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PMG1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A project is plagued by requested changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to decide if these changes are necessary?

a)

The project manager

b)

The project team

c)

The sponsor

d)

The stakeholders

2.

In Earned Value Management Technique, you can compute the Cost Performance Index (CPI) by applying which of following formula?

a)

CPI = EV / PV

b)

CPI = EV - AC

c)

CPI = EV - PV

d)

CPI = EV / AC

3.

True or False: Project manager should consider using milestones for high level reporting

a)

True

b)

False

4.

True or False: Project scope statement is better to define inclusions (in-scope items) than identify only exclusions (out of scope items).

a)

False

b)

True

5.

Which one is NOT the approach to shorten your project schedule?

a)

Fast Tracking

b)

Crashing

c)

Reducing

6.

A market demand, a business need, and a legal requirement are examples of:

a)

Reasons to hire a project manager

b)

Reasons projects are initiated

c)

Reasons to sponsor a project

7.

You have finished planning and have begun executing the project when the client asks if you would shorten the project duration so that the project can finish 2 weeks earlier than the original plan. How are the triple constraints affected?

a)

There is no relevant option except the project must be cut down on scope

b)

Scope and cost may both be affected

c)

Neither scope nor cost will be affected in any situation

d)

Cost will reduce as the project duration is shortened and scope is not changed

8.

You are assigned as the project manager in the middle of the project. The project is within the baselines, but the customer is not happy with the performance of the project. What is the first thing you should do?

a)

Discuss it with the project team

b)

Recalculate baselines

c)

Renegotiate the contract

d)

Meet with the customer

9.

In our lessons the acronym RAM stands for:

a)

Responsible Accountable Manageable

b)

Resource Aligned Management

c)

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

10.

When you report project status you compare actual performance to:

a)

The planned performance or baseline

b)

The performance of your competitors

c)

The performance of previous projects

11.

Which organization structure can provide the most power for the project manager?

a)

Functional

b)

Weak Matrix

c)

Balanced Matrix

d)

Projectized

12.

Which project management process group generally takes the most project time and resources?

a)

Executing

b)

Initiating

c)

Monitoring and controlling

d)

Closing

e)

Planning

13.

True or False: Each group of persons involved in the project should be assigned, and always needs to know their role and responsibility.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Which one is not the causes of scope creep?

a)

Decreased understanding of what is takes to get it done

b)

Changing stakeholder perspectives

c)

Poorly defined objectives

15.

True or False: Project quality focuses on the project management processes used to meet project objectives.

a)

False

b)

True

16.

Lateral communication is NOT communication to/from:

a)

Your customers

b)

Your friends

c)

Your subordinates

17.

True or False: In the context of a project, change is always a bad thing.

a)

False

b)

True

18.

Project scope differs from product scope in that:

a)

Project scope completion is measured against the features, functions, and product requirements.

b)

Project scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result.

19.

Your project has a team of which consists of yourself, a tester, five developers and a communicator. How many communication channels on your team?

a)

28

b)

36

c)

9

20.

True or False: The Cost Baseline is equal to the total of Activity Cost Estimates plus contingency reserves

a)

True

b)

False

21.

True or False: The danger of estimating using the same parametric model is the no longer applicable of historical data

a)

True

b)

False

22.

All of the following are inputs to estimating activity duration except:

a)

Enterprise Environmental Factor & Organizational Process Assets

b)

Risk Register & Scope Statement

c)

Project Documents Updates & Requirements Specifications

d)

Resource Calendars & Resource Breakdown Structure

23.

What are the 5 approaches to conflict discussed in the Project Human Resources Management Lesson?

a)

Confronting, Compromising, Smoothing, Uninterested, Challenging.

b)

Communicating, Compromising, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding.

c)

Confronting, Challenging, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding.

d)

Confronting, Compromising, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding.

24.

As you plan your project, you do so thinking that all team members will be assigned to your project for at least 50% of their available time. This is an example of:

a)

Wishful thinking.

b)

A project demand.

c)

An assumption.

d)

Poor planning.

25.

Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding management and contingency reserves?

a)

Both of them are included into the cost budget of the project.

b)

Both of them are not included into the cost budget of the project.

c)

Management reserve is included into the cost budget but contingency reserve is not.

d)

Contingency reserve is included into the cost budget but management reserve is not.

26.

All the following occur during the planning process group EXCEPT:

a)

Develop Project Charter

b)

Create WBS

c)

Estimate Costs

d)

Sequence Activities

27.

