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CM-17

Total questions: 157

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
An acceptable sputum specimen for microbiologic examination should contain: 1. <10 squamous epithelial cells (SEC) per low-power field 2. 25 WBC per low-power field 3. 10 SEC per high-power field 4. <25 WBC per high-power field
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2
c)
2 and 4
d)
3 and 4
2.
The single most important component responsible for sputum viscosity is:
a)
Hyaluronic acid
b)
Sialic acid
c)
Mucin
d)
Collagen
3.
Sputum is described as "viscoelastic" because it:
a)
Contains no protein
b)
Has both liquid and solid properties
c)
Is considered sterile
d)
Resists enzymatic digestion
4.
Normal sputum contains contributions from all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Cellular exfoliations
b)
Nasal secretions
c)
Salivary gland secretions
d)
Renal tubular secretions
e)
Normal oral flora
5.
Tracheobronchial secretions are a mixture of all the following, EXCEPT:
a)
Plasma
b)
Electrolytes
c)
Mucin
d)
Keratin
e)
Water
6.
Sputum is primarily composed of secretions from which parts of the respiratory tract?
a)
Upper respiratory tract only
b)
Lower respiratory tract only
c)
Both upper and lower respiratory tract
d)
Nasopharynx only
7.
Most preferred sputum sample (routine)
a)
First morning sputum
b)
24 hour sputum
c)
Throat swab
d)
Sputum induction
e)
Tracheal aspiration
8.
for non-cooperative patients
a)
First morning sputum
b)
24 hour sputum
c)
Throat swab
d)
Sputum induction
e)
Tracheal aspiration
9.
for debilitated or unconsclous patients
a)
First morning sputum
b)
24 hour sputum
c)
Throat swab
d)
Sputum induction
e)
Tracheal aspiration
10.
Sputum spx preservaiton method
a)
Rerigeration
b)
Freezing
c)
10% formalin
d)
2% acetic acid
e)
Room temperature
11.
Sputum volume in cases of Bronchial asthma, acute bronchitis, early pneumonia, stage of healing
a)
Increased
b)
Decreased
12.
Sputum volume in cases of Bronchiectasis, lung abscess, edema, gangrene, tuberculosis, pulmonary hemorrhage
a)
Increased
b)
Decreased
13.
for pediatric patients
a)
First morning sputum
b)
24 hour sputum
c)
Throat swab
d)
Sputum induction
e)
Tracheal aspiration
14.
for volume measurement
a)
First morning sputum
b)
24 hour sputum
c)
Throat swab
d)
Sputum induction
e)
Tracheal aspiration
15.
Sputum color if it is made up of mucus only
a)
Colorless
b)
White or yellow
c)
Gray
d)
Bright green or greenish
16.
Sputum color in ↑Pus & epithelial cells
a)
Colorless
b)
White or yellow
c)
Gray
d)
Bright green or greenish
17.
Sputum color in ↑Pus (TB, bronchitis, jaundice, pneumonia)
a)
Colorless
b)
White or yellow
c)
Gray
d)
Bright green or greenish
18.
Sputum color ↑Bile; P. aeruginosa infection, lung abscess
a)
Colorless
b)
White or yellow
c)
Gray
d)
Bright green or greenish
19.
Sputum color Fresh blood or hemorrhage, TB, bronchiectasis
a)
Red or bright red
b)
Anchovy sauce or rusty brown
c)
Prune juice
d)
Olive green or grass green
20.
Sputum color in Cancer
a)
Red or bright red
b)
Anchovy sauce or rusty brown
c)
Prune juice
d)
Olive green or grass green
21.
Sputum color Dust or dirt, carbon, charcoal, anthracosis, smoking
a)
Black
b)
Rusty with pus
c)
Rusty without pus
d)
Currant, jelly-like
22.
Sputum color in Klebsiella pneumoniae infection
a)
Black
b)
Rusty with pus
c)
Rusty without pus
d)
Currant, jelly-like
23.
Sputum color Congestive heart failure
a)
Black
b)
Rusty with pus
c)
Rusty without pus
d)
Currant, jelly-like
24.
Sputum color Lobar pneumonia
a)
Black
b)
Rusty with pus
c)
Rusty without pus
d)
Currant, jelly-like
25.
Sputum color Pneumonia, chronic lung cancer
a)
Red or bright red
b)
Anchovy sauce or rusty brown
c)
Prune juice
d)
Olive green or grass green
26.
Sputum color Old blood, pneumonia, gangren
a)
Red or bright red
b)
Anchovy sauce or rusty brown
c)
Prune juice
d)
Olive green or grass green
27.
