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Weather Systems & Scales – Worksheet Extraction

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define an air mass.

a)

A large body of air with relatively uniform temperature and moisture at a given altitude

b)

A small bubble of warm air that rises briefly then cools

2.

What scale are air masses?

a)

Microscale ( <2<2 km)

b)

Mesoscale ( 22 – 20002000 km)

3.

Define synoptic scale.

a)

>2000>2000 km, lasts days to weeks; examples: highs, lows, jet stream, Hadley Cell

b)

22 – 20002000 km, lasts hours to days; examples: thunderstorms, sea breeze

4.

What does “m” mean in air mass classification?

a)

Maritime (moist)

b)

Mountain (cool)

5.

Select the characteristics used to locate a front.

a)

Pressure trough

b)

Temperature contrast

c)

Dewpoint contrast

6.

Which vertical temperature profile produces snow?

a)

Entire atmospheric column below 0°C

b)

Shallow refreezing layer only near the surface

c)

Large warm layer aloft with a very shallow cold layer at the ground

d)

Deep warm layer near the surface with shallow cold air aloft

7.

Which vertical temperature profile produces sleet?

a)

Entire column below freezing

b)

Shallow refreezing layer at the surface

c)

Large warm layer aloft with a very shallow cold layer at the ground

d)

Deep warm layer at the surface with no cold air aloft

8.

Which vertical temperature profile produces freezing rain?

a)

Entire column below freezing

b)

Large warm layer aloft with a very shallow cold layer at the ground

c)

Shallow refreezing layer at the surface with no warm air aloft

d)

Cold air aloft with a deep warm layer at the ground

9.

What is graupel?

a)

Snowflakes coated in rime ice

b)

Clear ice formed by supercooled drizzle

c)

Small, clear ice pellets

d)

Needle-like ice crystals forming by deposition

10.

Where does most winter storm precipitation occur?

a)

Ahead of the warm front

b)

Behind the cold front

c)

Northwest of the low center

d)

Directly beneath the jet streak entrance region only

11.

Where does the heaviest snow occur during a winter storm?

a)

Northwest of the low center

b)

Ahead of the warm front

c)

Directly under the surface low

d)

South of the cold front

12.

Which ingredients are required for a major winter storm? Select all that apply.

a)

Meridional jet stream

b)

Deep trough of cold air aloft

c)

Strong temperature contrasts

d)

Zonal jet stream with weak baroclinicity

13.

According to the NWS, which conditions must all occur for a blizzard? Select all that apply.

a)

Sustained winds or frequent gusts ≥ 35 mph

b)

Visibility ≤ 1/4 mile due to snow

c)

Duration ≥ 3 hours

d)

Measurable new snowfall accumulation is required

14.

Which set best represents the ingredients for a blizzard?

a)

Wind, snow, reduced visibility

b)

Warm temperatures, drizzle, clear skies

c)

Calm winds, heavy sleet, rising temperatures

d)

Fog, freezing rain, strong sunshine

15.

Which description best fits an Alberta Clipper storm track?

a)

Fast and small with 2–4 inches of snow; colder and windy after

b)

Slow-moving with widespread heavy rain; warmer after

c)

Stationary boundary producing prolonged icing

d)

Moist Gulf inflow causing 1–3 feet of snow

16.

Which description best fits a Colorado Low storm track for Indiana when the track is far enough south?

a)

Often produces big snow

b)

Usually only flurries and clearing skies

c)

Produces only lake-effect snow

d)

Brings severe thunderstorms but no winter precipitation

17.

A Gulf/Atlantic Low is typically associated with which event?

a)

A Nor’easter with 1–3 feet of snow possible

b)

A weak clipper with light flurries

c)

A dryline and dust storm

d)

A tropical depression with heavy rain but no snow

18.

Which air mass is needed for lake-effect snow (LES)?

a)

cA or cP

b)

mT

c)

mP only

d)

cT

19.

What lake–850 mb temperature difference is required for LES?

a)

Lake surface minus 850 mb ≥ 13°C (ideal ≥ 17°C)

b)

Lake surface minus 850 mb ≥ 5°C

c)

Lake surface minus 700 mb ≥ 10°C

d)

Lake surface minus 925 mb ≥ 8°C

20.

Why does Lake Erie freeze first among the Great Lakes?

a)

It is the shallowest lake

b)

It is the northernmost lake

c)

It is the saltiest lake

d)

It receives the least wind

21.

