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Learning Targets 1-3 (Introduction to Skeletal System)

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which subdivisions make up the human skeleton?

a)

Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

b)

Thorax and vertebral column

c)

Upper limbs and pelvic girdle

d)

Skull and ribs with sternum

2.

Which structures are part of the axial skeleton?

a)

Skull, vertebral column, thorax

b)

Upper limbs, pelvic girdle, lower limbs

c)

Joints, tendons, ligaments

d)

Humerus, femur, scapula

3.

Which statement best describes hyaline cartilage in joints?

a)

Glassy cartilage providing smooth, low-friction surfaces

b)

Highly elastic tissue maintaining external ear shape

c)

Dense fibrocartilage resisting extreme compressive forces

d)

Loose connective tissue cushioning synovial membranes

4.

Which function is NOT among the five major functions of the skeletal system?

a)

Regulation of blood glucose levels

b)

Support of body structure

c)

Protection of internal organs

d)

Production of blood cells

5.

How do bones protect softer organs located inside the body?

a)

They surround organs like brain, ribs, thoracic organs

b)

They secrete hormones that harden nearby tissues

c)

They store fat that insulates delicate structures

d)

They attach directly to muscles to form tendons

6.

What are mature bone cells called and where are they located?

a)

Osteocytes located in lacunae

b)

Osteoblasts within periosteum

c)

Chondrocytes in joint capsules

d)

Osteoclasts in Haversian canals

7.

Which structure is the basic functional unit of compact bone?

a)

Trabecula

b)

Osteon

c)

Lacuna

d)

Canaliculus

8.

What do concentric lamellae form around in compact bone?

a)

Periosteum layer

b)

Central canal

c)

Marrow cavity

d)

Perforating canal

9.

Lacunae in bone tissue primarily contain which cells?

a)

Osteoclasts

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Chondrocytes

10.

Perforating (Volkmann’s) canals run in which orientation relative to the long axis of the bone?

a)

Diagonal across it

b)

Parallel to it

c)

Perpendicular to it

d)

Spiral around it

11.

Which canals primarily contain blood vessels, nerves, and loose connective tissue in compact bone?

a)

Central (Haversian) canals

b)

Canaliculi channels

c)

Medullary canals

d)

Trabecular tunnels

12.

Which statement best describes trabeculae in spongy bone?

a)

Solid cylinders of matrix

b)

Interconnecting rods or plates

c)

Long parallel sheets

d)

Dense cortical layers

13.

Which feature allows osteocytes to communicate through tiny passages?

a)

Lamellae rings

b)

Canaliculi channels

c)

Marrow sinuses

d)

Sharpey fibers

14.

Circumferential lamellae are found where in compact bone?

a)

Inside the osteon core

b)

Outside the compact bone

c)

Between adjacent osteons

d)

Within trabecular spaces

15.

Which matrix components primarily provide bone flexibility?

a)

Hydroxyapatite crystals

b)

Collagen and proteoglycans

c)

Calcium carbonate salts

d)

Dense mineral lamellae

16.

Woven bone differs from lamellar bone because its collagen fibers are:

a)

Parallel in thin layers

b)

Randomly oriented

c)

Aligned circumferentially

d)

Organized concentrically

17.

Lamellar bone is best characterized as:

a)

Immature disorganized tissue

b)

Mature bone with layered sheets

c)

Elastic fibrous cartilage

d)

Dense bone without osteons

18.

Woven bone commonly appears during which situation?

a)

Adult remodeling only

b)

Fetal development or fracture repair

c)

Aging and osteoporosis

d)

Endochondral ossification completion

19.

In an osteon, lamellae are arranged how relative to the central canal?

a)

Radially intersecting stripes

b)

Circular concentric layers

c)

Irregular trabecular plates

d)

Longitudinal parallel sheets

20.

Which bone shape is defined as thin, flat, and often curved, such as the sternum and ribs?

a)

Short bone type examples like carpals

b)

Flat bone type such as sternum and ribs

c)

Irregular bone type like vertebrae and facial

d)

Long bone type like femur and humerus

21.

In a long bone, what is the diaphysis primarily composed of and where does primary ossification begin?

a)

Spongy bone and secondary center

b)

Compact bone and primary center

c)

Cartilage and articular surface

d)

Fibrous tissue and periosteal layer

22.

What is the function of articular cartilage at the ends of long bones?

a)

Stores yellow marrow in cavity

b)

Reduces friction at joints

c)

Initiates primary ossification

d)

Forms periosteal outer layer

23.