What is the normal sputum odor?
a)
Odorless
b)
Foul or putrid
c)
Sweetish
d)
Cheesy
e)
Fecal
28.
Sputum odor in lung gangrene, advanced necrotizing tumors
a)
Odorless
b)
Foul or putrid
c)
Sweetish
d)
Cheesy
e)
Fecal
29.
Sputum odor in liver abscess, enteric Gram-negative bacterial infection
a)
Odorless
b)
Foul or putrid
c)
Sweetish
d)
Cheesy
e)
Fecal
30.
Sputum odor in necrosis, tumors, empyem
a)
Odorless
b)
Foul or putrid
c)
Sweetish
d)
Cheesy
e)
Fecal
31.
Sputum odor in bronchiectasis, tuberculosis
a)
Odorless
b)
Foul or putrid
c)
Sweetish
d)
Cheesy
e)
Fecal
32.
Sputum consistency in asthma, bronchitis
a)
Mucoid
b)
Serous or frothy
c)
Mucopurulent
33.
Sputum consistency in lung edema
a)
Mucoid
b)
Serous or frothy
c)
Mucopurulent
34.
Sputum consistency in bronchiectasis, tuberculosis with cavities
a)
Mucoid
b)
Serous or frothy
c)
Mucopurulent
35.
Yellow or gray materlal, size of a pinhead
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
36.
Hard concretions in a bronchus (lung stones)
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
37.
Yellow or white calcified TB structures/foreign materia
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
38.
Branching tree-like casts of the bronchi
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
39.
Bronchial calculi (calcium carbonate & phosphate
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
40.
Asbestos bodies, silica particles
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
41.
Seen in pneumoconiosis
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
42.
Seen in Lobar pneumonia, bronchitis, diphtheria
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
43.
Seen in Bronchitis, bronchiectasis Bronchial asthma
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
44.
Most commonly seen in histoplasmosis, as well as chronic tuberculosis
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
45.
frothy mucus
a)
1st layer (top)
b)
2nd layer (middle)
c)
3rd layer (bottom)
46.
pus, bacteria, tissues
a)
1st layer (top)
b)
2nd layer (middle)
c)
3rd layer (bottom)
47.
opaque, water material
a)
1st layer (top)
b)
2nd layer (middle)
c)
3rd layer (bottom)
48.
Produces foul odor when crushed
a)
Dittrich's plugs
b)
Pneumoliths or Broncholiths
c)
Bronchial casts
d)
Foreign bodies
49.
Slender fibrils with double contour & curled ends
a)
Elastic fibers
b)
Charcoat-Ledyen crystals
c)
Pigmented cells
d)
Curschmann's spirals
50.
Colorless, hexagonal, double pyramid, often needlelike; arise from disintegration of eosinophils
a)
Elastic fibers
b)
Charcoat-Ledyen crystals
c)
Pigmented cells
d)
Curschmann's spirals
51.
Heart failure cells: hemosiderin-laden macrophages Carbon-laden cells: angular black granules
a)
Elastic fibers
b)
Charcoat-Ledyen crystals
c)
Pigmented cells
d)
Curschmann's spirals
52.
Seen in Congestive heart failure and Heavy smokers
a)
Elastic fibers
b)
Charcoat-Ledyen crystals
c)
Pigmented cells
d)
Curschmann's spirals
53.
Coiled mucus strands; also seen macroscopically
a)
Elastic fibers
b)
Charcoat-Ledyen crystals
c)
Pigmented cells
d)
Curschmann's spirals
54.
Seen in bronchial asthma
a)
Elastic fibers
b)
Charcoat-Ledyen crystals
c)
Pigmented cells
d)
Curschmann's spirals
55.
Seen in tuberculosis
a)
Elastic fibers
b)
Charcoat-Ledyen crystals
c)
Pigmented cells
d)
Curschmann's spirals
56.
Colorless globules occurring in a variety of sizes and bizarre forms
a)
Myelin globules
b)
Creola bodies
c)
Parasites
d)
Neoplastic cells, bacteria, fungi, leukocytes
57.
No significance Mistaken as Blastomyces
a)
Myelin globules
b)
Creola bodies
c)
Parasites
d)
Neoplastic cells, bacteria, fungi, leukocytes
58.
Clusters of columnar epithellal cells
a)
Myelin globules
b)
Creola bodies
c)
Parasites
d)
Neoplastic cells, bacteria, fungi, leukocytes
59.
