Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CBCS Unit One: The Revenue Cycle and Regulatory Compliance

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is often photocopied during patient registration? Select all that apply:

a)

Insurance Card

b)

CMS-1500 Form

c)

Chargemaster

d)

Remittance Advice

e)

Drivers License

2.

A physician’s office develops a user-friendly process for staff members to report suspected billing fraud and abuse. Which recommended component of a compliance program does this example demonstrate?

a)

A. Internal monitoring and auditing

b)

B. Corrective Action

c)

C. Open Lines of Communication

d)

D. Risk Assessment

3.

A healthcare provider identifies several overpayments during the self-disclosure process outlined in the OIG provider self-disclosure protocol. What must the provider do?

a)

Review a random sample of 100 claims to estimate damages.

b)

Report the findings to the OIG Fraud Hotline.

c)

Review at least 10 claims per service to assess for other improper payments.

d)

Return all overpayments to the government.

e)

Audit at least five claims for each federal healthcare program.

4.

_______ occurs when providers do not report all the services provided or code for services that are lower than the level of care that was given to the patient.

a)

Undercoding

b)

Upcoding

c)

Bundling

d)

Unbundling

5.

HIPAA defines information such as patient names, addresses, dates of birth, IP addresses, and URLs as

a)

Patient Identifiers

b)

Medical Procedures

c)

Insurance Codes

d)

Clinical Diagnoses

6.

Why should a patient’s insurance coverage be recorded as primary, secondary, and tertiary?

a)

To submit claims in the order in which each plan should pay

b)

To confirm the order in which the patient purchased the insurance

c)

To confirm the patient’s identity

d)

To prevent duplication of prescribed medications

7.

_____ provide or pay for the cost of healthcare.

a)

Health Plans

b)

Hospitals

c)

Pharmacies

d)

Medical Devices

8.

The HIPAA Privacy Rule’s focus is to make sure that _____ remains privacy and secure.

a)

Protected Health Information

b)

Healthcare Identifiers

c)

Provider Information

d)

Health Claims

9.

How does undercoding differ from upcoding?

a)

Undercoding does not report the full extent of services, whereas upcoding bills for more expensive services than those provided.

b)

Undercoding leads to increased reimbursement, whereas upcoding results in loss of revenue.

c)

Undercoding bills for services that never occurred, whereas upcoding bills for more complex services than those provided.

d)

Undercoding is compliant with all laws and regulations, whereas upcoding is an illegal practice.

10.

Which task is a recommended follow-up activity after an audit by a regulatory agency or contractor? Select all that apply:

a)

Select a sample of electronic health records (EHRs) for the auditor.

b)

Update the internal monitoring plan to track any issues identified in the audit report.

c)

Identify weaknesses that contributed to problems uncovered by the audit.

d)

Assign staff members to develop a corrective action plan.

e)

Designate a lead who will work with the auditor.

11.

The HIPAA ________ Transaction SetNational Identifier StandardSecurity Rule requires that providers and their business associates have policies and procedures in place to ensure confidentiality of protected health information (PHI).

a)

Privacy Rule

b)

Transaction Rule

c)

Identifier Rule

d)

Disclosure Rule

12.

Which scenario is an example of a beneficiary inducement?

a)

A pharmaceutical company offers a psychiatrist remuneration to prescribe certain medications to Medicare patients.

b)

A physician refers Medicaid patients to an occupational therapy practice owned by a sibling.

c)

A durable medical equipment supplier offers gift cards to physicians who order their wheelchairs for Medicare patients.

d)

A physician waives copays to entice new Medicare patients to come to the practice.

13.

The ______ prohibits certain individuals from participating in federal healthcare programs if they have committed Medicare or Medicaid fraud or other health-related criminal offenses.

a)

D. Exclusion Statute

b)

A. False Claims Act

c)

B. Anti-Kickback Statute

d)

C. Stark Law

14.

Overcoding charges are considered noncompliant and can lead to _____

a)

Audits

b)

Promotions

c)

Awards

d)

Discounts

15.