What is fetch in the context of lake-effect snow?

a)

The length of the air path over the lake; longer fetch yields more snow

b)

The vertical depth of the cloud layer over the lake

c)

The distance from shore to the lake bottom

d)

The time between successive snow squalls

22.

Which factors increase lake-effect snow (LES) amounts? Select all that apply.

a)

Long fetch

b)

Upstream elevation

c)

High inversion (deep cloud layer)

d)

Strong wind shear

23.

What factor decreases lake-effect snow (LES)?

a)

Too much wind shear

b)

Long fetch

c)

High inversion (deep cloud layer)

d)

Upstream elevation

24.

Which statement defines wind chill?

a)

The apparent temperature caused by wind removing heat from skin

b)

The measured air temperature in shade

c)

Cooling only due to evaporation with no wind effect

d)

The temperature recorded at the ground surface only

25.

At what wind chill value does frostbite risk become significant?

a)

Below −20°F

b)

Below 0°F

c)

Below −5°F

d)

Below −40°F only

26.

Which statement defines hypothermia?

a)

Body temperature below 95°F (35°C)

b)

Skin temperature below 32°F (0°C)

c)

Wind chill below −20°F

d)

Core temperature above 102°F

27.

Which trio lists common winter driving mistakes?

a)

Overpowering, overbraking, oversteering

b)

Speeding, tailgating, honking

c)

Understeering, coasting, signaling late

d)

Overheating, underinflating tires, idling

28.

Which are lifting mechanisms in the atmosphere? Select all that apply.

a)

Orographic

b)

Frontal

c)

Convergence

d)

Buoyancy (thermals)

e)

Subsidence

29.

Which statement defines an adiabatic process?

a)

Temperature changes without heat exchange with the environment

b)

Temperature remains constant regardless of pressure changes

c)

Heat is exchanged freely with the environment

d)

Moisture content stays constant while heat is added

30.

What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR)?

a)

10°C per km (1°C per 100 m)

b)

6°C per km (0.6°C per 100 m)

c)

7°C per km (0.7°C per 100 m)

d)

12°C per km (1.2°C per 100 m)

31.

What is the moist adiabatic lapse rate (MALR)?

a)

6°C per km (0.6°C per 100 m)

b)

10°C per km (1°C per 100 m)

c)

7°C per km (0.7°C per 100 m)

d)

4°C per km (0.4°C per 100 m)

32.

What is the usual environmental lapse rate (ELR)?

a)

7°C per km (about 0.7°C per 100 m)

b)

10°C per km

c)

6°C per km

d)

3°C per km

33.

Relative to the environment, a stable air parcel is:

a)

Colder

b)

Warmer

c)

The same temperature

d)

Always saturated

34.

Relative to the environment, an unstable air parcel is:

a)

Warmer

b)

Colder

c)

The same temperature

d)

Always unsaturated

35.

Which statement defines a temperature inversion?

a)

Temperature increases with height; strongly stable

b)

Temperature decreases with height; strongly unstable

c)

Temperature is constant with height; neutral stability

d)

Temperature alternates rapidly with height; conditional stability

36.

Which clouds are typically associated with stable air?

a)

Stratus and fog

b)

Cumulus and cumulonimbus

c)

Altocumulus castellanus

d)

Towering cumulus only

37.

Which clouds are typically associated with unstable air?

a)

Cumulus and cumulonimbus

b)

Stratus and fog

c)

Nimbostratus and stratus only

d)

Cirrus and cirrostratus

38.

For dry air, which equation gives the final temperature of a parcel after rising or sinking a given distance?

a)

T_final = T_initial − (DALR × distance)

b)

T_final = T_initial + (MALR × distance)

c)

T_final = DALR ÷ distance

d)

T_final = T_initial − (ELR × distance)

39.

What is the formula for lifting condensation level (LCL) height in meters?

a)

(T − Td) × 125

b)

(T + Td) × 125

c)

(Td − T) × 100

d)

(T − Td) ÷ 125

40.

On 500 mb maps, where is the best place for cyclone formation?

a)

Downstream of a trough

b)

Upstream of a trough

c)

Downstream of a ridge

d)

Directly beneath a ridge axis

41.

On 500 mb maps, where is the worst place for cyclone formation?

a)

Downstream of a ridge

b)

Downstream of a trough

c)

Upstream of a shortwave

d)

At a jet streak exit region

42.

In a winter storm, where does most precipitation fall?

a)

Ahead of the warm front

b)

Northwest of the low center

c)

Behind the cold front

d)

Along the occluded front only

43.

