)

Inconsistent quality

d)

Excessive customization

27.

Mass customization attempts to combine:

a)

Job and cellular production

b)

Flow production with customization

c)

Batch and job production

d)

Lean and batch production

28.

Cellular manufacturing improves efficiency by:

a)

Increasing movement between workstations

b)

Reducing worker specialization

c)

Grouping workers based on product lines

d)

Increasing stock levels

29.

Which is most associated with job production?

a)

Car manufacturing

b)

Bakery goods

c)

Tailor-made suits

d)

Steel production

30.

Batch production is advantageous because:

a)

It offers high flexibility

b)

It eliminates downtime

c)

It requires no storage

d)

It yields the lowest unit costs

31.

Job production has high:

a)

Capital intensity

b)

Customization

c)

Output levels

d)

Economies of scale

32.

Flow production is NOT suitable when:

a)

Products are standardized

b)

Demand is consistent

c)

Production needs flexibility

d)

Huge volumes are required

33.

Mass production requires significant investment in:

a)

Workforce creativity

b)

Machinery and automation

c)

Raw material buffers

d)

Distribution channels only

34.

Cellular manufacturing helps reduce:

a)

Variety

b)

Set-up times

c)

Worker collaboration

d)

Flexibility

35.

A strength of batch production is that it:

a)

Minimizes unit costs at all levels

b)

Allows some customization

36.

The aim of lean production is to eliminate what?

a)

Efficiency

b)

Value-added activities

c)

Waste

d)

Labor specialization

37.

Kaizen emphasizes which approach to improvement?

a)

Large, infrequent improvements

b)

Continuous improvement

c)

Employee avoidance

d)

Eliminating training needs

38.

Just-in-time (JIT) production primarily minimizes which of the following?

a)

Cash flow

b)

Workforce participation

c)

Inventory levels

d)

Product quality

39.

Which principle is associated with lean production?

a)

Large batch sizes

b)

Customer value focus

c)

Overprocessing

d)

High buffer stock

40.

JIT requires which condition to operate effectively?

a)

Reliable suppliers

b)

High inventory

c)

Long lead times

d)

Multiple storage facilities

41.

Kanban helps organizations primarily by doing what?

a)

Increase inventory

b)

Signal production stages

c)

Train employees

d)

Test product quality

42.

A key goal of lean production is to do which of the following?

a)

Increase waste

b)

Reduce flexibility

c)

Increase productivity

d)

Maximize buffer stock

43.

A downside of JIT is best described as which risk?

a)

Requires large amounts of capital

b)

Is vulnerable to supply chain interruptions

c)

Increases warehousing costs

d)

Reduces efficiency

44.

Lean production improves quality primarily by which mechanism?

a)

Reducing employee involvement

b)

Encouraging continuous improvement

c)

Increasing idle time

d)

Emphasizing batch sizes

45.

Lean production focuses on which priority?

a)

Minimizing customer involvement

b)

Eliminating bottlenecks

c)

Increasing waste

d)

Reducing standardization

46.

In a Kanban system, a card most directly signals which action?

a)

Price change

b)

Production needed

c)

Worker absenteeism

d)

Product promotion

47.

JIT helps companies reduce which of the following?

a)

Cash flow

b)

Wastage

c)

Supplier reliability

d)

Efficiency

48.

Lean production improves competitiveness through which effect?

a)

Increasing stock levels

b)

Reducing defects

c)

Reducing motivation

d)

Adding waste

49.

Value stream mapping is used to identify which element?

a)

Supplier power

b)

Waste in the production process

c)

Marketing channels

d)

Distribution systems

50.

JIT supports which capability for firms?

a)

High storage costs

b)

Rapid response to demand

c)

Slow production

d)

Less supplier coordination

51.

Kaizen encourages which style of improvement and decision-making?

a)

Hierarchical decision-making

b)

Small, frequent improvements

c)

No employee input

d)

Capital-intensive upgrades

52.

A major requirement for lean production is which organizational condition?

a)

Poor communication

b)

Employee empowerment

c)

High inventories

d)

Limited training

53.

Lean production tends to have what effect on lead times and quality?

a)

Increase lead times

b)

Lower quality

c)

Reduce lead times

d)

Increase defects

54.

Which lean tool explicitly reduces waste by visually signaling workflow stages and limiting work-in-progress?

a)

Kaizen

b)

Kanban

c)

Value stream mapping

d)

Buffer stock charts

55.

Quality assurance focuses on which primary objective?

a)

Inspecting products after production

b)

Preventing defects

c)

Increasing rejected goods

d)

Reducing training

56.

Quality control relies mainly on which approach?

a)

Prevention

b)

Inspection

c)

Standardization

d)

Zero defects

57.

Total Quality Management (TQM) emphasizes what scope of responsibility?

a)

Quality only in production

b)

Organization-wide responsibility

c)

Top management only

d)

Inspection-based control

58.

Which is a major benefit often associated with TQM?

a)

Reduced customer satisfaction

b)

Increase in waste

c)

Improved employee morale

d)

Higher defect rates

59.

Benchmarking typically involves which action?

a)

Setting low performance standards

b)

Comparing performance to industry leaders

c)

Increasing inventory

d)

Eliminating training

60.

