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Sea Rescue Base (SRB) SECTION 2 & 3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main role of the Sea Rescue Base (SRB)?

a)

Part of Airport Emergency Service in ARFF

b)

Coastal and offshore emergency response near Changi Airport

c)

Emergency Coastal response for Changi Airport

d)

Rescue and Fire Fighting

2.

What is the primary objective during an aircraft crash at sea?

a)

Rescue casualties in distress

b)

Rapid rescue and casualty stabilisation

c)

Media briefing

d)

Fire Fighting and save lives

3.

Why is coordination with SCDF Marine Division critical?

a)

Both agencies working together

b)

To ensure unified response in maritime incidents

c)

SCDF has many resources

d)

AES requires the support for aircraft incidents

4.

SRB’s operational scope includes:

a)

Inland flood rescue only

b)

Offshore and coastal aviation-related emergencies

c)

Retail fire drills

d)

Aircraft fuelling

5.

Communication during vessel operations relies on:

a)

VHF radio channels

b)

AES Frequencies

c)

Marine Channels

d)

Loudhailers only

6.

Surface water rescue prioritises:

a)

Evidence collection

b)

Rapid extraction and medical transfer

c)

Fuel spill documentation

d)

Vessel photography

7.

What is the primary purpose of adopting CFO?

a)

To reduce fuel consumption

b)

To ensure tactical positioning for firefighting and rescue

c)

To response as a unit

d)

To ensure all vessels in position

8.

Who coordinates CFO vessel formation?

a)

Duty OPC / FWO

b)

SCDF Commander

c)

Duty FSSGT

d)

Duty Officer

9.

Firefighting approach aims to:

a)

Push small fire away from fuselage

b)

Insulate and isolate fire away from fuselage

c)

Burn off fuel

d)

Delay until SCDF arrives

10.

Rescue tactics depend on fuselage integrity. Which is NOT a listed condition?

a)

Intact

b)

Broken into segments

c)

Submerged

d)

Partial Submerged

11.

What is the first responsibility of the OSC upon arrival?

a)

Begin casualty tagging

b)

Size-up the situation and confirm hazards

c)

Size up and conduct rescue

d)

Size up and deploy additional vessels

12.

What is the safest entry method for rescuers into water from a vessel?

a)

Jump head-first

b)

Controlled feet-first entry with PPE and tether

c)

Controlled feet-first entry with tether

d)

Do not enter feet first

13.

What is the key safety consideration during search pattern operations?

a)

Maintain high speed for quick coverage

b)

Avoid overlapping search legs

c)

Keep lookout for debris and survivors while preventing collision

d)

Ignore weather conditions

14.

Which search pattern uses overlapping legs to ensure no gaps in coverage?

a)

Parallel Track

b)

Creeping Line

c)

Expanding Square

d)

Barrier Search

15.

What is the main factor when choosing a search pattern?

a)

Last known position and numbers of casualties

b)

Area size, visibility, and last known position

c)

Area size and visibility

d)

Area size, visibility, and numbers of casualties

16.

Which search pattern is ideal for long, narrow areas such as coastlines?

a)

Parallel Track

b)

Expanding Square

c)

Sector Search

d)

Spiral Search

17.

When the last known position of an aircraft is uncertain, which pattern is recommended?

a)

Expanding Square

b)

Sector Search

c)

Creeping Line

d)

Point-to-Point

18.

Which search pattern is most suitable for a small, well-defined crash site?

a)

Expanding Square

b)

Parallel Sweep

c)

Sector Search

d)

Barrier Search

19.

What is the primary purpose of a search pattern in SRB and vessel operations?

a)

To improve fuel efficiency

b)

To systematically cover an area for locating survivors or debris

c)

To maintain formation discipline

d)

According to IAMSAR, search pattern is crucial for search and rescue operations

20.

Which statement best describes AES’s core responsibility over water?

a)

Firefighting only

b)

Rescue only

c)

Firefighting and rescue within the defined AES turnout area

d)

Environmental protection only

21.

The AES turnout area includes an arc centered at Changi Control Tower with a radius of:

a)

5 NM between 090° and 210°

b)

10 NM between 80° and 212°

c)

12 NM between 70° and 220°

d)

8 NM between 100° and 200°

22.

Which feature most characterizes a “ditch” scenario?

a)

High altitude, high speed, controls lost

b)

Low altitude, slow speed, critical controls available

c)

Unknown location, deep waters, fuselage breakage

d)

Immediate submersion with no debris

23.

