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TENS and Galvanic Current Quiz

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary pain relief mechanism of conventional (high-frequency) TENS is:

a)

Segmental analgesia via opioid release

b)

Gate control theory

c)

Descending inhibition from periaqueductal gray

d)

Peripheral nerve blockade

2.

Acupuncture-like TENS primarily works through:

a)

Gate control mechanism

b)

Release of endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins, dynorphin)

c)

Direct muscle contraction

d)

Sympathetic blockade

3.

The typical frequency range for conventional TENS is:

a)

1-10 Hz

b)

50-150 Hz

c)

10-50 Hz

d)

150-250 Hz

4.

Burst TENS is a combination of:

a)

High frequency + high intensity

b)

Low frequency (2-10 Hz) bursts at high frequency carrier (50-100 Hz)

c)

Continuous low frequency

d)

Random frequency

5.

Which of the following is a contraindication for TENS?

a)

Lumbar back pain

b)

Pacemaker

c)

Knee osteoarthritis

d)

Phantom limb pain

6.

Galvanic current is:

a)

Biphasic pulsed current

b)

Unidirectional flow of electrons (continuous DC)

c)

Symmetrical biphasic AC

d)

Interrupted DC

7.

Under the cathode (negative electrode) of galvanic current, the following occurs:

a)

Acid reaction, hardening of tissues

b)

Alkaline reaction, softening of tissues

c)

No chemical change

d)

Muscle contraction

8.

The main therapeutic use of galvanic current is:

a)

Muscle strengthening

b)

Iontophoresis and facilitation of wound healing

c)

Pain modulation via gate control

d)

Edema reduction by muscle pump

9.

Interrupted Galvanic Current is used primarily for:

a)

Iontophoresis

b)

Testing denervated muscle and electrodiagnosis

c)

Chronic pain relief

d)

Transcranial stimulation

10.

Duration of current flow in interrupted galvanic stimulation for denervated muscle is usually:

a)

1-10 ms

b)

10-100 ms

c)

100-600 ms or more

d)

< 1 ms

11.

Faradic current is a type of:

a)

Short-duration interrupted direct current

b)

Asymmetric biphasic pulsed current (pulse duration ~1 ms, frequency 50-100 Hz)

c)

Symmetrical biphasic sinusoidal current

d)

Monophasic triangular pulse

12.

Faradic current is primarily used for stimulation of:

a)

Denervated muscle

b)

Normally innervated muscle

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

Cardiac muscle

13.

In complete denervation (lower motor neuron lesion), faradic current typically produces:

a)

Strong tetanic contraction

b)

Twitch contraction

c)

No response

d)

Painful burning sensation

14.

Surged faradic current is used to:

a)

Prevent fatigue and produce near-physiological contraction

b)

Diagnose reaction of degeneration

c)

Perform iontophoresis

d)

Stimulate denervated muscle

15.

The typical pulse duration of faradic current is approximately:

a)

0.1-1 ms

b)

10-50 ms

c)

100-600 ms

d)

>1 second

16.

The mildest form of nerve injury according to Seddon is:

a)

Axonotmesis

b)

Neurotmesis

c)

Neurapraxia

d)

Neurolysis

17.

In neurapraxia (Sunderland Grade 1), there is:

a)

Axonal loss with intact endoneurium

b)

Conduction block with intact axons and connective tissue

c)

Complete transection

d)

Wallerian degeneration

18.

Which type of nerve injury shows complete loss of motor, sensory, and autonomic function with no recovery without surgical intervention?

a)

Neurapraxia

b)

Axonotmesis

c)

Neurotmesis

d)

Grade 3 Sunderland

19.

Wallerian degeneration occurs in:

a)

Neurapraxia only

b)

Axonotmesis and neurotmesis

c)

Neurotmesis only

d)

All grades

20.

In Sunderland Grade 2 injury:

a)

Only myelin is damaged

b)

Axons and endoneurium damaged, perineurium intact

c)

Axons lost but endoneurium intact

d)

Epineurium disrupted

21.