True or False: Influence means you have the right to apply resources, make decisions and give approvals.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which item would most likely NOT be part of a basic communication plan:

a)

What they need to know.

b)

The best medium for the communication.

c)

The amount of their annual bonus.

d)

With whom to communicate.

29.

To calculate late start (LS) of an activity, you will

a)

Take its late finish minus its estimated duration.

b)

Take its early finish minus its estimated duration.

c)

Take its early start plus its estimated duration.

d)

Take its early start

30.

Which of the components below do you think NOT belong in the cost management plan?

a)

Units of measure

b)

Earned value rules

c)

Control thresholds

d)

RACI matrix

31.

True or False: Conflict management is the process by which the project manager uses appropriate managerial techniques to deal with the inevitable disagreements that develop among those working toward project accomplishment.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

You are scheduling an activity which involves a government agency. What type of dependency are you working on?

a)

Discretionary

b)

Internal

c)

Mandatory

d)

External

33.

True or False: Project Human Resource Management includes the processes that organize, manage, and lead the project team.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

A project manager can defend against scope creep with a good ____________!

a)

Risk management plan

b)

Change control process

c)

Project management plan

d)

Procurement process

35.

Your stakeholder register is your primary output and should at least contain:

a)

Assessment information, identification information, and stakeholder classification

b)

Assessment information, identification information, and risk classification

c)

Job descriptions, identification information, and stakeholder classification

d)

Assessment information, scope information, and stakeholder classification

36.

Once you and your team identify and assess risks and develop responses you:

a)

Have completed your risk management responsibilities.

b)

Pay close attention to the risks identified and do not look for new risks.

c)

Only update your risk register when you are preparing to share it with your stakeholders.

d)

Continue to identify and monitor risks for the remainder of the project.

37.

If "review online modules" needs to begin before "develop online modules" can finish, that is called a

a)

Finish to start relationship.

b)

Start to finish relationship.

c)

Finish to finish relationship.

d)

Start to start relationship.

38.

True or False: The Project Sponsor is responsible for stakeholder expectations management.

a)

False

b)

True

39.

To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which of the following does not describe how far to decompose the work?

a)

Until it has a meaningful conclusion

b)

Until it cannot be logically subdivided further

c)

Until it can be done by one person

d)

Until it can be realistically estimated

40.

What description defines Bottoms Up Estimating?

a)

A technique that uses a mathematical model to estimate costs.

b)

A technique that analyzes activities on past projects and using them as a basis for estimating costs.

c)

A technique that involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or individual schedule activities with the lowest level of detail.

d)

A technique that involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or individual schedule activities with the lowest level of detail.

41.

Which of the following action should not include in the Scope Management Plan?

a)

Enable the creation and maintenance of the project work breakdown structure (WBS).

b)

Define how format verification and acceptance of the completed project deliverables will be accomplished.

c)

Control how requests for changes to the project scope will be processed.

d)

Prepare a project scope statement based upon the project charter.

42.

Define how to identify and manage triple constraints.

a)

Enable the creation and maintenance of the project work breakdown structure (WBS).

b)

Balance scope, time, and cost through trade-offs.

43.

The definition of a stakeholder includes:

a)

People and organizations that are not impacted by your project.

b)

The people or organizations that are positively or negatively impacted by your project.

44.

The purpose of project risk management is to:

a)

Minimize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of positive events.

b)

Eliminate the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project.

45.

Which element should NOT be included in risk management plan?

a)

Budgeting

b)

Risk Register

46.

An estimate created by looking at a similar project or activity and then adding or subtracting to or from the estimate based on the differences between the two is called:

a)

Analogous estimating

b)

Parametric estimating

47.

True or False: Project Human Resource Management includes the processes that define the tasks and assign them to suitable resources, and motivate project team to complete the tasks.

a)

False

b)

True

48.

All of the following is responsible for documenting lessons learned, except:

a)

Project manager

b)

Project team

c)

Key stakeholders

d)

Key competitors

49.

When you schedule work in a specific order because it cannot be completed any other way, what is the type of dependency used?

a)

Discretionary

b)

Internal

c)

Mandatory

d)

External

50.

True or False: Performance reporting aims to inform stakeholders how resources are being used to achieve the project's objectives.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

True or False: The primary goal of project risk management is to maximize the likelihood and impact of negative events or threats and to minimize the likelihood and impact of positive events or opportunities.

a)

False

b)

True

52.

