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Day 19 Quiz

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary role of a default gateway for a host connected to a network?

a)

To filter traffic based on MAC addresses

b)

To manage the host's physical connection status

c)

To assign IP addresses to the host dynamically

d)

To route traffic destined for remote networks

2.

When a router has multiple paths to the same destination network, which rule is used first to decide which route to use for forwarding a packet?

a)

The route with the lowest administrative distance (metric)

b)

The route learned from a static configuration

c)

The route with the lowest hop count

d)

The route with the longest prefix length (Longest Prefix Match)

3.

What is the function of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in an IPv4 network?

a)

To dynamically assign an IP address to a host

b)

To determine the network prefix of a given IP address

c)

To map a destination IP address to a physical (MAC) address on the local segment

d)

To prevent switching loops within a network segment

4.

A Layer 2 switch primarily makes forwarding decisions based on which address component?

a)

The destination logical (IP) address

b)

The source logical (IP) address

c)

The destination physical (MAC) address

d)

The source port number

5.

What mechanism allows multiple switches to operate in a network without creating forwarding loops, which would render the network unusable?

a)

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)

b)

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

c)

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

d)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

6.

IPv6 Link-Local addresses (starting with fe80::/10) are specifically restricted in their scope. How far can packets destined for an IPv6 Link-Local address travel?

a)

To all hosts within the entire administrative domain

b)

Across multiple routers to the closest host

c)

Across the public Internet to the destination host

d)

Only to a single host connected to the same local network segment (link)

7.

What information is stored in a switch's bridge table (also known as a MAC address table)?

a)

IP addresses and corresponding exit interfaces

b)

Port numbers and corresponding VLAN tags

c)

Physical (MAC) addresses and the local port where they were learned

d)

Logical (IP) addresses and the time-to-live values

8.

What is the main task performed by a dynamic routing protocol?

a)

To manually configure a static route entry for every destination

b)

To automatically discover remote networks and determine the best path to reach them

c)

To ensure the physical cables are connected using the proper pinout

d)

To manage the assignment of IP addresses to hosts

9.

When a host uses Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) to compute a globally routable IPv6 address, what information does it append to the prefix received from the router?

a)

A randomly generated 32-bit subnet ID

b)

A manually assigned 64-bit host identifier

c)

A locally generated 64-bit interface ID (EUI-64 or random)

d)

The 48-bit physical address of the router

10.

What is a key security and privacy concern associated with generating an IPv6 Interface ID using the EUI-48 process?

a)

The address changes too frequently, making device management difficult

b)

The physical interface portion of the address is traceable across networks

c)

EUI-48 addresses are prone to duplication on the local link

d)

The addresses are not routable on the global Internet

11.

The forwarding decision process made by a router relies on which type of address?

a)

Physical (MAC) addresses

b)

Well-known port numbers

c)

Logical (IP) addresses

d)

Application layer identifiers

12.

What does a switch do when it receives a frame destined for a MAC address not currently listed in its bridge table?

a)

It drops the frame and sends an ICMP error message to the source

b)

It floods the frame out all ports except the one it was received on

c)

It forwards the frame to the default gateway

d)

It queues the frame until the MAC address is learned

13.

Which network component primarily creates the separation between different broadcast domains?

a)

A bridge or Layer 2 switch.

b)

A router or Layer 3 switch.

c)

A repeater or hub.

d)

A Network Interface Card (NIC).

14.

What are connected routes in a routing table?

a)

Routes learned from a routing protocol.

b)

Routes manually configured by an administrator.

c)

Routes for networks that are directly attached to the router’s operational interfaces.

d)

Routes used only for management traffic.

15.

What term is used to describe the value assigned to a network path that a routing protocol uses to determine the optimal route?

a)

Address

b)

Prefix

c)

Metric

d)

Segment

16.

What is the distinction between a Layer 2 switch and a Layer 3 switch?

a)

Layer 2 switches support VLANs, while Layer 3 switches do not.

b)

Layer 2 switches use DHCP; Layer 3 switches use SLAAC.

c)

Layer 3 switches can perform routing functions, while Layer 2 switches only perform switching.

d)

Layer 3 switches operate only with IPv6 addresses, while Layer 2 switches use IPv4.

17.

If a router cannot find a matching route in its routing information base (RIB) and no default route is configured, what happens to the packet?

a)

It is forwarded using the route with the shortest hop count.

b)

It is encapsulated in a tunnel and sent to the next nearest router.

c)

It is forwarded out all operational interfaces.

d)

The packet is discarded.

18.

In an IPv6 network, which ICMPv6 message type is used by a host to request configuration information from a router, typically during the SLAAC process?

a)

Neighbor Advertisement (NA)

b)

Router Solicitation (RS)

c)

Neighbor Discovery (ND)

d)

Router Advertisement (RA)

19.

Which configuration method for IP addresses is difficult to scale because it requires an administrator to manually assign an address to every host?

a)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

b)

Static Configuration

c)

Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)

d)

Remote Access Configuration (RAC)

20.

What is a key drawback of distance-vector routing protocols compared to link-state routing protocols?

a)

They use too much bandwidth for periodic updates.

b)

They can cause severe routing loops if preventive measures are not taken.

c)

They cannot support Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM).

d)

They converge too quickly after a topology change.

21.