The slowest expected regeneration rate after axonotmesis is approximately:

a)

1 mm/day

b)

1-3 mm/day

c)

5-8 mm/day

d)

10 mm/day

22.

Reaction of degeneration (RD) is typically complete by:

a)

24-48 hours

b)

3-5 days

c)

7-14 days

d)

3 weeks

23.

f degeneration (RD) is typically complete by:

a)

24-48 hours

b)

3-5 days

c)

7-14 days

d)

3 weeks

24.

In partial reaction of degeneration, faradic response is lost but galvanic response is:

a)

Lost completely

b)

Sluggish but present

c)

Brisk

d)

Absent only in proximal muscles

25.

Strength-Duration Curve in denervated muscle is shifted to the:

a)

Left

b)

Right with increased rheobase and chronaxie

c)

No change

d)

Becomes rectangular

26.

Kinking or stretching of nerve without disruption of epineurium is classified as:

a)

Neurapraxia

b)

Grade 4 Sunderland

c)

Axonotmesis

d)

Neurotmesis

27.

A patient with wrist drop after humerus fracture shows no response to faradic current but sluggish contraction to long-duration galvanic current. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Neurapraxia

b)

Axonotmesis

c)

Neurotmesis

d)

Normal innervation

28.

For iontophoresis of dexamethasone in lateral epicondylitis, the drug should be placed under:

a)

Anode (+)

b)

Cathode (-)

c)

Either electrode

d)

No need of electrode gel

29.

TENS is least effective in:

a)

Postoperative pain

b)

Labor pain

c)

Neuropathic pain due to complete nerve transection

d)

Myofascial pain

30.

"Accommodation" phenomenon is most prominent with:

a)

Faradic current

b)

Conventional TENS

c)

Long-duration monophasic (galvanic) current

d)

Russian current

31.

Electrical stimulation of completely denervated muscle is done primarily to:

a)

Re-innervate the muscle

b)

Prevent fibrosis and maintain muscle extensibility

c)

Strengthen the muscle permanently

d)

Increase blood flow only

32.

According to Maitland's grading system, Grade III mobilisation is described as:

a)

Small amplitude movement at the beginning of range

b)

Large amplitude movement into resistance

c)

Large amplitude movement not reaching end-range

d)

Small amplitude movement at the end of available range

33.

Kaltenborn's Grade II traction/mobilisation corresponds most closely to which Maitland grade?

a)

Grade I

b)

Grade II

c)

Grade III

d)

Grade IV

34.

The "end-feel" in a normal healthy joint during passive accessory movement is usually:

a)

Empty

b)

Hard bone-on-bone or ligamentous

c)

Spasm

d)

Springy block

35.

A capsular (cyriax) end-feel is typically described as:

a)

Hard

b)

Soft

c)

Leathery or "thick stretch"

d)

Empty

36.

Grade V manipulation (thrust) in the Maitland concept is performed:

a)

At the end of available range with high-velocity, low-amplitude thrust

b)

Slowly through full range

c)

Only as a Grade IV oscillation

d)

Only in the pain-free range

37.

The convex-concave rule states that when a convex joint surface moves on a concave surface:

a)

Glide occurs in the same direction as the bone movement

b)

Glide occurs in the opposite direction to the bone movement

c)

Only traction is required

d)

No glide is needed

38.

To increase flexion of the glenohumeral joint using accessory movement, the correct mobilising technique on the humerus is:

a)

Anterior glide

b)

Posterior glide

c)

Caudal glide

d)

Lateral distraction

39.

Contraindications to joint mobilisation/manipulation include all EXCEPT:

a)

Hypermobility syndrome

b)

Malignancy affecting bone

c)

Acute inflammatory arthritis

d)

Mechanical neck pain without red flags

40.

"Oscillations" in Grades I-IV mobilisations are performed at a rate of approximately:

a)

5-10 per second

b)

1-2 per second (or as patient comfort allows)

c)

20-30 per second

d)

Only sustained for 30-60 seconds without oscillation

41.

The primary goal of Grade I and II mobilisations is:

a)

To stretch contracted capsule/ligaments

b)

Pain relief and neurophysiological effect

c)

To break adhesions

d)

To improve muscle strength