The network diagram is the best tool for demonstrating:

a)

Schedule performance over time

b)

Schedule variances

c)

Resource requirements

d)

The sequence of project activities

53.

Which statement is not correct?

a)

Project scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result.

b)

Product scope completion is measured against the product requirement.

c)

Project scope completion is measured against the project management plan and specially the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary.

d)

Product scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to complete a project

54.

As you plan your project, the sponsor informed you that all team members will be assigned to your project for at most 50% of their available time. This is an example of:

a)

Poor planning

b)

Wishful thinking

c)

A project demand

d)

A constraint

55.

True or False: Project Cost Management processes aim to help the project can be completed within the approved budget.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which of the following is NOT the disadvantages of top-down estimating?

a)

Costly to create

b)

Less accurate

c)

Requires considerable experience to do well

d)

Does not take into account the differences between projects

57.

Which one of these is not the approaches to conflict discussed in the Project Human Resources Management Lesson?

a)

Confronting

b)

Compromising

c)

Smoothing

d)

Forcing

e)

Avoiding

58.

True or False: The Backward Pass is used through the activities to determine the critical path & available float of the project.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

True or False: Performing quality control within the context of a project involves taking actions to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory project performance.

a)

False

b)

True

60.

True or False: Risk management is one-time process. You need to plan for all possible risks at the project beginning and then follow defined actions to control those risks until they are closed or cancelled.

a)

False

b)

True

61.

Your Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is greater than 1 means you are:

a)

on schedule.

b)

behind schedule.

c)

ahead of schedule.

62.

True or False: If "develop online modules" needs to begin before "review online modules" can begin, that is called a start to start relationship.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Which process group focuses on completing the requirements of the project?

a)

Initiating

b)

Planning

c)

Executing

d)

Monitoring and controlling

e)

Closing

64.

True or False: The worst organization to use to run a project will always be the functional organization.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which of the following best describes the project manager's role as an integrator?

a)

Help team members become familiar with the project

b)

Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole

c)

Put all the pieces of a project into a program

d)

Get all team members together into a cohesive whole

66.

True or False: If you want to identify who your stakeholders are, asking who will not be impacted by the product or service being created can be helpful.

a)

False

b)

True

67.

When you and your team know that a positive risk has a high likelihood of occurring and it will be very beneficial if it does:

a)

You should not document the risk as it will not impact badly to your project.

b)

You should develop a contingency plan and ask your management for contingency reserve.

68.

Which risk response is appropriate when you want to reduce the likelihood of a threat occurring?

a)

Develop a mitigation plan

b)

Create a contingency plan

c)

Transfer the risk externally

d)

Accept the risk as-is

69.

In a RACI matrix, what do the Consulted (C) stakeholders primarily do?

a)

Provide subject matter expertise

b)

Make the final decision

c)

Be kept informed of progress

d)

Complete assigned project work

70.

What does an S-Curve most commonly display in project control?

a)

Planned cost over project timeline

b)

Quality defects across milestones

c)

Resource usage by skill category

d)

Risk probability trends by phase

71.

How do you calculate the Late Finish (LF) for an activity with a single successor in a finish-to-start relationship?

a)

LF equals successor’s LS

b)

LF equals successor’s ES

c)

LF equals successor’s LF

d)

LF equals successor’s EF

72.

Which estimating approach is best when detail is available and high accuracy is needed?

a)

Bottom-up estimating

b)

Top-down estimating

c)

Analogous estimating

d)

Parametric estimating

73.

When durations or resource quantities are uncertain, which estimating approach is preferable?

a)

Top-down estimating

b)

Bottom-up estimating

c)

Three-point estimating

d)

Definitive estimating

74.

Who typically authorizes the project charter?

a)

The project sponsor

b)

The PMO director

c)

The functional manager

d)

The project manager

75.

Effective project communication management primarily aims to do what among stakeholders?

a)

Create a shared understanding

b)

Enforce strict reporting

c)

Minimize meeting frequency

d)

Limit information access

76.

What is the best way to share an urgent, important announcement with your project team for immediate clarity and follow-up?

a)

Hold a quick meeting

b)

Send a tracked email

c)

Post printed notices

d)

Share an instant message

77.

Which statement best defines management reserve?

a)

Not tied to specific work packages

b)

Tied to a single milestone

c)

Equal to contingency reserve

d)

Allocated to each activity

78.