Seen in bronchial asthma
a)
Myelin globules
b)
Creola bodies
c)
Parasites
d)
Neoplastic cells, bacteria, fungi, leukocytes
60.
Migrating larva: Ascaris, Strongyloides, Hookworm (heart-to-lung migration) E. histolytica, E. gingivalis, T. tenax, P. westermani, E. granulosus, T. cani
a)
Myelin globules
b)
Creola bodies
c)
Parasites
d)
Neoplastic cells, bacteria, fungi, leukocytes
61.
Which of the following is an important diagnostic test for Pneumocytis jiroveci (P. carinni)
a)
Sputum
b)
Sweat
c)
Broncheoalveolar lavage
d)
CSF
62.
Most predominant cell seen in bronchoalveolar lavage
a)
Alveolar macrophage
b)
Lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial cells
63.
56 to 80%
a)
Alveolar macrophage
b)
Lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial cells
64.
1 to 15%
a)
Alveolar macrophage
b)
Lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial cells
65.
<3%
a)
Alveolar macrophage
b)
Lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial cells
66.
4 to 17%
a)
Alveolar macrophage
b)
Lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial cells
67.
Hypersensitivity reactions
a)
Alveolar macrophage
b)
Lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial cells
68.
↑ Cigarette smokers, bronchopneumonia, toxin exposure
a)
Alveolar macrophage
b)
Lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial cells
69.
↑Interstitial disease, pulmonary lymphoma, nonbacterial infections
a)
Alveolar macrophage
b)
Lymphocytes
c)
Neutrophils
d)
Eosinophils
e)
Ciliated columnar bronchial epithelial cells
70.
Sweat chloride value diagnostic for CF
a)
70 mEq/L
b)
50 mEq/L
c)
40 mEq/L
d)
20 mEq/L
71.
Sweat sodium value diagnostic for CF
a)
70 mEq/L
b)
50 mEq/L
c)
40 mEq/L
d)
20 mEq/L
72.
Sweat testing is primarily used to diagnose which condition?
a)
Phenylketonuria
b)
Cystic fibrosis
c)
Hartnup syndrome
d)
Lesch-Nyhan disease
73.
Cystic fibrosis is inherited in what pattern?
a)
Autosomal dominant
b)
Autosomal recessive
c)
X-linked dominant
d)
X-linked recessive
74.
Cystic fibrosis primarily affects which glands of the body?
a)
Sebaceous glands
b)
Mucous-secreting glands
c)
Endocrine glands
d)
Lacrimal glands
75.
All of the following are commonly associated with cystic fibrosis, EXCEPT:
a)
Pancreatic insufficiency
b)
Respiratory distress
c)
Intestinal obstruction
d)
Hyperthyroidism
76.
The Gibson and Cooke test induces sweat production using:
a)
Acetylcholine and heat
b)
Pilocarpine and mechanical friction
c)
Pilocarpine and a mild electrical current
d)
Epinephrine and cold exposure
77.
During pilocarpine iontophoresis, what current strength is applied?
a)
0.05 mA
b)
0.10 mA
c)
0.16 mA
d)
0.19 mA
78.
How long is the current applied during sweat induction?
a)
1 minute
b)
5 minutes
c)
10 minutes
d)
3 minutes
79.
Sweat sodium concentration is typically measured using:
a)
Flame photometry or ion-exchange electrode
b)
Osmometry
c)
Nephelometry
d)
Electrophoresis
e)
Manual or automated titration
80.
Sweat chloride concentration is typically measured using:
a)
Flame photometry or ion-exchange electrode
b)
Osmometry
c)
Nephelometry
d)
Electrophoresis
e)
Manual or automated titration
81.
What is the third major body fluid?
a)
Blood
b)
CSF
c)
Urine
d)
Sweat
82.
Hard mother
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
83.
Outer layer
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
84.
Lines the skull & vertebral canal
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
85.
Spiderweb-like
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
86.
Filamentous inner membrane
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
87.
Below arachnoid
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
88.
Portion where CSF flows
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
89.
Innermost layer
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
90.
Lines the surface of brain & spinal cord
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
91.
Gentle mother
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Subarachnoid space
d)
Pia mater
92.
produces CSF by selective filtration (at a rate of 20 mL/hour)
a)
Choroid plexus
b)
Arachinoid villi
c)
Blood brain barrier
93.
reabsorbs CSF
a)
Choroid plexus
b)
Arachinoid villi
c)
Blood brain barrier
94.