In a “crash” scenario, the fuselage is most likely:

a)

Broken or submerged in shallow waters

b)

Partially submerged with no debris

c)

Broken or submerged in deeper waters

d)

Partially submerged in shallow and deep water

24.

Which document is cited for search and rescue pattern guidance?

a)

ICAO Annex 13

b)

IAMSAR Manual

c)

NFPA 1006

d)

FAA Part 139 Advisory Circular

25.

Which three reference locations aid SRB response time computation?

a)

Paku Buoy, Padang Buoy, Perimbi

b)

Paku Buoy, Tanah Merah Ferry Terminal, 2 NM south of Mano Buoy

c)

North Angler, Tanah Merah, Mano Buoy

d)

Paku Buoy, Seletar and Padang

26.

Sea Command’s tactical role includes:

a)

Drone deployment only

b)

Firefighting on fuselage, command & control, search coordination

c)

Liferaft packing at SRB only

d)

Towing vessels to datum

27.

ICAO reaction time target in the SRB context is:

a)

≤ 90 seconds

b)

≤ 60 seconds

c)

≤ 45 seconds

d)

≤ 30 seconds

28.

The “reaction time” clock starts from:

a)

Crash siren activation to craft leaving jetty with crew on board

b)

Crash siren activation to craft leaving jetty with crew on board and engine started

c)

Crew muster at station to vessel castoff

d)

Craft leaving jetty with crew on board and engine started

29.

Northern Approach Standby Position (NSP) for Changi runways 20R/20C/20L corresponds to:

a)

Grid 5817B near Padang Buoy

b)

Grid 0023A near Paku Buoy

c)

Grid 5325A near Perembi Buoy

d)

Grid 1133C near Mano Buoy

30.

Southern Approach Standby Position (SSP) for runways 02L/02C/02R is near:

a)

Padang Buoy (Grid 5817B)

b)

Paku Buoy (Grid 0023A)

c)

Perembi Buoy (Grid 5325A)

d)

Mano Buoy (Grid 9001A)

31.

Seletar Standby Position (Runway 21) is located near:

a)

Paku Buoy – Grid 0023A

b)

Padang Buoy – Grid 5817B

c)

Perembi Buoy – Grid 5325A

d)

Mano Buoy – Grid 1133C

32.

When fuselage is intact, liferafts should be deployed:

a)

Upstream of fuselage

b)

Downstream of fuselage (in drift path)

c)

At SRB jetty only

d)

Beside Sea Command’s beam

33.

In multi segment fuselage scenarios, AES crew should:

a)

Focus first on the larger segment and direct able-bodied passengers downstream into water

b)

Leave passengers inside until all fires are extinguished

c)

Prioritize able-bodied passengers

d)

Attempt towing all segments immediately

34.

When fuselage is submerged and no surface signs exist, the first step is to:

a)

Place a marker buoy at datum and begin random sector searches

b)

Place a marker buoy at datum and obtain RCC coordinates for the search area

c)

Place a marker buoy at datum and send RCC coordinates for the search area

d)

Place a marker buoy at datum and wait for RCC to send coordinates for the search area

35.

Which search pattern is recommended when AOP is large and target location is poorly established?

a)

Sector

b)

Parallel Track

c)

Expanding Square

d)

Barrier

36.

Creeping Line differs from Parallel Track because its legs are oriented:

a)

Along the long axis

b)

At right angles to the major axis of the search area

c)

As circles around datum

d)

Randomly to maximize coverage

37.

Expanding Square is best used when:

a)

Datum is well established and AOP is small

b)

Datum is unknown and AOP is large

38.

Sector Search has a very high Probability of Detection but is limited when:

a)

Leg lengths exceed 3× sweep width, causing gaps

b)

Datum is not established

c)

There are multiple vessels

d)

Sea state is rough

39.

Two vessel Expanding Square execution requires:

a)

Simultaneous leg starts to maximize speed

b)

Second vessel offset 45° to starboard with timing separation to avoid collision

c)

Second vessel offset 90° port without delay

d)

Second vessel mirroring first on identical headings

40.

Communication with marine agencies uses:

a)

Marine Channel 7 (main) and Channel 13 (alternate)

b)

Marine Channel 13 (main) and Channel 21 (alternate)

c)

Marine Channel 21 (main) and Channel 7 (alternate)

d)

AES Frequency only

41.