Where is red marrow typically found and what key process occurs there?

a)

Medullary cavity with lipid storage

b)

Spongy bone spaces with hematopoiesis

c)

Articular cartilage with ossification

d)

Diaphyseal cortex with mineralization

24.

Which pair correctly matches tissue to location inside a long bone?

a)

Endosteum lining marrow cavity

b)

Periosteum lining joint cartilage

c)

Articular cartilage lining marrow cavity

d)

Yellow marrow filling spongy bone

25.

What is the technical term for bone formation?

a)

Calcification of matrix

b)

Ossification or osteogenesis

c)

Mineral homeostasis

d)

Chondral remodeling

26.

Which process primarily forms flat bones like the skull and clavicle diaphysis?

a)

Endochondral ossification

b)

Intramembranous ossification

c)

Secondary ossification

d)

Cartilaginous calcification

27.

During intramembranous ossification, which cells differentiate into osteoblasts to begin bone matrix formation?

a)

Chondrocytes from cartilage

b)

Mesenchymal cells in a membrane

c)

Osteoclasts in marrow spaces

d)

Fibroblasts of periosteum

28.

What is the correct sequence early in intramembranous ossification?

a)

Osteoclasts form → osteocytes → trabeculae

b)

Mesenchyme → osteoblasts → osteocytes

c)

Chondroblasts → cartilage → osteocytes

d)

Perichondrium → periosteum → osteoclasts

29.

Which statement best distinguishes endochondral from intramembranous ossification?

a)

Endochondral uses a hyaline cartilage model

b)

Intramembranous starts in epiphyses first

c)

Endochondral bypasses cartilage entirely

d)

Intramembranous relies on chondrocyte hypertrophy

30.

In endochondral ossification, what forms when osteoblasts produce bone on calcified cartilage in the diaphysis?

a)

Secondary ossification center

b)

Primary ossification center

c)

Medullary cavity

d)

Perichondrium layer

31.

Blood vessels invade enlarged lacunae of calcified cartilage during endochondral ossification. What is the main consequence?

a)

Formation of woven trabeculae

b)

Thickening of perichondrium

c)

Decrease in cancellous bone

d)

Halt of osteoblast activity

32.

Which cell type removes bone from the center of the diaphysis to create the medullary cavity?

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoclasts

d)

Chondroblasts

33.

Secondary ossification centers develop in the epiphyses. Which statement is accurate?

a)

They create the medullary cavity

b)

They repeat primary center steps

c)

They begin in the perichondrium

d)

They convert periosteum to cartilage

34.

After initial formation, how is woven bone remodeled to mature lamellar bone?

a)

By osteoclasts only

b)

By osteocytes only

c)

Through coordinated remodeling

d)

Via chondrocyte hypertrophy

35.

Which statement best distinguishes interstitial growth from appositional growth in bone-related tissues?

a)

Interstitial adds matrix on outer surface; appositional adds within

b)

Interstitial occurs in cartilage within tissue; appositional adds to outside

c)

Interstitial only widens bone diameter; appositional lengthens bone

d)

Interstitial involves osteoblasts at periosteum; appositional uses chondrocytes

36.

Where does a long bone grow in length during adolescence?

a)

At the diaphyseal marrow cavity

b)

At the articular cartilage surface

c)

At the epiphyseal plate region

d)

At the periosteum of the shaft

37.

Which sequence correctly lists the first three events during lengthening at the epiphyseal plate?

a)

Cells divide, cells die, osteoclasts digest

b)

Cells calcify, cells hypertrophy, cells divide

c)

Cells divide, cells hypertrophy, cells calcify

d)

Osteoblasts lay bone, cells hypertrophy, cells die

38.

Which zone of the epiphyseal plate contains inactive cartilage cells?

a)

Resting zone

b)

Proliferation zone

c)

Zone of hypertrophy

d)

Zone of calcification

39.

What primarily happens in the proliferation zone of the epiphyseal plate?

a)

Chondrocytes enlarge markedly

b)

Chondroblasts actively divide

c)

Matrix becomes calcified

d)

Osteoclasts digest cartilage

40.

Which event marks the transition to the zone of ossification?

a)

Osteoclasts digest calcified cartilage

b)

Chondrocytes become inactive

c)

Osteoblasts hypertrophy and die

d)

Blood vessels leave the tunnel

41.