Protects brain from chemicals & other substances circulating in the blood that can harm the brain tissue
a)
Choroid plexus
b)
Arachinoid villi
c)
Blood brain barrier
95.
What is the normal CSF pressure that allows safe collection of up to 20 mL of CSF?
a)
10–50 mmHg
b)
50–180 mmHg
c)
180–250 mmHg
d)
250–300 mmHg
96.
If CSF pressure is abnormally high or low, how much CSF should be collected?
a)
5 to 10 mL
b)
1 to 2 mL
c)
3 to 5 mL
d)
No CSF should be collected
97.
The standard method for CSF collection is:
a)
Thoracentesis
b)
Paracentesis
c)
Lumbar puncture
d)
Venipuncture
98.
In adults, the lumbar puncture needle is typically inserted between which vertebrae?
a)
L1–L2
b)
L2–L3
c)
L3–L4
d)
L4–L5
99.
In infants, the lumbar puncture needle is typically inserted between which vertebrae?
a)
L1–L2
b)
L2–L3
c)
L3–L4
d)
L4–L5
100.
CSF tube for chemistry/serology
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
101.
CSF tube for hematology
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
102.
CSF tube for microbiology or serology
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
103.
Stored at freezing temperature
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
104.
Stored at RT for 30 mins (CM books) | 35-37°C (Microbiology books)
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
105.
Stored at Refrigeration temperature (up to 4 hours) | RT° (within 1 hour)
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
106.
least affected by blood or bacteria introduced by spinal tap
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
107.
usually designated for microbiology
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
108.
least likely contain cells introduced by the spinal tap
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
109.
better exclusion of skin contamination or for additional tests
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
110.
If 1 CSF tube only
a)
Hema > Micro > Chem/Sero
b)
Chem/Sero > Hema > Micro
c)
Micro > Hema > Chem/Sero
d)
Hema > Chem/Sero > Micro
e)
Micro > Chem/Sero > Hema
111.
CSF tube for microbiology
a)
Tube 1
b)
Tube 2
c)
Tube 3
d)
Tube 4
112.
CSF total volume in adults
a)
15 to 35 mg/dL
b)
15 to 45 mg/dL
c)
90 to 150 mL
d)
90 to 150 um
e)
10 to 60 mL
113.
CSF total volume in neonates
a)
15 to 35 mg/dL
b)
15 to 45 mg/dL
c)
90 to 150 mL
d)
90 to 150 um
e)
10 to 60 mL
114.
Normal CSF appearance
a)
Crystal clear
b)
Hazy / Turbid / Milky / Coudy
c)
Xanthochromic (Pink / Yellow / Orange)
d)
Bloody
115.
↑WBCs (>200/uL), RBCs (>400/uL), lipids & protein, microorganisms
a)
Crystal clear
b)
Hazy / Turbid / Milky / Coudy
c)
Xanthochromic (Pink / Yellow / Orange)
d)
Bloody
116.
Due to hemoglobin degradation products (most common)
a)
Crystal clear
b)
Hazy / Turbid / Milky / Coudy
c)
Xanthochromic (Pink / Yellow / Orange)
d)
Bloody
117.
↑RBCs (>6,000/uL)
a)
Crystal clear
b)
Hazy / Turbid / Milky / Coudy
c)
Xanthochromic (Pink / Yellow / Orange)
d)
Bloody
118.
Slight amount of oxyhemoglobin
a)
Pink
b)
Yellow
c)
Orange
d)
Traumatic tap
e)
Intracranial hemorrhage
119.
Oxyhemoglobin ---> Bilirubin
a)
Pink
b)
Yellow
c)
Orange
d)
Traumatic tap
e)
Intracranial hemorrhage
120.
puncture of blood vessel
a)
Pink
b)
Yellow
c)
Orange
d)
Traumatic tap
e)
Intracranial hemorrhage
121.
bleeding within the braincase
a)
Pink
b)
Yellow
c)
Orange
d)
Traumatic tap
e)
Intracranial hemorrhage
122.
Heavy hemolysis
a)
Pink
b)
Yellow
c)
Orange
d)
Traumatic tap
e)
Intracranial hemorrhage
123.
Radiographic contrast media
a)
Oily
b)
Clotted
c)
Pellicle
124.
Protein & clotting factors; meningitis, Froin syndrome, blockage of CSF circulation
a)
Oily
b)
Clotted
c)
Pellicle
125.
Tuberular meningitis
a)
Oily
b)
Clotted
c)
Pellicle
126.
Distribution of blood on 3 tubes: Uneven (1 >2>3)
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
127.
