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System Integration Scalability and Performance Worksheet

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 3570secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best defines scalability in system integration?

a)

The ability to handle increased workloads by adding resources

b)

The speed of processing a single transaction

c)

The ability to minimize database queries

d)

The process of compressing event messages

2.

What term refers to the time it takes to complete a single request in performance measurement?

a)

Throughput

b)

System availability

c)

Resource usage

d)

Response time

3.

Vertical scaling involves:

a)

Adding more resources to a single node

b)

Adding more nodes to the system

c)

Removing unneeded instances

d)

Distributing traffic among servers

4.

Horizontal scaling is characterized by:

a)

Upgrading CPU and RAM

b)

Using a single database server

c)

Reducing the number of requests

d)

Adding more nodes to distribute workload

5.

Load balancing helps improve scalability by:

a)

Distributing requests evenly across available servers

b)

Minimizing API caching

c)

Using only one processing node

d)

Limiting asynchronous processing

6.

Which load-balancing technique distributes traffic to the server with the fewest active connections?

a)

Round-robin

b)

Least connections

c)

Weighted random

d)

Session-based

7.

Sticky sessions are important because they:

a)

Randomly assign clients to servers

b)

Maintain session continuity for each client

c)

Reduce event-driven performance

d)

Disable cache invalidation

8.

Distributed caching improves performance by:

a)

Slowing down response times

b)

Increasing database calls

c)

Reducing redundant data retrieval

d)

Eliminating load balancers

9.

Which caching system is commonly used for distributed caching?

a)

Redis

b)

Kafka

c)

Prometheus

d)

RabbitMQ

10.

Auto-scaling in cloud environments ensures scalability by:

a)

Allowing manual addition of resources

b)

Stopping all idle instances

c)

Reducing memory allocation

d)

Automatically adding or removing resources based on demand

11.

Which metric measures the maximum number of requests a system can handle in a given time?

a)

Latency

b)

Throughput

c)

Availability

d)

Fault tolerance

12.

What is the main purpose of a Content Delivery Network (CDN) in system performance?

a)

Increase local database queries

b)

Reduce latency by caching content closer to users

c)

Limit server capacity

d)

Randomly distribute workloads

13.

Which of the following best describes failover in distributed systems?

a)

A method to reduce session persistence

b)

Automatic switching to a standby system when the primary fails

c)

A way to increase API calls

d)

Balancing loads across multiple servers

14.

In performance testing, which type of test evaluates system behavior under extreme workloads?

a)

Stress testing

b)

Unit testing

c)

Integration testing

d)

Regression testing

15.

What role does a message queue play in improving system scalability?

a)

Stores logs permanently

b)

Enables asynchronous processing to decouple components

c)

Reduces cache size

d)

Forces synchronous execution

16.

Asynchronous messaging enables systems to:

a)

Synchronize updates immediately

b)

Reduce horizontal scaling

c)

Decouple producers and consumers

d)

Disable load balancing

17.

Which of the following is an example of a distributed message queue?

a)

MySQL

b)

Apache Kafka

c)

NGINX

d)

Prometheus

18.

In an event-driven architecture, communication occurs through:

a)

Direct API calls

b)

Events between loosely coupled services

c)

Manual data transfer

d)

Synchronous processing only

19.

Event partitioning in integration systems enables:

a)

Parallel processing and scalability

b)

Sequential transaction queuing

c)

Resource limitation

d)

Centralized event storage

20.

Performance optimization in event-driven architectures can involve:

a)

Limiting event size

b)

Disabling event batching

c)

Removing all cache layers

d)

Using batching and compression

21.

The primary goal of performance monitoring is to:

a)

Identify and resolve system bottlenecks

b)

Increase response times

c)

Disable scaling mechanisms

d)

Reduce message queuing

22.

Which tool can simulate high traffic scenarios to test system performance?

a)

Redis

b)

Apache JMeter

c)

RabbitMQ

d)

Grafana

23.

Database performance tuning may involve:

a)

Increasing redundancy

b)

Optimizing queries and indexing

c)

Reducing system monitoring

d)

Removing load balancers

24.

Continuous performance optimization focuses on:

a)

Iterative monitoring and improvement over time

b)

One-time system tuning

c)

Manual scaling only

d)

Ignoring resource utilization

25.