Which type of improper billing practice has occurred when the billing code reflects a more expensive medical procedure than the one provided?

a)

Undercoding

b)

Upcoding

c)

Unbundling

d)

Double Billing

16.

Which of the following acts specifically prohibits harassment, misrepresentation, threats, and spread of false information?

a)

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

b)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

c)

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act

d)

False Claims Act

17.

What information is provided to the healthcare provider on an electronic remittance advice (ERA)? Select all that apply?

a)

A. Date of Service

b)

B. Amount paid for the Service

c)

C. EDI Number

d)

D. Amount charged by the Provider

e)

E. Patients Name

18.

Which contractor is responsible for functions previously held by the Zone Program Integrity Contractor (ZPIC) and the Medicaid Integrity Contractor (MIC)?

a)

Comprehensive Error Rate Testing (CERT) Contractor

b)

Supplemental Medical Review Contractor (SMRC)

c)

Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC)

d)

Unified Program Integrity Contractor (UPIC)

19.

Which resource stores reports about acts of fraud and abuse committed by healthcare providers and suppliers?

a)

National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)

b)

Fraud Prevention System (FPS)

c)

Health Care Fraud Prevention Partnership (HFPP)

d)

OIG Compliance Program Guidance

20.

Which of the following acts specifically prohibits harassment, misrepresentation, threats, and spread of false information?

a)

False Claims Act

b)

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

c)

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

21.

When establishing a voluntary compliance program at a physician’s office, what does the Office of Inspector General (OIG) recommend regarding the implementation of compliance and practice standards?

a)

Develop a written manual of all standards, policies, and procedures that is accessible to staff.

b)

Avoid changing established compliance standards to maintain consistency and to minimize confusion.

c)

Evaluate the effectiveness of practice standards as part of an internal monitoring and auditing program.

d)

Periodically update clinical forms to facilitate accurate, complete documentation of care.

e)

Develop billing and coding policies within the office rather than using a third-party billing company.

22.

What is the first step of the revenue cycle?

a)

Claim Submission

b)

Patient Billing

c)

Patient Registration

d)

Insurance Verification

23.

Which improper billing practice occurs when a coder fails to capture services provided to a patient?

a)

Clustering

b)

Undercoding

c)

Upcoding

d)

Unbundling

24.

What does a clearinghouse scrub for when processing a medical claim? Select all that apply?

a)

A. Healthcare provider information

b)

B. Incorrect insurance plan number

c)

C. Terminated insurance plans

d)

D. Incorrect diagnosis coding

e)

E. Incorrect spelling of a patient’s name

25.

According to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, what principle requires providers to make reasonable efforts to limit information only to the intended purpose?

a)

A. Implied Consent

b)

B. Release of Information

c)

C. Minimum Necessary

d)

D. Implied Release

26.

What is the reason for verifying patient insurance benefits prior to rendering services?

a)

To confirm the patient’s identity

b)

To prevent prescribing a medication that could cause an allergic reaction

c)

To ensure the insurance will cover the scheduled service

d)

To avoid duplicating a prescribed medication

27.

Which situation at a restaurant is an analogy for unbundling in the healthcare industry?

a)

Charging a customer for several entrées that they never received

b)

Billing a customer for each item on the plate instead of the entrée price

c)

Excluding some of the items that a customer had ordered

d)

Charging a customer for a more expensive menu item than the one served

28.

Which improper billing practice occurs when a coder fails to capture services provided to a patient?

a)

Clustering

b)

Undercoding

c)

Upcoding

d)

Unbundling

29.

Which resource stores reports about acts of fraud and abuse committed by healthcare providers and suppliers?

a)

Fraud Prevention System (FPS)

b)

National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)

c)

Health Care Fraud Prevention Partnership (HFPP)

d)

OIG Compliance Program Guidance

30.

Which type of improper billing practice has occurred when the billing code reflects a more expensive medical procedure than the one provided?

a)

Double billing

b)

Undercoding

c)

Upcoding

d)

Unbundling

31.