Zero defects is a principle most closely associated with which concept?

a)

Lean production

b)

Benchmarking

c)

TQM

d)

Outsourcing

61.

Quality circles are best described as what?

a)

Groups of inspectors

b)

Teams solving quality problems

c)

Customer feedback surveys

d)

Training manuals

62.

ISO certification focuses mainly on which aspect?

a)

Safety compliance

b)

Price controls

c)

Standardized quality processes

d)

Employee appraisal

63.

Quality control checks usually occur at which stage?

a)

Before production

b)

During distribution

c)

After production

d)

During product design

64.

TQM’s success strongly depends on which factor?

a)

Employee involvement

b)

High inventory

c)

Long inspections

d)

Low management commitment

65.

A key principle of TQM is:

a)

One-time fixes

b)

Continuous improvement

c)

Minimal training

d)

High defect tolerance

66.

Quality assurance most directly leads to which outcome?

a)

Higher rework costs

b)

Lower employee involvement

c)

Fewer defects

d)

More inspection

67.

Statistical quality control primarily uses which method?

a)

Surveys

b)

Data analysis

c)

Manual inspection only

d)

Price tags

68.

Which is a disadvantage of implementing TQM?

a)

Higher employee engagement

b)

High initial cost

c)

Lower quality standards

d)

Increased stock

69.

Quality circles improve quality mainly through which mechanism?

a)

Worker participation

b)

Reducing communication

c)

Increasing silos

d)

Reducing teamwork

70.

Quality management enhances competitiveness primarily by:

a)

Increasing defects

b)

Improving customer loyalty

c)

Raising unit costs

d)

Slowing production

71.

Quality assurance reduces costs chiefly by:

a)

Preventing defects

b)

Increasing inspections

c)

Reducing training

d)

Increasing rework

72.

TQM encourages which overarching focus?

a)

Customer focus

b)

Low staff empowerment

c)

Price cutting

d)

Short-term fixes

73.

Stockouts occur when:

a)

Stock exceeds maximum

b)

No stock is available

c)

Stock is reordered early

d)

Lead time is short

74.

Lead time affects the:

a)

Reorder level

b)

Total revenue

c)

Product price

d)

Workforce size

75.

A key benefit of computerized stock control is:

a)

Increased stock

b)

Real-time tracking

c)

Higher wastage

d)

Longer lead time

76.

Holding too much stock leads to:

a)

Higher storage costs

b)

Lower variety

c)

Greater stockouts

d)

Reduced risks

77.

Just-in-Time (JIT) reduces:

a)

Dependence on suppliers

b)

Stockholding costs

c)

Flexibility

d)

Product quality

78.

The reorder level formula is:

a)

Maximum stock + Minimum stock

b)

Lead time × Average daily usage

c)

Buffer stock – Lead time

d)

Unit cost × Quantity

79.

Stock turnover ratio measures:

a)

Profit margin

b)

How often stock is sold

c)

Defect rate

d)

Holding cost

80.

A low stock turnover ratio suggests:

a)

Fast sales

b)

Excess inventory

c)

High demand

d)

Efficient stock control

81.

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is used to minimize:

a)

Ordering and holding costs

b)

Stock turnover

c)

Lead time

d)

Supplier reliability

82.

Overstocking often results in:

a)

Waste reduction

b)

High obsolescence

c)

Lean production

d)

Short lead times

83.

Crisis management involves:

a)

Preventing crises from happening

b)

Responding to unexpected events

c)

Running routine operations

d)

Planning marketing strategies

84.

A contingency plan is created to:

a)

Increase stock

b)

Prepare for potential crises

c)

Replace business strategies

d)

Hire new workers

85.

A crisis typically threatens a business’s:

a)

Long-term goals only

b)

Survival

c)

Marketing position only

d)

Branding only

86.

A key feature of effective crisis management is:

a)

Slow communication

b)

Quick decision-making

c)

Employee turnover

d)

High bureaucracy

87.

Contingency planning helps firms:

a)

Waste resources

b)

Reduce impact of disasters

c)

Increase unpredictability

d)

Avoid training

88.

Which of the following is an example of a crisis?

a)

Hiring new workers

b)

Financial fraud

c)

Routine maintenance

d)

Stable supplier relationships

89.

Which capability is essential for effective crisis management teams?

a)

Poor communication

b)

Specialized training

c)

High inventory

d)

Slow response times

90.

A business continuity plan primarily focuses on:

a)

Maintaining essential functions during crises

b)

Pricing decisions

c)

Marketing communications

d)

Product design

91.

Crisis communication should be:

a)

Delayed

b)

Clear and immediate

c)

Confusing

d)

Restricted internally

92.

Creativity involves:

a)

Routine thinking

b)

Novel and useful ideas

c)

Imitation

d)

Standardization

93.

Product innovation refers to:

a)

New distribution channels

b)

Improvements to products

c)

New management structures

d)

New pricing strategies

94.

A major risk of innovation is:

a)

Reduced differentiation

b)

Financial uncertainty

c)

Increased economies of scale

d)

Increased customer loyalty

95.

Intrapreneurship occurs when:

a)

Entrepreneurs work outside firms

b)

Employees innovate within organizations

c)

Managers avoid risk

d)

Customers co-create products