AES communications overview lists an air coordination frequency with RSAF of:

a)

118.7 MHz

b)

123.1 MHz

c)

121.5 MHz

d)

130.0 MHz

42.

Arrowhead formation discipline includes:

a)

Abrupt heading changes to test following craft

b)

Reduced speed for heading changes, clear comms from lead, approx. one boat length separation

c)

No separation to maintain cohesion

d)

Trail vessels to maintain radio silence

43.

CAFHI jetty fuel spillage incident management thresholds specify:

a)

CAFHI IM ≥ 1000 L

b)

MPA IM < 1000 L

c)

CAFHI IM < 1000 L; MPA IM ≥ 1000 L

d)

AES IM regardless of volume

44.

For a fire outbreak at CAFHI jetty, AES should first:

a)

Evacuate personnel and craft away from jetty

b)

Evacuate personnel and craft away from jetty, prevent impingement on pipelines/structure, then coordinate/handover to SCDF

c)

Evacuate personnel and craft away from jetty, to prevent fire from spreading proceed with fire fighting

d)

Await SCDF before acting

45.

Marine incidents (vessel/infrastructure fire, man overboard) within AES boundary:

a)

Are always handled by MPA only

b)

AES SRB is first responder and hands over to SCDF Marine Command (CDMC) on arrival

c)

Require immediate airport closure

d)

Are outside AES scope

46.

CAAS DVORDME offshore installations requiring AES response are located at:

a)

Lazarus Island only

b)

Pulau Ubin and Pulau Tekong Kechil (Lazarus is outside AES turnout area)

c)

Pulau Ubin, Tekong Kechil, and Lazarus all within AES area

d)

Seletar Slipway only

47.

Rogue vessel interception in Serangoon Channel involves:

a)

AES Command Boat proceeding to coordinates from MPA, identifying vessel, requesting next actions, then handing over to MPA

b)

AES Command Boat proceeding to coordinates from PCG, identifying vessel, requesting next actions, then handing over to SCDF

c)

AES Command Boat proceeding to coordinates from PCG, identifying vessel, requesting next actions, then handing over to MPA

d)

AES vessels towing the vessel to SRB

48.

Which factor most influences the selection of a search pattern during SRB operations?

a)

Strong currents and drift

b)

Tidal current direction and expected drift path

c)

Low and high tide

d)

Upstream and down stream

49.

Which of the following is NOT a main point of concern for SRB response time?

a)

Paku Buoy

b)

Tanah Merah Ferry Terminal

c)

2NM south of Mano Buoy

d)

Angler Buoy

50.

When should the transfer of casualties in hazardous sea conditions be attempted?

a)

Whenever possible

b)

Only if absolutely necessary

c)

During training

d)

Never

51.

Which lifting aids may be used to assist in transferring a casualty?

a)

Fibre light cradle or scramble net

b)

Fire hose

c)

Life jacket only

d)

None are allowed

52.

What is a key safety factor during the transfer of a casualty between vessels?

a)

Minimise movement between vessels

b)

Transfer as quickly as possible

c)

Only use verbal communication

d)

Allow the casualty to move independently

53.

What is the recommended speed and approach for vessels during a casualty transfer?

a)

High speed, direct approach

b)

Slow, controlled speed with operational engines and steering

54.

Which offshore installation is outside AES turnout area and requires SCDF/MPA assistance?

a)

Pulau Ubin

b)

Pulau Tekong Kechil

c)

Lazarus Island

d)

Seletar Slipway

55.

Pulau Ubin DVOR-DME coordinates recorded in CESOM are closest to:

a)

1°25′23.8″N, 103°55′59.5″E

b)

1°13′21.1″N, 103°51′14.6″E

c)

1°24′55.3″N, 104°01′19.6″E

d)

1°20′10.0″N, 104°05′10.0″E

56.

Which offshore installation is listed at GPS1 Grid Square 0124D?

a)

Pulau Ubin

b)

Pulau Tekong Kechil

57.

Which statement about the rescue pole aligns with AES practice?

a)

Slower than throw bag

b)

Extends to 13 m in seconds and is faster than inflating hose; uses sliding hi-vis float on the 13 m pole

c)

Must be used only from land

d)

Requires two operators always

58.

What is the advised maximum load on a scramble net when recovering unconscious casualties?

a)

150 kg

b)

≤ 300 kg

c)

450 kg

d)

No limit

59.