Which of the following statements regarding the functions of the HHA Office of Inspector General (OIG) is FALSE? Select ALL that apply:

a)

The OIG provides compliance program guidance to assist healthcare providers in establishing a mandatory compliance plan.

b)

The OIG enforces the Exclusion Act and imposes civil monetary penalties for violations.

c)

The OIG accepts tips and complaints about potential fraud and abuse, including anonymous reports.

d)

The OIG provides compliance program guidance to assist healthcare providers in establishing a voluntary compliance program.

e)

The OIG enforces the Exclusion Act but cannot impose civil monetary penalties for violations.

32.

A physician’s office uses incorrect diagnostic codes that reflect a more severe health condition than the patient has. Which improper billing practice has occurred?

a)

Upcoding

b)

Unbundling

c)

Downcoding

d)

Balance billing

33.

Which of the following statements regarding the Medicare Fraud Strike Force is TRUE? Select ALL that apply:

a)

It is coordinated by the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA).

b)

It uses data analytics and engages in interagency collaboration to identify, investigate, and shut down fraud schemes.

c)

It is part of a joint initiative between the DOJ and HHS.

d)

It refers credible allegations of fraud to CMS so that fraudulent payments can be suspended.

e)

It serves as an online repository for reports of medical malpractice, fraud, and abuse.

34.

The ___ prohibits certain individuals from participating in federal healthcare programs if they have committed Medicare or Medicaid fraud or other health-related criminal offenses.

a)

Criminal Health Care Fraud Statute

b)

Patient Access and Medicare Protection Act

c)

Exclusion Statute

d)

False Claims Act (FCA)

35.

Which improper billing practice is sometimes a misguided attempt to avoid an audit?

a)

Upcoding

b)

Undercoding

c)

Unbundling

d)

Double Billing

36.

The ___ is an analytics technology that runs algorithms to detect potential fraud and abuse in Medicare Fee-for-Service before payment.

a)

Medicare Fraud Strike Force

b)

Fraud Prevention System (FPS)

c)

Program Integrity Command Center

d)

National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)

37.

A physician receiving cash and gifts from a rehabilitation center in exchange for the referral of Medicare and Medicaid patients is an example of a ___

a)

Kickback

b)

Reimbursement

c)

Charity

d)

Consultation

38.

Which scenario is an example of a beneficiary inducement?

a)

A healthcare provider offers free transportation to Medicare patients to encourage them to use their services.

b)

A patient pays their medical bill in full at the time of service.

c)

A hospital provides standard care to all patients regardless of insurance.

d)

A clinic sends appointment reminders to all patients.

39.

Which of the following is an example of a kickback?

a)

A physician waives copays to entice new Medicare patients to come to the practice.

b)

A physician refers Medicaid patients to an occupational therapy practice owned by a sibling.

c)

A durable medical equipment supplier offers gift cards to physicians who order their wheelchairs for Medicare patients.

d)

A pharmaceutical company offers a psychiatrist remuneration to prescribe certain medications to Medicare patients.

40.

Which of the following tasks is a responsibility of federal agencies to prevent billing fraud and abuse? Select ALL that apply:

a)

Performing data analyses to detect potential signs of billing fraud and abuse

b)

Providing protections and incentives for whistleblowers who report wrongdoing

c)

Conducting investigations into suspected cases of fraud, waste, and abuse

d)

Offering education and resources to support accurate, compliant billing and coding

e)

Enforcing regulations that protect the integrity of federal healthcare programs

41.

How does undercoding differ from upcoding?

a)

Undercoding is compliant with all laws and regulations, whereas upcoding is an illegal practice.

b)

Undercoding leads to increased reimbursement, whereas upcoding results in loss of revenue.

c)

Undercoding does not report the full extent of services, whereas upcoding bills for more expensive services than those provided.

d)

Undercoding bills for services that never occurred, whereas upcoding bills for more complex services than those provided.

42.