What action is performed by a switch when it uses MAC address filtering?

a)

It allows frames only to enter ports connected to a router.

b)

It drops any frame whose source MAC address is unknown.

c)

It uses the highest administrative distance to block unknown devices.

d)

It permits or denies network access based on the physical Layer 2 address of the endpoint device.

22.

When an IPv4 host sends an ARP request, how is that request transmitted on the network segment?

a)

As a unicast packet to the default gateway.

b)

As a broadcast frame to all devices on the local segment.

c)

As a multicast packet to the solicited-node multicast address.

d)

As a unicast packet directly to the destination MAC address.

23.

Which statement accurately describes a VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)?

a)

A logical Layer 3 segmentation defined by IP addressing.

b)

A redundant path between two routers protected by STP.

c)

A logical Layer 2 network segment that isolates traffic within a physical switch or across multiple switches.

d)

An encryption mechanism used to secure wireless access.

24.

What is the fundamental difference between routing and switching?

a)

Routing operates only on connected networks, while switching operates on remote networks.

b)

Routing uses only static configuration, while switching uses dynamic tables.

c)

Routing determines the path between networks, and switching determines the forwarding path within a single network.

d)

Routing uses MAC addresses, and switching uses IP addresses.

25.

Which routing protocol category computes loop-free paths through the network by having every router share information about what they are directly connected to, to every other router in the network?

a)

Distance-vector protocols

b)

Link-state protocols

c)

Exterior gateway protocols (EGP)

d)

Classful protocols

26.

When a router receives a packet, it removes the existing physical layer header and adds a new physical layer header. This process is necessary because:

a)

The IP address must be changed for the next hop.

b)

The destination physical address must be the MAC address of the next hop device.

c)

The Time-to-Live (TTL) field needs to be reset to 255.

d)

Routing protocols require a new metric to be calculated at each hop.

27.

What term describes the technique used in switching where the switch records the source MAC address and the port the frame arrived on?

a)

Bridge learning

b)

Address Resolution

c)

Link-state advertisement

d)

Contextual packet filtering

28.

What is the term for the undesirable condition in a network where packets travel indefinitely between two or more routers that have inaccurate routing information?

a)

Shared fate

b)

Asymmetric path

c)

Half-split failure

d)

Routing loop

29.

In an IPv4 environment, if a host needs an IP address, which protocol sends an initial request that is broadcast onto the local segment?

a)

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

b)

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)

c)

FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

d)

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

30.

If a packet enters a router configured with a route 192.0.2.0/24 via Interface A and another route 192.0.2.128/26 via Interface B, and the packet is destined for 192.0.2.130, which route is chosen?

a)

192.0.2.0/24 via Interface A, because it has the largest network capacity.

b)

The default route, because both prefixes overlap.

c)

192.0.2.128/26 via Interface B, based on the Longest Prefix Match rule.

d)

The route with the lowest calculated metric.

31.

The primary advantage of a switch over a hub is that the switch breaks up a large collision domain into smaller segments, thereby improving network throughput. How is this achieved?

a)

By increasing the maximum transmission unit (MTU).

b)

By allowing multiple concurrent transmissions across different switch ports.

c)

By using faster fiber-optic cables for all connections.

d)

By automatically assigning a default gateway to each connected device.

32.

When troubleshooting a routing issue, what component in the router stores the final list of best routes used for packet forwarding?

a)

The Link-State Database (LSDB)

b)

The MAC Address Table

c)

The Routing Information Base (RIB)

d)

The ARP Cache

33.

How does the Administrative Distance (AD) of a route function?

a)

It measures the physical distance (in meters) to the destination network.

b)

It dictates the packet’s Time-to-Live (TTL) value.

c)

It dictates which routing source (e.g., static, OSPF, RIP) is trusted most when multiple sources advertise the same network.

d)

It is the cost calculated by the SPF algorithm.

34.

Which protocol utilizes ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation (NS) messages and Neighbor Advertisement (NA) messages to resolve the physical address of a destination device on the network?

a)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

b)

Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)

c)

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

d)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

35.

Which protocol is used by IPv6 routers to discover other routers on the same link?

a)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

b)

Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)

c)

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

d)

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

36.

Which characteristic prevents classful routing protocols (like RIPv1) from being used effectively in modern networks that rely on network segmentation?

a)

They cannot include the subnet mask in their routing updates, making them unable to support Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM).

b)

They rely solely on manually configured static routes.

c)

They use asymmetric paths, which causes performance issues.

d)

They do not support IPv6 addressing.

37.

Which concept describes when packets traveling from host A to host B take a different path through the network than packets traveling from host B back to host A?

a)

Routing loop

b)

Convergent path

c)

Asymmetric path

d)

Single point of failure

38.

Which command is required on a Cisco router to enable its overall capability to process and forward IPv6 packets?

a)

ipv6 address

b)

ipv6 enable

c)

ipv6 unicast-routing

d)

interface ipv6

39.

In a Cisco router, what specialized component is specifically designed to efficiently handle the high-speed forwarding of packets without relying on the main CPU?

a)

The receiving ring

b)

The CPU/network stack

c)

The forwarding engine

d)

The console port

40.

What concept refers to the Layer 2 network segmentation that helps control the domain in which broadcast traffic is contained?

a)

Collision domain

b)

Broadcast domain

c)

Failure domain

d)

Virtual domain