Which statement is true of the fibre light cradle in this concept?

a)

Used only as ladder

b)

Scramble net/stretcher; post-use freshwater rinse required

c)

Must be inflated before use

d)

Hand-use only from shore

60.

In AES water-rescue concept, why are life rafts deployed downstream of the fuselage?

a)

To allow evacuating passengers to swim different direction

b)

To allow evacuating passengers to drift naturally towards safe collection points

c)

To allow evacuating passengers to swim towards safe collection points

d)

To allow evacuating passengers to rush towards safe collection points

61.

Which equipment combination correctly supports the “reach/throw” priority?

a)

Fins and mask

b)

Ring buoy, rescue pole, throw bag

c)

Dive scooter and tether line

d)

Thermal blanket and stretcher only

62.

When managing a raft containing mixed P1/P2/P3 casualties, the next operational priority after boarding is to:

a)

Re-deploy rafts to another sector

b)

Transfer ashore via landing point/CCS as mutual aid arrives

c)

Begin advanced medical care on raft

d)

Move rafts up-current for comfort

63.

During high debris and cold-water conditions, which tactic best aligns with the concept?

a)

Live-bait entry

b)

Deploy throw bags and rescue pole from the boat

64.

Which statement best reflects AES’s risk posture for entering the water?

a)

Enter early to reassure casualties

b)

Enter only after all raft capacity is exhausted

c)

Entering is last resort, used only when necessary and manpower allows

d)

Never enter

65.

What is the main disadvantage of the lifesaving backstroke during towing?

a)

High energy demand

b)

Poor propulsion

c)

No forward visibility

d)

Difficult to maintain airway

66.

In the crash case, fuselage condition is more likely to be:

a)

Intact

b)

Broken or submerged

c)

Unaffected

d)

Pressurized

67.

After life rafts are positioned, what is the preferred way AES rescuers interact with casualties in the water?

a)

Enter water immediately

b)

Use ring buoys, rescue pole, fibre light cradle, throw bags from the vessel

c)

Swim alongside and push to shore

d)

Deploy divers from shore

68.

In AES’s water-rescue concept, what is the primary tactical enabler used to manage large survivor counts with an initial crew of six?

a)

Immediate swimmer deployment

b)

Strategic life raft deployment to remove survivors from water quickly

c)

Towing survivors one-by-one

d)

Beaching aircraft fuselage

69.

In a ditch, fuselage integrity is:

a)

Typically destroyed

b)

More likely intact

c)

Always submerged

d)

Not considered

70.

The Seletar Standby Position grid reference is:

a)

5325A

b)

5817B

c)

5625A

d)

5235B

71.

The SSP grid reference listed is:

a)

0023A

b)

5817B

c)

5325A

d)

0124D

72.

When applying foam on the water surface, the flow should aim to:

a)

Spread upstream

b)

Drive agent across the surface, pushing fire/fuel away from fuselage

c)

Form mounds

d)

Jet into the slick

73.

Before transferring a casualty between vessels, which environmental factor should be considered?

a)

Colour of the vessel

b)

Visibility, wind speed, sea state, current, and weather conditions

c)

Number of crew on board

d)

Type of rescue equipment used

74.

Tactical positioning should account for:

a)

Wave height only

b)

Current speed and direction (drift)

c)

Tide and current

d)

Current and vessel positioning

75.

Why might SRB crew need to transfer casualties from one vessel to another during water rescue operations?

a)

To practice teamwork

b)

Due to limited resources, medical facilities, or space on board

c)

To test vessel speed

d)

For training new crew only

76.

Pocket fires typically occur:

a)

Upstream of the fuselage

b)

Downstream, away from the fuselage

77.

A crash (as contrasted to ditch) is associated with:

a)

Slow speed near shoreline

b)

High altitude/fast speed and loss of critical flight controls

c)

Controlled low-energy touchdown

d)

Engine spool-down only

78.

When pocket fires impede tactical positioning for rescue, the fireboat should:

a)

Keep station and proceed with rescue anyway

b)

Abandon scene

c)

Perform firefighting first, then commence rescue

d)

Call off operations

79.

With broken fuselage segments, AES initially focuses on:

a)

The smallest piece

b)

The larger segment, directing able-bodied to evacuate downstream and assisting P1/P2

c)

Upwind raft first

d)

Debris collection

80.