A healthcare provider identifies several overpayments during the self-disclosure process outlined in the OIG provider self-disclosure protocol. What must the provider do? Select all that apply:

a)

Review at least 10 claims per service to assess for other improper payments.

b)

Report the findings to the OIG Fraud Hotline.

c)

Audit at least five claims for each federal healthcare program.

d)

Return all overpayments to the government.

e)

Review a random sample of 100 claims to estimate damages.

43.

Which contractor is responsible for monitoring fraud, waste, and abuse involving Medicare Parts C and D benefits?

a)

Investigations Medicare Drug Integrity Contractor (I-MEDIC)

b)

Unified Program Integrity Contractor (UPIC)

c)

Supplemental Medical Review Contractor (SMRC)

d)

Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC)

44.

Which contractor calculates the Medicare Fee-for-Service (FFS) improper payment rate?

a)

Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC)

b)

Supplemental Medical Review Contractor (SMRC)

c)

Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC)

d)

Comprehensive Error Rate Testing (CERT) Contractor

45.

Which task is a recommended follow-up activity after an audit by a regulatory agency or contractor? Select all that apply:

a)

Select a sample of electronic health records (EHRs) for the auditor.

b)

Assign staff members to develop a corrective action plan.

c)

Identify weaknesses that contributed to problems uncovered by the audit.

d)

Update the internal monitoring plan to track any issues identified in the audit report.

e)

Designate a lead who will work with the auditor.

46.

Which of the following benefits is associated with implementing a voluntary compliance program at a physician’s practice? Select all that apply:

a)

Fewer billing and coding errors

b)

Improved patient care

c)

Reduced risk of a government-initiated investigation or audit

d)

More efficient payment of claims

e)

Reduced need for internal auditing

47.

Which law includes a requirement that healthcare providers develop a compliance program?

a)

Stark Law

b)

Affordable Care Act (ACA)

c)

Improper Payments Elimination and Recovery Act of 2010

d)

False Claims Act (FCA)

48.

During a self-audit, what would a healthcare organization evaluate during a standards and procedures review? Select all that apply?

a)

Information on coding practices

b)

Mechanisms for reporting billing fraud and abuse

c)

Accuracy of bills and medical records

d)

Policy manuals

49.

What is the purpose of a baseline audit in a compliance program?

a)

To reduce the need for future internal monitoring and self-audits

b)

To provide a benchmark for measuring compliance risks and activities

c)

To allow healthcare providers to compare their billing practices with their peers

d)

To allow for ongoing analysis of claims prior to submission to prevent improper payments

50.

Which task is a function of the Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC)? Select all that apply:

a)

Processing Medicare claims for payment

b)

Helping to coordinate medical reviews and investigations with other contractors

c)

Enrolling providers and suppliers in the Medicare program

d)

Investigating suspected fraud and abuse in the Medicare and Medicaid programs

e)

Calculating the Medicare Fee-for-Service (FFS) improper payment rate

51.

A physician wants to assess their billing practices in relation to other healthcare providers in their state. Which tool will help achieve this goal?

a)

Baseline audit

b)

OIG provider self-disclosure protocol

c)

Comparative billing reports (CBR)

d)

OIG compliance program guidance

52.

Which responsibility is a function of the Center for Program Integrity (CPI) of the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)? Select all that apply:

a)

Establish a process for physicians to self-disclose potential incidents of billing fraud and abuse.

b)

Reduce the burden on healthcare providers so they can focus on patient care.

c)

Offer education and outreach to improve compliance with laws, regulations, and program requirements.

d)

Coordinate medical reviews and audits to prevent and address improper payments.

e)

Provide guidance for developing a compliance program that is tailored to each sector of the healthcare industry.

53.

When establishing a voluntary compliance program at a physician’s office, the Office of Inspector General (OIG) recommends which of the following regarding the implementation of compliance and practice standards?

a)

Develop written standards and procedures to ensure compliance.

b)

Rely solely on verbal instructions for compliance.

c)

Ignore compliance standards unless required by law.

d)

Implement compliance standards only after an audit.

54.

The HIPAA Privacy Rule’s focus is to make sure that ___ remains privacy and secure.

a)

Health claims

b)

Provider information

c)

Protected health information

d)

Healthcare identifiers

55.