Which practice ensures ongoing scalability and stability in deployment pipelines?

a)

Ignoring performance thresholds

b)

Turning off monitoring tools

c)

Using manual stress testing

d)

Integrating automated performance tests in CI/CD

26.

Which technique helps prevent a single point of failure in distributed systems?

a)

Load balancing

b)

Single-node processing

c)

Event queuing only

d)

Sequential execution

27.

What is the primary benefit of using microservices in system integration?

a)

Tightly coupled components

b)

Independent deployability and scalability

c)

Reduced monitoring

d)

Increased monolithic complexity

28.

Circuit breakers in distributed systems are used to:

a)

Automatically scale nodes

b)

Prevent cascading failures by stopping requests to failing services

c)

Increase event size

d)

Disable caching

29.

Which type of caching stores frequently accessed data closer to the application to reduce latency?

a)

Local/in-memory caching

b)

Cold storage

c)

Sequential logging

d)

File-based backup

30.

What is the purpose of service orchestration in an integrated system?

a)

Coordinate interactions among multiple services to achieve a business process

b)

Disable horizontal scaling

c)

Reduce response time by limiting resources

d)

Randomly assign tasks

31.

Which of the following best describes the goal of integrating security systems?

a)

To reduce software size

b)

To eliminate physical devices

c)

To increase isolation between systems

d)

To improve efficiency and centralize control

32.

In system integration, which principle ensures that only authorized individuals can access certain data or systems?

a)

Authorization

b)

Encryption

c)

Non-repudiation

d)

Integrity

33.

Which of the following is a common threat that arises from insecure integration between systems?

a)

Overclocking

b)

Injection attacks

c)

Disk fragmentation

d)

System caching

34.

What is the main goal of encryption in integrated systems?

a)

To speed up access control

b)

To maintain confidentiality of data in transit

c)

To reduce storage costs

d)

To bypass authentication

35.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) primarily assigns permissions based on what factor?

a)

The user’s job role

b)

The user’s location

c)

The device being used

d)

The system’s bandwidth

36.

Which protocol provides modern, secure data transmission between systems?

a)

SSL

b)

HTTP

c)

FTP

d)

TLS

37.

Identity and Access Management (IAM) ensures that:

a)

Every user can access all systems freely

b)

Access logs are deleted regularly

c)

Only verified users access specific resources

d)

Passwords are shared between users

38.

Secure API design includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Allowing anonymous access to all endpoints

b)

Using authentication tokens

c)

Enabling HTTPS

d)

Validating input data

39.

What type of encryption uses a pair of keys — one public and one private?

a)

Symmetric

b)

Asymmetric

c)

Token-based

d)

Encrypted hashing

40.

Threat modeling helps organizations by:

a)

Identifying assets, threats, and vulnerabilities before attacks occur

b)

Creating new malware signatures

c)

Developing faster APIs

d)

Limiting system redundancy

41.

Which practice helps protect integrated systems from unauthorized changes or tampering?

a)

Data integrity checks

b)

Load balancing

c)

Event partitioning

d)

Horizontal scaling

42.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) improves security by:

a)

Requiring multiple credentials for user verification

b)

Reducing server response time

c)

Encrypting all network traffic

d)

Automatically creating user roles

43.

In secure system integration, logging and auditing are primarily used to:

a)

Track user actions and detect anomalies

b)

Reduce data replication

c)

Improve cache performance

d)

Automatically scale resources

44.

Which type of attack exploits vulnerabilities in poorly validated input fields?

a)

Phishing

b)

Injection attacks

c)

DDoS

d)

Man-in-the-middle

45.

Security monitoring tools in integrated systems help by:

a)

Continuously observing system activity for potential threats

b)

Increasing event queue sizes

c)

Disabling encryption temporarily

d)

Reducing API throughput

46.

What is the key function of an IAM framework in integration?

a)

Data compression

b)

Managing identities and enforcing access control

c)

Handling multimedia data

d)

Speeding up encryption

47.

Which of the following best defines secure data transmission?

a)

Sending unencrypted files

b)

Protecting data while it moves between systems

c)

Using outdated SSL versions

d)

Sending credentials through email

48.

The “least privilege principle” in RBAC means:

a)

Giving everyone full access for convenience

b)

Removing passwords

c)

Randomly assigning access

d)

Granting users only the permissions they need

49.

