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Vitamins Overview & Classifications

Total questions: 46

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Recall: Which statement best defines vitamins based on the overview?

a)

Inorganic compounds required in large amounts for energy production

b)

Organic substances needed in small amounts to promote growth and maintain health

c)

Macronutrients synthesized by human cells for structural support

d)

Hormones that can be stored indefinitely without dietary intake

2.

Recall: According to the overview, what is the primary source by which humans obtain most vitamins?

a)

Endogenous synthesis by human cells

b)

Sunlight exposure for all vitamins

c)

Dietary intake of foods and beverages

d)

Conversion from carbohydrates during digestion

3.

Skill/Concept: Which consequence most directly results from sustained vitamin deficiency as noted in the material?

a)

Enhanced metabolic rate

b)

Disease development

c)

Temporary dehydration

d)

Permanent immunity

4.

Recall: Which vitamin is an exception to the statement that human cells cannot produce vitamins?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin K

5.

Skill/Concept: Choose the property that distinguishes water-soluble vitamins from fat-soluble vitamins in terms of body handling.

a)

They are stored extensively in liver and adipose tissue

b)

They require fat for absorption and are retained long-term

c)

They are absorbed with water, not stored, and excess is excreted in urine

d)

They are synthesized by the GI tract and accumulate in muscle

6.

Recall: Which list correctly represents the fat-soluble vitamins?

a)

B complex and C

b)

K, A, D, E (KADE)

c)

A, C, E, B12

d)

D, C, K, B6

7.

Strategic Thinking: A patient avoids dietary fat but takes high doses of vitamins A and D. Based on absorption characteristics, what risk or outcome is most likely?

a)

Reduced absorption of A and D due to lack of fat, despite high intake

b)

Immediate urinary excretion of A and D because they are water-soluble

c)

No effect, because fat-soluble vitamins do not require fat for absorption

d)

Enhanced absorption and rapid storage of A and D in muscle tissue

8.

Strategic Thinking: Compare long-term risks of excess intake. Which statement aligns with the classification properties provided?

a)

Excess water-soluble vitamins accumulate in adipose tissue, increasing toxicity risk

b)

Fat-soluble vitamins pose toxicity risk when taken in excess because they are stored

c)

Both classes are excreted rapidly, so toxicity is unlikely

d)

Water-soluble vitamins must be consumed daily due to storage in the liver

9.

Which statement best describes minerals as presented: they are inorganic nutrients needed in small amounts and make up approximately 4% of body weight.

a)

Organic compounds required in large amounts; ~40% of body weight

b)

Inorganic substances needed in small amounts; ~4% of body weight

c)

Organic vitamins synthesized endogenously; ~0.4% of body weight

d)

Inorganic substances required only during growth; ~14% of body weight

10.

According to the notes, which is a correct distinction between macrominerals and microminerals?

a)

Macrominerals are trace elements; microminerals are needed in gram quantities

b)

Macrominerals are major minerals; microminerals are trace minerals

c)

Macrominerals are vitamins; microminerals are coenzymes

d)

Macrominerals are synthesized by the body; microminerals must be obtained from supplements

11.

Which source is identified for obtaining minerals under normal conditions?

a)

Endogenous synthesis via sunlight

b)

Parenteral nutrition only

c)

Normal diet intake

d)

Exclusive supplementation during illness

12.

Which factor is listed as a potential cause of mineral deficiency in the notes?

a)

Excessive exercise alone

b)

High-protein diets

c)

Gastrointestinal issues

d)

High altitude residence

13.

Identify the correct pairing for a Vitamin D form and its primary source as stated: D2 (ergocalciferol) is from fortified foods and plants; D3 (cholecalciferol) is from skin synthesis via sunlight and animal products.

a)

D2—from animal products; D3—from plants

b)

D2—from fortified foods and plants; D3—from skin synthesis via sunlight and animal products

c)

D2—from endogenous synthesis; D3—from fortified breakfast cereals only

d)

D2—from fish oils exclusively; D3—from mushrooms

14.