From the WBS, which of the following is NOT directly derived?

a)

Business need for the project

b)

Activity list for delivery

c)

Schedule baseline artifacts

d)

Cost performance baseline

79.

Operational work differs from project work in that operational work is primarily what?

a)

Ongoing and repetitive

b)

Temporary and unique

c)

Part of each activity

d)

Time-bound deliverables

80.

Authority in project management grants the right to do which of the following?

a)

Apply resources and approve

b)

Delegate reporting only

c)

Monitor but not decide

d)

Observe without influence

81.

A client requests adding significant features during execution. Which constraints are most likely impacted?

a)

Time and cost together

b)

Scope only changes

c)

Cost remains constant

d)

Time remains unchanged

82.

Which formula correctly estimates EAC when future performance is expected to continue at the current CPI?

a)

EAC equals BAC divided by CPI

b)

EAC equals BAC plus CPI

c)

EAC equals BAC minus SPI

d)

EAC equals BAC plus SPI

83.

Downward communication typically flows to which audience?

a)

Your direct reports

b)

Your senior management

c)

Your social groups

d)

Your project peers

84.

Which statement about the critical path is correct?

a)

It has zero total float

b)

It shows shortest duration

c)

It can be delayed freely

d)

It changes daily randomly

85.

In a matrix organization, project communications can best be expected to be what?

a)

Complex in structure

b)

Simple and linear

c)

Hard to automate

d)

Open and casual

86.

Finalizing the scope baseline primarily involves contributions from whom?

a)

The project team

b)

Functional managers

c)

Only business analyst

d)

Executive sponsors

87.

Which artifact is least likely used to define or communicate roles and responsibilities?

a)

Project charter narrative

b)

RACI responsibility chart

c)

Resource management plan

d)

Role descriptions register

88.

Which chart best shows responsibilities across project roles and deliverables?

a)

Organization chart

b)

WBS

c)

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

d)

Run chart

89.

You are building a square fence project: four sides, one day per side, $1,000 budget per side, done sequentially. Today is end of day 3. Using the project status chart, calculate current CV.

a)

CV=$300

b)

CV=$100

c)

CV=$250

d)

CV=$200

e)

CV=$150

90.

You are building four 10,000 sq ft buildings using the same drawings used two years ago in another city. What is a danger of estimating with the same parametric model of $50 per square foot?

a)

Takes much more time than bottoms‑up

b)

Not very easy to scale

c)

Historical cost relationships may not apply

d)

Technical design is unstable

91.

The 8‑80 rule refers to:

a)

Work packages NOT between 8 and 80 hours

b)

Work over 80 hours split among resources

c)

Work packages between 8 and 80 hours

d)

Never allow team to work over 8 hours daily

92.

Which view of conflict is correct?

a)

Can (and should) be managed

b)

Cause by troublemakers

c)

Should be avoided

d)

Always bad

93.

If “develop online modules” must finish before “review online modules” can finish, this is called a:

a)

Finish‑to‑finish relationship

b)

Finish‑to‑start relationship

c)

Start‑to‑start relationship

d)

Start‑to‑finish relationship

94.

The team must estimate several activities never previously done by the company. What is the best method for estimating these activities?

a)

Top‑down estimating

b)

Three‑point estimating

c)

Parametric estimating

d)

Bottom‑up estimating

95.

Which of the following is NOT an output of Plan Scope Management? Choose 2 answers.

a)

Scope Management Plan

b)

Requirement Management Plan

c)

Quality Management Plan

d)

Time Management Plan

96.

A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a deliverable‑oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team.

a)

False

b)

True

97.

To control the incidence and frequency of change, the project manager establishes a:

a)

Work breakdown structure

b)

Responsibility assignment matrix

c)

Work procedure schedule

d)

Change control process

98.

You should compare project performance against the performance measurement baseline to look for potential changes in the project.

a)

False

b)

True

99.

Project quality focuses on the goods and services.

a)

False

b)

True

100.

A sponsor requires local government approval of a proposed building design before construction can begin. This dependency is:

a)

Internal

b)

External

c)

Mandatory

d)

Discretionary

101.

Crashing is the approach to re‑plan the work and try to perform more overlapping sequential activities in parallel.

a)

False

b)

True

102.

The Process Improvement Plan is a component of the project management plan detailing how project management and development processes are analyzed to increase their value.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

In a projectized organization, team members are never assigned to the project full time.

a)

False

b)

True

104.