The HITECH Act requires covered entities to notify individuals and ___ when there is a security breach of protected health information.

a)

HIPAA Security Officer

b)

Freedom of Information Committee

c)

Ethics Committee

d)

Health and Human Services

56.

The HIPAA Security Rule requires that providers maintain standards to protect PHI from ___ access.

a)

Patient

b)

Provider

c)

Unauthorized

d)

Authorized

57.

According to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, what principle requires a provider to make reasonable efforts to limit information only to the intended purpose?

a)

Release of information

b)

Implied consent

c)

Implied release

d)

Minimum necessary

58.

Which of the following acts was established to improve healthcare quality, safety, and efficiency using health information technology?

a)

False claims act

b)

Fair debt collection practices act

c)

Health insurance portability and accountability act

d)

Health information technology for economic and clinical health act

59.

Which of the following code sets are required by the HIPAA Transaction and Code Set standard? Select ALL that apply:

a)

International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10-PCS)

b)

Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System

c)

International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10-CM)

60.

12. ____ process claims between providers and payers.

a)

Healthcare Clearinghouses

b)

Medical Laboratories

c)

Pharmaceutical Companies

d)

Insurance Agents

61.

The ___ prohibits a provider from referring patients to a facility where the provider has a financial interest.

a)

Stark Law

b)

HIPAA

c)

False Claims Act

d)

Anti-Kickback Statute

62.

Which of the following acts contains four standards used to keep health information private and secure?

a)

False Claims Act

b)

Health Insurance and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

c)

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

d)

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act

63.

Which of the following acts specifically prohibits harassment, misrepresentation, threats, and spread of false information?

a)

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act

b)

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

c)

False Claims Act

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

64.

What is the reason for verifying patient insurance benefits prior to rendering service?

a)

To ensure the insurance will cover the scheduled service

b)

To avoid duplicating a prescribed medication

c)

To confirm the patients identity

d)

To prevent prescribing a medication that could cause an allergic reaction

65.

What information is provided to the healthcare provider on an electronic remittance advice (ERA)? Select ALL that apply:

a)

Patients name

b)

EDI number

c)

Amount charged by the provider

d)

Amount paid for the service

e)

Date of service

66.

Which action should a medical biller take when a claim has not been paid within 30 to 45 days?

a)

Contact the patient

b)

Resubmit the claim

c)

Contact the insurance plan

d)

Notify the healthcare provider

67.

Which of the following is often photocopied during patient registration? Select ALL that apply:

a)

Insurance card

b)

Remittance advice

c)

CMS-1500

d)

Drivers License

e)

Chargemaster

68.

What does the clearinghouse scrub for when processing a medical claim? Select ALL that apply:

a)

Incorrect insurance plan number

b)

Terminated insurance plans

c)

Healthcare provider information

d)

Incorrect spelling of a patient's name

e)

Incorrect diagnosis coding

69.

If an account is placed in collections, the balance is written off as a ____.

a)

Bad Debt

b)

Asset

c)

Revenue

d)

Prepaid Expense

70.

When paper claims are submitted, what is sent to the health insurance payer?

a)

A completed claim form

b)

A payment receipt

c)

A prescription

d)

A patient ID card

71.

Fill in the blank: The ______ is a unique identifier used for electronic data interchange in healthcare.

a)

EDI Number

b)

Patient ID

c)

Medical Record Number

d)

Provider License Number

72.

Fill in the blank: The ______ is a standard form used for submitting medical claims to insurance companies.

a)

CMS-1500 claim form

b)

UB-04 form

c)

HCFA-1450 form

d)

ADA Dental Claim form

73.

Fill in the blank: The ______ outlines the financial policies and procedures for patients in a healthcare facility.

a)

Financial policy form

b)

Patient consent form

c)

Medical history form

d)

Insurance claim form

74.

Fill in the blank: ______ refers to the collection of personal and statistical information about a patient.

a)

Demographic information

b)

Medical history

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Treatment plan