Which condition is specifically listed as treated with Vitamin D in the notes?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Scurvy

d)

Pernicious anemia

15.

A patient presents with bone pain, kidney stones, fatigue, weight loss, and dysrhythmias after taking very high doses of a fat-soluble vitamin. Based on the notes, which vitamin is most likely involved?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin B12

16.

Which statement aligns with the toxicity consideration for minerals mentioned?

a)

Mineral excess is harmless due to renal excretion

b)

Excess mineral intake can be toxic

c)

Mineral toxicity occurs only with genetic disorders

d)

Minerals are non-toxic because they are inorganic

17.

Which statement best identifies a form of Vitamin K and its source?

a)

K1 synthesized exclusively by gut flora

b)

K2 primarily found in green leafy vegetables and dairy

c)

K1 present in green leafy vegetables, tomatoes, cheese, egg yolk, and liver

d)

K2 abundant in citrus fruits like oranges and lemons

18.

Vitamin K is physiologically required for which primary process?

a)

Collagen cross-linking in connective tissue

b)

Blood clotting factor synthesis

c)

Thyroid hormone production

d)

Neurotransmitter synthesis in the CNS

19.

Given that body stores of Vitamin K are small, deficiency can develop over what typical timeframe?

a)

Within 1–2 days

b)

Within 1–2 weeks

c)

Within 1–2 months

d)

Within 6–12 months

20.

A clinician aims to prevent bleeding in newborns immediately postpartum. Which intervention aligns with the noted use?

a)

Administer Vitamin B12 intranasally

b)

Administer Vitamin K to the newborn

c)

Provide high-dose vitamin C to the mother

d)

Delay prophylaxis until 6 weeks

21.

Which safety warning is associated with Vitamin K administration?

a)

Oral route causes severe hypoglycemia; IV preferred

b)

IV route may cause dyspnea, hypotension, shock, and cardiac arrest; IM preferred

c)

Intranasal route increases intracranial pressure; SQ preferred

d)

IM route causes anaphylaxis; IV preferred

22.

Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) belongs to which therapeutic class?

a)

Antihypertensive drug

b)

Drug for anemias

c)

Anticoagulant

d)

Antidiabetic agent

23.

Which statement best describes the mechanism and indications of Vitamin B12 listed?

a)

Enhances platelet aggregation to treat thrombocytopenia

b)

Treats B12 deficiency and megaloblastic anemia

c)

Inhibits folate recycling to manage hemolytic anemia

d)

Stimulates erythropoietin to correct iron-deficiency anemia

24.

Which administration guidance for Vitamin B12 is correct?

a)

Only intravenous administration is recommended to avoid first-pass metabolism

b)

PO, IM, SQ, and intranasal routes are acceptable; avoid mixing with fruit juice due to ascorbic acid reducing stability

c)

Topical patches are preferred to improve absorption; mix with orange juice to enhance stability

d)

PO route is contraindicated; only intranasal delivery is stable in acidic beverages

25.

Which therapeutic class best describes iron (ferrous sulfate) as used in clinical practice?

a)

Antianemia drug

b)

Anticoagulant

c)

Antipyretic

d)

Antihypertensive

26.

What is the primary mechanism of action of iron (ferrous sulfate) in treating patients?

a)

Prevents or reverses iron-deficiency anemia

b)

Stimulates erythropoietin production

c)

Enhances folate metabolism

d)

Blocks heme breakdown

27.

A patient is prescribed oral ferrous sulfate. Which administration instruction is most appropriate?

a)

Do not crush; avoid taking within 1 hour of bedtime

b)

Crush tablets for faster absorption; take at bedtime

c)

Take only with antacids; administer 3 hours after meals

d)

Chew tablets and take with dairy products to reduce GI upset

28.

Which injection technique should be used for intramuscular administration of iron?

a)

Z-track technique

b)

Standard subcutaneous technique

c)

Intravenous push without dilution

d)

Air-lock technique

29.