Which of these is an example of role conflict?

a)

Team member does not know how to do job

b)

Team member does not know why task is needed

c)

Two team members trying to complete same task

d)

Team member is late completing a task

105.

The term resources only refers to people; it does not include money or equipment.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

To calculate early start (ES) of an activity with more than one immediate predecessor, you will:

a)

Take latest late finish of predecessors

b)

Take latest late start of predecessors

c)

Take latest early finish of predecessors

d)

Take latest early start of predecessors

107.

All of the following tools and techniques can be valuable in risk identification, EXCEPT:

a)

Reviewing and evaluating project documents

b)

EVM (Earned Value Management)

c)

SWOT (Strengths, Opportunities, Weaknesses, Threats)

d)

Reviewing similar past projects

108.

Using the RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform) version of the RAM, those who are responsible are:

a)

The decision owners

b)

The task doers

c)

Stakeholders to be consulted

d)

Parties to be informed

109.

Which one is not mentioned explicitly in the three components of the triple constraints?

a)

Quality

b)

Time

c)

Scope

d)

Cost

110.

The following table is an activity list that includes the duration and predecessor for a series of project activities. What is the duration of the critical path?

a)

11

b)

13

c)

9

d)

14

111.

True or False: Quality management is the job done by project manager herself to determine quality policies, objectives and responsibilities so that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.

a)

False

b)

True

112.

Which one of these is not the major source of conflict that a project manager may influence?

a)

Project priorities

b)

Project management

c)

Project resources

d)

Project team

113.

True or False: Performance reporting aims to inform stakeholders the good achievements of the project's objectives weekly or monthly.

a)

False

b)

True

114.

The purpose of project risk management is to:

a)

Eliminate the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to decrease the likelihood or impact of positive events.

b)

Minimize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of positive events.

c)

Minimize the likelihood or the impact of positive events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of negative events.

d)

Neutralize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to neutralize the likelihood or impact of positive events.

115.

Downward communication is communication to/from:

a)

Your peers

b)

Your social groups

c)

Your senior management

d)

Your direct reports

116.

Which of the following is included in a project charter?

a)

Work package estimates

b)

A risk management strategy

c)

The business case for the project

d)

Detailed resources estimates

117.

True or False: Using bottom-up estimating techniques when the detail is available and the accuracy is needed

a)

True

b)

False

118.

A cost can be either direct or indirect. Which of the following statements are correct (choose 2 answers)

a)

Indirect costs: These costs are directly attributable to the work on the project. Examples are team wages, team travel and recognition expenses, and costs of material used on the project

b)

Indirect costs: These costs are overhead items or costs incurred for the benefit of more than one project. Examples include taxes, fringe benefits, and janitorial services

c)

Direct costs: These costs are overhead items or costs incurred for the benefit of more than one project. Examples include taxes, fringe benefits, and janitorial services

d)

Direct costs: These costs are directly attributable to the work on the project. Examples are team wages, team travel and recognition expenses, and costs of material used on the project

119.

Which of the following is NOT the advantages of top-down estimating?

a)

Quick

b)

Less costly to create

c)

Activities do not need to be identified

d)

More accurate

120.

A company is making an effort to improve its project performance and create historical records of past projects. What is the best way to accomplish this?

a)

Create lessons learned

b)

Create progress reports

c)

Create status reports

d)

Create project management plan

121.

Identify the five engagement levels of stakeholders:

a)

Unaware, ware resistant strong willed supportive, leading

b)

Unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, leading

c)

Unaware, resistant strong-willed supportive, sponsor

d)

Unaware resistant, neutral supportive, oblivious

122.

True or False: The Project Budget is equal to only the Cost Baseline budget

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding milestones?

a)

They are some points in time which have no duration

b)

They are completely defined in the project charter

c)

Identify major events of the project deliverables

d)

They are supported by activities on detail schedules

124.

The network diagram can be used to:

a)

Control the cost performance of the project

b)

Show project schedule performance over time

c)

Identify project resource requirements

d)

Help to identify riskier activities

e)

Help to justify project quality metrics

125.

If the response you choose is to accept a risk this means that

a)

You change your plans so that you eliminate the risk.

b)

You actively do not consider the risk but establish contingency plan

c)

You change your plan so that another party will be responsible for the risk

d)

You create your plan to reduce the probability and/or the impact of the risk

126.