Clot formation : Positive due to plasma fibrinogen
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
128.
Distribution of blood on 3 tubes: Even (1 = 2=3)
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
129.
Clot formation : Negative
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
130.
Supernatant is xanthochromic
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
131.
Erythrophages is present (+) Hematoidin and hemosiderin
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
132.
D-dimer positive
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
133.
D-dimer negative
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
134.
Erythrophages is absent
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
135.
Supernatant is clear
a)
Traumatic tap
b)
Intracranial hemorrhage
136.
2>1>3>4>5
a)
Normal Serum LDH pattern
b)
Flipped Serum LDH pattern
c)
Normal CSF LDH pattern
d)
Neurological abnormalities involvement in LDH CSF pattern
e)
Bacterial meningitis LDH CSF pattern
137.
1>2>3>4>5
a)
Normal Serum LDH pattern
b)
Flipped Serum LDH pattern
c)
Normal CSF LDH pattern
d)
Neurological abnormalities involvement in LDH CSF pattern
e)
Bacterial meningitis LDH CSF pattern
138.
2>1
a)
Normal Serum LDH pattern
b)
Flipped Serum LDH pattern
c)
Normal CSF LDH pattern
d)
Neurological abnormalities involvement in LDH CSF pattern
e)
Bacterial meningitis LDH CSF pattern
139.
5>4>3>2>1
a)
Normal Serum LDH pattern
b)
Flipped Serum LDH pattern
c)
Normal CSF LDH pattern
d)
Neurological abnormalities involvement in LDH CSF pattern
e)
Bacterial meningitis LDH CSF pattern
140.
Increased in stroke, MS, degenerative disorders, brain tumors, viral and bacterial meningitis, seizures
a)
CK
b)
AST
c)
LDH
141.
Increased in intracerebral and subarachnoid hemorrhage, bacterial meningitis
a)
CK
b)
AST
c)
LDH
142.
for detection of bacterial antigens
a)
Latext agglutination test and ELISA
b)
VDRL
c)
PCR
143.
recommended by CDC for the detection of neurosyphilis
a)
Latext agglutination test and ELISA
b)
VDRL
c)
PCR
144.
1>2
a)
Normal Serum LDH pattern
b)
Flipped Serum LDH pattern
c)
Normal CSF LDH pattern
d)
Neurological abnormalities involvement in LDH CSF pattern
e)
Bacterial meningitis LDH CSF pattern
145.
What is the prevalent WBC in bacterial meningitis?
a)
neutrophils
b)
lymphocytes
c)
lymphocytes and monocytes
146.
What is the prevalent WBC in tubercular meningitis?
a)
neutrophils
b)
lymphocytes
c)
lymphocytes and monocytes
147.
What is the prevalent WBC in fungal meningitis?
a)
neutrophils
b)
lymphocytes
c)
lymphocytes and monocytes
148.
Markedly increased protein, markedly decreased glucose, increased lactate
a)
Bacterial meningitis
b)
Viral meningitis
c)
Tubercular meningitis
d)
Fungal meningitis
149.
Increased protein, NORMAL glucose and lactate
a)
Bacterial meningitis
b)
Viral meningitis
c)
Tubercular meningitis
d)
Fungal meningitis
150.
Moderately increased protein, decreased glucose, increased lactate
a)
Bacterial meningitis
b)
Viral meningitis
c)
Tubercular meningitis
d)
Fungal meningitis
151.
(+) Pellicle or weblike clot formation after 12 to 24 hours refrigeration
a)
Bacterial meningitis
b)
Viral meningitis
c)
Tubercular meningitis
d)
Fungal meningitis
152.
Detected via india ink stain; shows classic starburst pattern and positive latex agglutination test; caused by C. neoformans
a)
Bacterial meningitis
b)
Viral meningitis
c)
Tubercular meningitis
d)
Fungal meningitis
153.
Moderately increased protein, normal to decreased glucose, increased lactate
a)
Bacterial meningitis
b)
Viral meningitis
c)
Tubercular meningitis
d)
Fungal meningitis
154.
Limulus amoebocyte lysate test detects _ in body fluids and surgical instrument
a)
Gram negative exotoxin
b)
Gram negative endotoxin
155.
+ LAL test
a)
Clumping
b)
Hemolysis
c)
Flocculation
d)
Precipitation
156.
blood rgt LAL
a)
horse crab
b)
horseshoe crab
c)
horse
d)
sheep
157.
What is the prevalent WBC in viral meningitis?
a)
neutrophils
b)
lymphocytes
c)
lymphocytes and monocytes