Which adverse effect profile is most consistent with iron therapy?

a)

Gastrointestinal upset with constipation and dark stools

b)

Severe hypoglycemia and pale stools

c)

Bronchospasm with wheezing and clay-colored stools

d)

Urticaria with light-colored urine

30.

Which timing strategy optimizes iron absorption while minimizing interactions?

a)

Take 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals; avoid antacids, PPIs, and calcium

b)

Take immediately after a large meal; combine with calcium for absorption

c)

Take only with milk; schedule doses right before bedtime

d)

Take with antacids to protect the stomach; no meal timing needed

31.

What is the recommended treatment for iron overdose?

a)

Deferoxamine

b)

Naloxone

c)

Flumazenil

d)

Protamine sulfate

32.

Which factor increases absorption of oral iron?

a)

Vitamin C co-administration

b)

Concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors

c)

Taking with calcium-rich foods

d)

Using antacids before dosing

33.

Which patient positioning strategy is specifically recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feeding?

a)

Supine with the head flat to maintain airway patency

b)

Trendelenburg position to enhance gastric emptying

c)

Head of bed elevated to at least 30 degrees to minimize reflux

d)

Prone position to improve diaphragmatic excursion

34.

A patient receiving enteral nutrition begins coughing and shows signs of possible aspiration. What is the most appropriate immediate action regarding positioning based on standard aspiration prevention guidance?

a)

Lower the head of bed to reduce airway irritation

b)

Raise the head of bed to at least 30 degrees to decrease aspiration risk

c)

Turn the patient to the prone position to clear secretions

d)

Place the patient in Trendelenburg to facilitate drainage

35.

In routine enteral feeding care, what is the minimum head-of-bed elevation threshold commonly used to help prevent aspiration?

a)

10 degrees

b)

20 degrees

c)

30 degrees

d)

45 degrees

36.

Human body systems work together to break down food into nutrients, absorb nutrients, and transport those nutrients through out the body. This process is called...

(a)  

37.
Chicken, fish and meat contain which nutrient?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Fats
d)
Minerals
38.
WHAT ARE THE 6 NUTRIENTS?
a)
Carbs, Meats, Fibers, Water, Protein, and Dairy
b)
Fruits, Milk, Fibers, Water, Pork, and Vitamins
c)
Carbs, Fats, Minerals, Water, Proteins, and Vitamins
d)
Carbs, Fats, Fibers, Cheese, Protein, and Vegtables
39.
Organic compounds that control several body functions. e.g. A, C, K
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Metabolism
c)
Vitamins
d)
Digestion
40.
Which nutrient gives you energy?
a)
calcium
b)
fiber
c)
carbohydrates
41.
A substance such as a fat, a protein, or a carbohydrate that a living thing needs to survive.
a)
saliva
b)
carrots
c)
nutrients
d)
minerals
42.
WHAT ARE THE 6 NUTRIENTS?
a)
Carbs, Meats, Fibers, Water, Protein, and Dairy
b)
Fruits, Milk, Fibers, Water, Pork, and Vitamins
c)
Carbs, Fats, Fibers, Water, Protein, and Vitamins
d)
Carbs, Fats, Fibers, Cheese, Protein, and Vegtables
43.

A diet lacking in ___________ leads to the development of a disease known as scurvy.

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin D

44.

Which do you want the most of in your diet?

a)

Protein

b)

Sugar

c)

Trans Fat

d)

Saturated Fat

45.

Substances in food that provide nourishment essential for growth and the maintenance of life are called nutrients. What are the 6 nutrients?

a)

Carbohydrates, Meats, Minerals, Water, Protein, and Dairy

b)

Fruits, Milk, Vitamins, Water, Pork, and Vitamins

c)

Carbohydrates, Fats, Water, Protein, Minerals and Vitamins

d)

Carbohydrates, Fats, Minerals, Cheese, Protein, and Vegetables

46.

Eggs are rich source of

a)

Vitamin

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Water