All of the following are inputs to estimating activity durations except:

a)

Project Documents Updates & Requirements Specifications

b)

Resource Calendars & Resource Breakdown Structure

c)

Risk Register & Scope Statement

d)

Enterprise Environmental Factors & Organizational Process Assets

127.

True or False: Performing quality control within the context of a project involves taking actions to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory project performance.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Which project management process group generally takes the most project time and resources?

a)

Monitoring and controlling

b)

Initiating

c)

Executing

d)

Closing

e)

Planning

129.

A project manager is trying to complete a software development project, but cannot get enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work, and the project manager has little authority to assign resources. What form of organization must the project manager be working in?

a)

Functional

b)

Matrix

c)

Projectized

d)

Coordinator

130.

A project manager's primary responsibility is to deliver the product of the project within project constraints. Actions taken and changes made to the benefit of one constraint could negatively affect another. Which of the following best describes the major constraints on a project?

a)

Scope, number of resources, and cost

b)

Scope, cost, and schedule

c)

Scope, schedule, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction

d)

Schedule, cost, and number of changes

131.

Which of the following best describes a project management plan?

a)

A printout from project management software

b)

A bar chart

c)

Scope, risk, resource, and other management plan

d)

A project schedule

132.

True or False: The Project Charter is a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project. It provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

a)

False

b)

True

133.

Scope creep results in all of the following, except

a)

Completion delays

b)

Escalation of costs

c)

Increases in project complexity

d)

Decreases in project complexity

134.

True or False: In the context of a project, change is always a bad thing.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

During executing, the project manager determines that a change is needed to material purchased for the project. The project manager calls a meeting of the team to plan how to make the changes. This is an example of

a)

Management by objectives

b)

Lack of a change management plan

c)

Good team relations

d)

Lack of a clear work breakdown structure

136.

Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned register. Which of the following is the best use of lessons learned?

a)

Historical records for future projects

b)

Planning record for the current project

c)

Informing the team about what the project manager has done

d)

Informing the team about the project management plan

137.

A new project manager asks for advice on creating a work breakdown structure (WBS). You explain that the picture is not the most valuable result of creating a WBS. The most valuable result of a WBS is:

a)

A Gantt chart

b)

Team buy-in

c)

Activities

d)

A list of risks

138.

A project manager may use ___ to make sure the team members clearly know what is included in each of their work packages.

a)

The project scope statement

b)

The product scope

c)

The WBS dictionary

d)

The WBS

139.

All of the following are inputs to estimating activity durations except:

a)

Organizational process assets

b)

Activity list and activity attributes

c)

Requirements specifications

d)

Resource calendars and scope statement

140.

Your team member informs you that the test system must be refreshed with your test data before testing begins. This dependency is:

a)

Discretionary

b)

Internal

c)

Mandatory

d)

External

141.

True or False: If "review online modules" needs to begin before "develop online modules" can finish, that is called a start-to-finish relationship.

a)

True

b)

False

142.

To calculate late finish (LF) of an activity which has more than one successor, you will

a)

Take the earliest late start of its immediate successors

b)

Take the earliest early start of its immediate successors

c)

Take the earliest late finish of its immediate successors

d)

Take the earliest early finish of its immediate successors

143.

True or False: The critical path is made up of all zero float activities (activities have floats equal to zero) in the project network diagram.

a)

False

b)

True

144.

True or False: Fast Tracking is the approach to add more resources (labor, overtime, etc.) into the activities to reduce their durations.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of top-down estimating?

a)

Slow

b)

Less accurate

c)

Requires considerable experience to do well

d)

Does not take into account the differences between projects

146.

A team member tells you that her work is too creative to provide a fixed single estimate for the activity. You both decide to use the average labor hours (from past, similar projects) to develop a prototype. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

Parametric estimating

b)

Three-point estimating

c)

Analogous estimating

147.

The Project Scope Statement should include the following:

a)

Project exclusions, project constraints, project plan.

b)

Project deliverables, project constraints, project team members.

c)

Project deliverables, project constraints, project assumptions.

d)

Project exclusions, project charter, project assumptions.

148.

True or False: The WBS should completely depict the scope of your project that if something is not in the WBS it is because it is NOT part of the project.

a)

False

b)

True

149.

True or False: The Forward Pass is used through the activities to determine the critical path and available float of the project.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

True or False: The Project Budget is equal to only the Cost Baseline budget.

a)

True

b)

False