Which statement is true about articular cartilage at the epiphyses during growth?

a)

It ossifies during late adolescence

b)

It remains unossified throughout growth

c)

It calcifies before osteons form

d)

It becomes periosteum at maturity

42.

Bones widen primarily through which process and location?

a)

Interstitial growth within cartilage

b)

Appositional growth at periosteum

c)

Endochondral growth in marrow

d)

Intramembranous growth at epiphysis

43.

Which hormone primarily increases absorption of calcium and phosphate for bone?

a)

Calcitriol

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Parathyroid hormone

d)

Growth hormone

44.

Which cell resorbs bone to release calcium into the bloodstream?

a)

Osteoclast

b)

Osteoblast

c)

Osteocyte

d)

Myoblast

45.

When blood calcium levels fall, which hormone is released to stimulate osteoclast activity?

a)

Parathyroid hormone

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Growth hormone

d)

Thyroid hormone

46.

When blood calcium levels rise, which hormone inhibits osteoclasts to reduce calcium release?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Parathyroid hormone

c)

Estrogen

d)

Testosterone

47.

During the bone remodeling cycle, which bone type is typically formed first and then replaced?

a)

Woven bone

b)

Lamellar bone

c)

Spongy bone

d)

Compact bone

48.

Which vitamin is necessary for calcitriol synthesis aiding calcium absorption?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin K

49.

Which vitamin stimulates osteoblast activity and supports normal bone growth in children?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin B12

50.

What happens to osteoblasts in response to increased mechanical pull from muscles or fat?

a)

They lay down more matrix

b)

They reduce matrix production

c)

They become osteoclasts

d)

They stop responding to stress

51.

Which condition is defined by reduced bone mass with increased fracture risk, more common in women?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Osteopetrosis

d)

Rickets

52.

Which disorder involves softening of bone due to decreased calcium content?

a)

Osteomalacia

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Scurvy

d)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

53.

Which childhood disorder results from vitamin D deficiency and causes bowed legs?

a)

Rickets

b)

Scurvy

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Osteopetrosis

54.

Which disorder is a painful bacterial infection that may destroy bone?

a)

Osteomyelitis

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Osteopetrosis

d)

Heterotopic ossification

55.

Which condition features decreased osteoclast activity, leading to excessive bone mass and deformities?

a)

Osteopetrosis

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Rickets

56.

Which disorder is a genetic defect of collagen resulting in very fragile bones and repeated fractures?

a)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Scurvy

d)

Osteomalacia

57.

Which term describes ossification of soft tissues outside the normal skeletal system?

a)

Heterotopic bone formation

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Rickets

d)

Osteomyelitis

58.

If blood calcium is too high, what is the immediate effect in bone tissue?

a)

Calcium is deposited as hard salts

b)

Osteoclasts release more calcium

c)

Parathyroid hormone increases

d)

Woven bone rapidly replaces lamellar

59.

During prolonged inactivity, how do bones typically respond to decreased mechanical stress?

a)

They lose mass and atrophy

b)

They thicken and strengthen

c)

They convert to woven bone

d)

They stop remodeling entirely

60.

Which pair correctly matches hormone with its effect on calcium regulation?

a)

PTH stimulates resorption

b)

Calcitonin stimulates resorption

c)

Estrogen releases calcium

d)

Thyroid hormone blocks resorption

61.

Which sequence best describes the remodeling pathway from initial to mature bone?

a)

Woven then lamellar

b)

Lamellar then woven

c)

Spongy then compact

d)

Compact then spongy

62.

A patient with brittle bones due to lack of vitamin C most likely has which condition?

a)

Scurvy

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Osteopetrosis

63.

Which cell type directly removes calcium from blood by building bone matrix?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteoclast

c)

Osteocyte

d)

Chondrocyte

64.

Which factor causes osteoclasts to break down bone matrix when calcium is low?

a)

Parathyroid hormone

b)

Calcitonin hormone

c)

Growth hormone

d)

Vitamin A intake

65.

In a teenager, which hormones most directly accelerate epiphyseal plate ossification?

a)

Estrogens in females

b)

Calcitonin in males

c)

Thyroid hormone

d)

Parathyroid hormone

66.

Which immediate action should an athletic trainer expect in bone under increased load during training?

a)

Osteoblasts add more matrix

b)

Osteoclasts halt resorption

c)

Woven bone replaces lamellar

d)

Calcitonin release decreases