One major challenge in integrating security systems is:

a)

Compatibility between proprietary systems

b)

Using open-source encryption

c)

Centralized authentication

d)

Unified dashboards

50.

Why are open standards important in system integration?

a)

They complicate interoperability

b)

They restrict device support

c)

They eliminate encryption

d)

They enable devices from different vendors to communicate

51.

Data leakage in integrated systems occurs when:

a)

Sensitive information is accidentally shared or exposed

b)

Systems are properly encrypted

c)

Access is restricted

d)

APIs are secured with TLS

52.

The purpose of a penetration test in integrated environments is to:

a)

Slow down system response

b)

Simulate real-world attacks to find vulnerabilities

c)

Test user interfaces

d)

Measure bandwidth

53.

In federated identity management, users:

a)

Authenticate once to access multiple connected systems

b)

Need separate logins for each service

54.

Which of the following is an example of secure data format used in REST APIs?

a)

CSV

b)

XML Encryption

c)

JSON Web Encryption (JWE)

d)

Plaintext JSON

55.

Why is executive support critical in system security integration?

a)

It ensures leadership drives compliance and employee cooperation

b)

It replaces technical documentation

c)

It prevents audits

d)

It reduces the need for encryption

56.

Which method helps prevent unauthorized API access in integrated systems?

a)

Using API keys and tokens

b)

Disabling encryption

c)

Reducing server memory

d)

Limiting horizontal scaling

57.

What is the main advantage of implementing centralized logging in integrated systems?

a)

Easier monitoring and faster detection of security incidents

b)

Reduces encryption overhead

c)

Eliminates the need for backups

d)

Improves database normalization

58.

Which type of security testing focuses on identifying vulnerabilities from the attacker’s perspective?

a)

Black-box testing

b)

White-box testing

c)

Unit testing

d)

Load testing

59.

In integrated systems, token-based authentication primarily helps with:

a)

Securing API requests and maintaining session integrity

b)

Reducing hardware requirements

c)

Limiting response times

d)

Increasing database redundancy

60.

Why is continuous monitoring important in secure system integration?

a)

To detect and respond to threats in real time

b)

To disable user accounts automatically

c)

To reduce system scalability

d)

To replace encryption mechanisms

61.

What is the main objective of system integration testing (SIT)?

a)

To ensure that different components work together correctly

b)

To design the user interface

c)

To manage employee data

d)

To deploy to production

62.

Which testing method involves verifying the complete process from start to finish?

a)

Unit testing

b)

Smoke testing

c)

Functional testing

d)

End-to-end testing

63.

Why should testing start early in the development lifecycle?

a)

To identify and fix issues before they become more expensive

b)

To delay code reviews

c)

To skip regression tests

d)

To avoid documentation

64.

What does continuous testing in a CI/CD pipeline aim to achieve?

a)

Manual verification

b)

Code refactoring

c)

Deployment delays

d)

Automated validation after each integration

65.

Test data management ensures that:

a)

The data used for testing is realistic and secure

b)

Developers skip invalid data

c)

All data is copied from production

d)

Testers use live customer data

66.

A stub in integration testing is used to:

a)

Replace the entire system

b)

Return predefined responses during testing

c)

Simulate UI animations

d)

Measure CPU performance

67.

In mocking and stubbing, mocks are primarily used to:

a)

Generate test data

b)

Verify if components communicate correctly

c)

Hide user credentials

d)

Delete old test cases

68.

Which of the following best describes virtualization in test environments?

a)

Using local servers only

b)

Ignoring production settings

c)

Creating isolated, reproducible environments for testing manually

d)

Encrypting code manually

69.

Test data masking is used to:

a)

Hide sensitive information while keeping realistic formats

b)

Replace encryption

c)

Remove all test data

d)

Delay validation

70.

Continuous integration primarily involves:

a)

Hardware scaling

b)

Security patching

c)

End-user testing

d)

Frequently merging and testing code changes

71.

Regression testing is performed to:

a)

Verify that new changes do not break existing functionality

b)

Delete old test cases

c)

Measure server throughput

d)

Reduce database size

72.

Which metric helps evaluate the efficiency of a test suite?

a)

Code coverage

b)

CPU usage

c)

Network latency

d)

Disk fragmentation

73.