Crash locations are expected in:

a)

Shallows along glide path

b)

Deeper waters with unknown impact point

c)

Inside lagoons only

d)

In harbours only

81.

Upon receiving DVOR fire alarm, who decides more vessels/manpower to support SRB?

a)

Duty Officer

b)

OPC

c)

Dy Commander

d)

AOG

82.

DVOR-DME operational significance means AES must consider:

a)

Navigational impacts if operations are jeopardized

b)

Only local building codes

c)

No operational concern

d)

Passenger amenities

83.

If the affected installation is Lazarus Island (outside AES turnout area), AES should:

a)

Deploy full fleet regardless

b)

Seek assistance from SCDF or MPA to respond

c)

Ignore

d)

Move by land only

84.

When a CAAS offshore installation alarm triggers, WRO should:

a)

Log only, await daylight

b)

Activate at least one AES vessel; OPC decides on additional assets as needed

c)

Inform airline first

d)

Defer to MPA exclusively

85.

In pocket fires drifting away from fuselage, AES should:

a)

Ignore always

b)

Monitor drift and direct SCDF Marine to perform firefighting upon arrival; extinguish if tactical positioning is impeded

c)

Attack aggressively, regardless of priorities

d)

Push toward fuselage for suppression

86.

For marine incidents within AES area (vessel fires, man overboard), AES SRB acts as:

a)

Media liaison first

b)

First responder, then handover to SCDF Marine Division upon arrival

c)

Only logistics provider

d)

No response

87.

The hazard noted for prolonged burning at CAFHI Jetty is:

a)

Paint damage only

b)

Structural integrity weakening/collapse risk

c)

Slip hazard

d)

Noise

88.

First AES action upon fire outbreak at the jetty is to:

a)

Continue bunkering

b)

Evacuate personnel and craft away from jetty, then inform OPC and decide on next actions

c)

Hold position and observe

d)

Foam only

89.

If the estimated spillage is > 1000 L, who assumes the IM role?

a)

CAFHI

b)

MPA

c)

SCDF

d)

AES

90.

In a fuel spillage at CAFHI Jetty, if estimated volume is < 1000 L, the Incident Manager (IM) is:

a)

MPA

b)

SCDF

c)

CAFHI

d)

AES

91.

For ditching along runway glide-paths, proximity is often:

a)

Far offshore

b)

Close to shore

c)

Inland

d)

Port limit only

92.

For mass-casualty marine incidents, AES initial dispatch may include:

a)

Sea Command only

b)

RIB only

c)

Sea Command, Ocean Commander, and Rapid 1

d)

None until SCDF arrives

93.

Under the SCDF-CAG MOU, for fire-only marine incidents within AES boundary, AES shall:

a)

Decline response

b)

Dispatch up to 1 sea asset (type depends on magnitude)

c)

Dispatch all three assets by default

d)

Only provide aerial overwatch

94.

CFO separation discipline requires trailing vessels to maintain approximately:

a)

Two hull lengths

b)

10 m fixed gap

c)

One boat length from the lead as a buffer for side-slip effects

d)

Varies only with wind

95.

The datum point must be:

a)

Ignored in fast currents

b)

Marked with a buoy and broadcast to all assets; used to anchor sector plans

c)

Used only for land crashes

d)

Kept confidential

96.

Which MPA emergency VHF channel pair is specified?

a)

Ch 13 (156.350/160.950 MHz) and Ch 21 (156.65 MHz)

b)

Ch 7 (156.350/160.950 MHz) and Ch 13 (156.65 MHz)

97.

For DVOR-DME fires, what suppression feature is on-site?

a)

CO₂ handhelds only

b)

Total flooding system inside the building

c)

No built-in systems

d)

AFFF sprinklers only

98.

When a DVOR-DME alarm indicates fire risk at Pulau Ubin, the first action is for WRO to:

a)

Await independent verification

b)

Activate at least one AES vessel to respond; OPC decides on more support

c)

Call media

d)

Defer until daytime

99.

Why is sidestroke recommended for prolonged swims?

a)

Allows head above water with minimal effort

b)

Provides fastest propulsion

c)

Enables underwater approach

d)

Reduces drag for towing

100.

What is the primary advantage of using a Parallel Track search pattern?

a)

It is suitable for rough waters

b)

It minimizes overlap

c)

It covers large areas quickly

d)

It is easy to execute