Where is the heaviest snow in a winter storm?

a)

Northwest of the low center

b)

Ahead of the warm front

c)

At the surface low center

d)

Southeast of the cold front

44.

Ingredient NOT associated with major storms?

a)

Strong upper-level jet streak

b)

Large moisture supply

c)

Strong temperature gradient

d)

Alberta Clipper track

45.

What defines an air mass?

a)

Small patches of differing temp

b)

Large body of air with uniform temp/moisture

c)

A short-lived weather event

d)

A low-pressure center

46.

Which scale is >2000 km and lasts days to weeks?

a)

Synoptic

b)

Mesoscale

c)

Microscale

d)

Mid-scale

47.

Thunderstorms occur on which scale?

a)

Synoptic

b)

Mesoscale

c)

Microscale

d)

Global

48.

A microburst is what scale?

a)

Synoptic

b)

Mesoscale

c)

Microscale

d)

Planetary

49.

What type of air mass is warm & moist?

a)

cP

b)

cT

c)

mP

d)

mT

50.

What is the correct source region for cA?

a)

Gulf of Mexico

b)

Canadian Arctic

c)

Pacific Ocean

d)

Desert Southwest

51.

Air masses form best over:

a)

Mountains

b)

Uniform surfaces

c)

Cities

d)

Jet streams

52.

Which is the BEST indicator of a front?

a)

Wind speed increase

b)

Visibility change

c)

Temperature contrast

d)

Change in cloud height

53.

A front usually has which feature?

a)

Pressure trough

b)

High pressure center

c)

Warm sector

d)

Upper ridge

54.

Which is NOT reliable for locating a front?

a)

Wind SHIFT

b)

Wind SPEED

c)

Dew-point contrast

d)

Temperature contrast

55.

Which front moves fastest (20–30 mph)?

a)

Warm

b)

Stationary

c)

Cold

d)

Occluded

56.

Which front has the GENTLEST slope?

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Occluded

d)

Stationary

57.

Which front often brings long duration precipitation?

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

58.

"Cold front catches warm front" defines which front?

a)

Cold

b)

Warm

c)

Occluded

d)

Stationary

59.

A dryline separates:

a)

cP & mP

b)

cT & mT

c)

cP & mT

d)

mP & mT

60.

A lake-breeze front forms because:

a)

Water heats faster

b)

Land heats faster

c)

Winds weaken

d)

High pressure forms offshore

61.

Gust fronts form from:

a)

Warm air rising ahead of fronts

b)

Cold downdrafts from thunderstorms

c)

Sea breeze interaction

d)

Synoptic pressure gradients

62.

Stage 1 of cyclogenesis begins with:

a)

Occlusion

b)

Wave-like kink on stationary front

c)

Warm sector expansion

d)

Dry slot formation

63.

What is overrunning?

a)

Cold air rising over warm

b)

Warm air sliding over cold

c)

Air descending behind a low

d)

Air converging at surface

64.

Warm conveyor belt brings:

a)

Dry air

b)

Cold air

c)

Warm moist air

d)

Air aloft only

65.

Cold conveyor belt is responsible for:

a)

Heaviest snow NW of low

b)

Warm sector precipitation

c)

Ice storms

d)

Occlusion

66.

Dry conveyor belt brings:

a)

Warm humid air

b)

Dry cold air behind cold front

c)

Lake-effect moisture

67.

Vorticity is:

a)

Vertical temperature change

b)

Spin around local vertical

c)

Cloud rotation

d)

Surface convergence

68.

Where is vorticity highest?

a)

Ridge

b)

Trough

c)

Warm sector

d)

Occlusion

69.

Decreasing vorticity aloft causes:

a)

Convergence aloft

b)

Divergence aloft

c)

Subsidence

d)

No airflow

70.

Best place for cyclone development is:

a)

Upstream of trough

b)

Downstream of trough

c)

Under a ridge

d)

In a col region

71.

Warm layer aloft > 4 ∘C4\,^{\circ}\mathrm{C} and surface below freezing causes:

a)

Snow

b)

Sleet

c)

Freezing rain

d)

Graupel

72.

Deep warm layer aloft + shallow cold layer at surface:

a)

Rain

b)

Sleet

c)

Freezing rain

d)

Snow

73.

Cold layer deep enough to refreeze droplets:

a)

Freezing rain

b)

Sleet

c)

Graupel

d)

Snow

74.

No melting layer present:

a)

Sleet

b)

Snow

c)

Freezing rain

d)

Rain

75.