Load testing primarily assesses:

a)

System behavior under expected or peak workload

b)

Syntax errors in code

c)

User interface design

d)

Data integrity only

74.

What is the purpose of a test harness in integration testing?

a)

Automate test execution and manage test cases

b)

Encrypt all test data

c)

Scale servers horizontally

d)

Replace database queries

75.

Why is traceability important in system integration testing?

a)

It links test cases to requirements to ensure coverage and accountability

b)

It improves cache performance

c)

It deletes unused test data

d)

It reduces response time

76.

Configuration management helps ensure:

a)

Different environments run different versions

b)

Consistency across all testing setups

c)

Data loss

d)

Untracked changes

77.

In system integration, what is the purpose of regression testing?

a)

To eliminate test cases

b)

To confirm that new updates don’t break existing functionality

c)

To validate production

d)

To test only user input

78.

Why is environment isolation important during testing?

a)

To reduce test coverage

b)

To prevent interference with production systems

c)

To increase manual testing

d)

To improve downtime

79.

Which of the following tools is used for infrastructure-as-code (IaC)?

a)

Terraform

b)

Jenkins

c)

Selenium

d)

JIRA

80.

Test environment refresh ensures:

a)

Testers can skip data synchronization

b)

Outdated configurations stay unchanged

c)

New fields remain untested

d)

The test setup matches the latest production updates

81.

Why is data anonymization important in testing?

a)

It prevents identification of real individuals in test data

b)

It enhances database speed

c)

It supports UI validation

d)

It removes encryption keys

82.

Which approach allows developers to write tests before the actual code?

a)

System Testing

b)

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

c)

Regression Testing

d)

Load Testing

83.

A benefit of automated provisioning of test environments is:

a)

Manual setup accuracy

b)

Faster, consistent environment creation

c)

Slower deployment

d)

Higher cost

84.

What is the purpose of using service virtualization in integration testing?

a)

To simulate unavailable or expensive external systems

b)

To perform manual verification

c)

To manage UI design

d)

To reduce code coverage

85.

In a CI/CD pipeline, continuous delivery focuses on:

a)

Unit testing

b)

Manual deployment

c)

Refactoring

d)

Automating deployment of tested code to production

86.

What is the primary goal of sanity testing in system integration?

a)

To quickly verify that a specific functionality works after minor changes

b)

To test the entire system in detail

c)

To measure system throughput

d)

To update documentation only

87.

Which type of testing evaluates how a system behaves under extreme conditions?

a)

Stress testing

b)

Unit testing

c)

Functional testing

d)

Smoke testing

88.

In integration testing, a test case should include:

a)

Input data, expected results, and execution steps

b)

Only output values

c)

Database schema

d)

Hardware specifications

89.

Why is version control important in system integration projects:

a)

To track changes, manage conflicts, and maintain history of code and configurations

b)

To reduce testing coverage

c)

To increase CPU usage

d)

To bypass authentication

90.

Which practice helps ensure reproducibility of test results across different environments?

a)

Using standardized test environments and configurations

b)

Randomly changing test data

c)

Skipping environment updates

d)

Manually editing test results

91.

Why is keeping up with technological trends crucial for organizations?

a)

It limits scalability

b)

It prevents innovation

c)

It increases manual workload

d)

It helps businesses stay competitive and adaptable to market changes

92.

Which of the following best describes the benefit of sustainable architecture?

a)

Conservation of energy and eco-friendly building materials

b)

Higher operating costs

c)

Increased waste

d)

Reduced use of technology

93.

Which technology enhances architects’ ability to visualize projects in real-world context?

a)

Static sketches

b)

3D visualization and immersive design tools

c)

Manual drafting

d)

CAD printing

94.

What is the core idea behind parametric architecture?

a)

Blueprints are drawn by hand

b)

Designs are governed by parameters and constraints

c)

Shapes are random

d)

Manual form selection

95.

Which of the following is an example of an innovative building material?

a)

Self-healing concrete or pollution-absorbing bricks

b)

Asphalt

c)

Wood

d)

Clay

96.

What is the main advantage of integrating IoT in smart homes?

a)

Increased manual operation

b)

Devices work independently

c)

No internet required

d)

Centralized monitoring and automation

97.

How does Industrial IoT (IIoT) improve manufacturing?

a)

Reducing automation

b)

Increasing manual inspections

c)

Predictive maintenance and optimized performance

d)

Disabling data analysis

98.

What is the benefit of edge computing in IoT systems?

a)

Processes data closer to devices for faster decision-making

b)

Increases latency

c)

Moves all data to the cloud

d)

Eliminates sensors

99.

Smart agriculture mainly benefits from IoT through:

a)

Virtual classrooms

b)

Manual irrigation

c)

Automated precision monitoring of crops

d)

Cloud gaming

100.

What is a key concern in IoT integration?

a)

Security and privacy of connected devices

b)

Manual data entry

c)

Low power use

d)

Hardware cost

101.

Which of the following best describes a digital twin in architecture or IoT systems?

a)

A virtual replica of a physical object or system for monitoring and simulation

b)

A duplicate building made of concrete

c)

Manual sketches of structures

d)

Physical sensors only

102.

How does cloud computing benefit IoT applications?

a)

Provides scalable storage and processing power for large volumes of data

b)

Reduces internet connectivity

c)

Replaces edge devices

d)

Increases manual data entry

103.

What role does AI play in smart cities?

a)

Automates traffic management, energy use, and public services

b)

Increases paperwork

c)

Limits sensor usage

d)

Reduces connectivity

104.

Which technology helps construction workers monitor structures in real-time for safety and maintenance?

a)

IoT sensors and wearable devices

b)

Manual inspections only

c)

Paper checklists

d)

Blueprints alone

105.

What is the main advantage of modular construction?

a)

Faster assembly, flexibility, and reduced construction waste

b)

Increased project delays

c)

Higher labor costs

d)

Limited design options

106.

In AI-powered data mapping, what is the main advantage?

a)

It disables automation

b)

AI learns from previous mappings to improve accuracy

c)

Manual coding increases

d)

It reduces system learning

107.

Predictive data integration primarily focuses on:

a)

Deleting redundant data

b)

Optimizing integration scheduling and resources

c)

Manual migration

d)

Random data grouping

108.

Intelligent routing in integration systems uses AI to:

a)

Assign static paths

b)

Disable message delivery

c)

Randomize connections

d)

Dynamically choose efficient routes and priorities

109.

AI-based anomaly detection helps by:

a)

Identifying irregular patterns and triggering alerts automatically

b)

Ignoring errors

c)

Delaying responses

d)

Removing notifications

110.

What is the primary goal of AI-driven performance monitoring?

a)

Random data checks

b)

Logging user actions

c)

Decreasing system load

d)

Detecting bottlenecks and improving resource usage

111.

A major benefit of serverless architectures is:

a)

Automatic scaling with payment only for used resources

b)

Manual scaling

c)

Offline computation

d)

High fixed cost

112.

Event-driven serverless functions are triggered by:

a)

Network restarts

b)

Events such as API calls, database updates, or messages

c)

Manual timers

d)

Static files like characters, images, audio, or any multimedia

113.

What makes Function-as-a-Service (FaaS) ideal for IoT data processing?

a)

Real-time, event-based response to sensor data

b)

Manual function activation

c)

Complex configuration

d)

Fixed scheduling

114.

API management platforms primarily help organizations by:

a)

Limiting integration

b)

Reducing documentation

c)

Centralizing API creation, security, and analytics

d)

Preventing collaboration

115.

Which of the following best describes microservices architecture?

a)

A monolithic system with a single codebase

b)

Small, independent services that communicate over APIs

c)

A desktop application only

d)

A static website

116.

How does containerization benefit system integration?

a)

Packages applications and dependencies for consistent deployment across environments

b)

Increases hardware dependency

c)

Requires manual installation on each server

d)

Reduces security

117.

What is the purpose of API throttling in integration systems?

a)

Limit the number of API requests to prevent overload and ensure stability

b)

Increase response time

c)

Disable endpoint access

d)

Delete API logs

118.

Which cloud service model provides virtualized infrastructure for deploying and managing applications?

a)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

b)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

c)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

d)

Database as a Service (DBaaS)

119.

In hybrid cloud integration, the main advantage is:

a)

Combining on-premises and cloud resources for flexibility and optimized workloads

b)

Using only local servers

c)

Eliminating scalability

d)

Reducing security measures