Which is part of the NWS blizzard definition?

a)

snow/hr

b)

Winds ≥35\ge 35 mph

c)

Snowfall

d)

Temperature <10∘F< 10^{\circ}\mathrm{F}

76.

Visibility threshold for a blizzard:

a)

1 mile

b)

12\tfrac{1}{2} mile

c)

14\tfrac{1}{4} mile

d)

3 miles

77.

Duration required for a blizzard:

a)

30 minutes

b)

1 hour

c)

2 hours

d)

3 hours

78.

Alberta Clipper characteristics:

a)

Slow with heavy snow

b)

Fast and light snow

c)

Produces ice storms

d)

Produces thunderstorms

79.

Colorado Low can produce:

a)

Heavy Indiana snow

b)

Weak snow showers only

c)

Only rain

d)

Severe thunderstorms only

80.

A Nor’easter forms along:

a)

Gulf of Mexico

b)

Rockies

c)

East Coast

d)

Appalachians

81.

Main driver of LES:

a)

Warm cT air

b)

Cold cP/cA air moving over warm lake

c)

Jet streaks

d)

Occluded fronts

82.

Required temperature difference (lake – 850 mb):

a)

5∘C5^{\circ}\mathrm{C}

b)

10∘C10^{\circ}\mathrm{C}

c)

13∘C13^{\circ}\mathrm{C}

d)

3∘C3^{\circ}\mathrm{C}

83.

Fetch refers to:

a)

Depth of snow

b)

Distance of air over water

c)

Wave height

d)

Air temperature

84.

More LES occurs when inversion height is:

a)

Low

b)

High

c)

Absent

d)

Below 100 m

85.

A stable parcel is:

a)

Warmer than environment

b)

Colder than environment

c)

Same temp as environment

d)

Expanding faster

86.

Air parcels cool as they rise because:

a)

Radiation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Work done expanding

d)

Frontal lifting

87.

MALR applies when air is:

a)

Dry

b)

Moist & saturated

c)

Freezing

d)

Below surface

88.

MALR value:

a)

1.0°C/100m

b)

0.6°C/100m

c)

0.7°C/100m

d)

2.0°C/100m

89.

Orographic lifting occurs when:

a)

Air converges

b)

Air is forced over mountains

c)

Air is warmed from below

d)

Air meets cold front

90.

Frontal lifting occurs because:

a)

Warm air sinks

b)

Cold air rises

c)

Warm air rises over dense cold

d)

Lakes create pressure gradients

91.

Convergence lifting occurs near:

a)

High pressure

b)

Low pressure

c)

Ridge

d)

Stable soundings

92.

Buoyant lifting occurs when:

a)

Air is colder than environment

b)

Air is warmer than environment

c)

Air is saturated

d)

Air hits mountains

93.

LCL approximates:

a)

Height of warm layer

b)

Cloud base height

c)

Surface pressure

d)

Tropopause height

94.

A rising parcel cools at the MALR only when:

a)

Unsaturated

b)

Cloudy

c)

Saturated

d)

Below freezing

95.

Stable air produces:

a)

Cumulonimbus

b)

Towering cumulus

c)

Stratus

d)

Strong updrafts

96.

Unstable air produces:

a)

Flat stratus

b)

Thick cumulus

c)

Fog

d)

Cirrus only

97.

An inversion is:

a)

Temp decreases with height

b)

Normal lapse rate

c)

Temp increases with height

d)

No temperature change

98.

Inversions are associated with:

a)

Instability

b)

Dry lines

c)

Stability

d)

Convection

99.

Best position for surface low relative to 500 mb trough:

a)

Directly under trough

b)

Upstream of trough

c)

Downstream of trough

d)

Under ridge

100.

Most winter storm precipitation occurs:

a)

Ahead of cold front

b)

Ahead of warm front

c)

Warm sector

d)

Behind occlusion

101.

Heaviest snow occurs:

a)

Ahead of warm front

b)

SE of low

c)

NW of low

d)

Under warm sector

102.

Main ingredients for a major winter storm include all EXCEPT:

a)

Meridional flow

b)

Deep trough

c)

Strong temp contrast

d)

High inversion height

103.

What does “baroclinic zone wrapping around low” indicate?

a)

Cyclone formation

b)

Occlusion

c)

Ridge building

d)

Dry slot intrusions

104.

Conveyor belts strengthen cyclones by:

a)

Reducing contrast

b)

Increasing contrast and lifting

c)

Weakening cold air

d)

Drying warm sector

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