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7th Grade Fall ACP Review

Total questions: 197

Worksheet time: 5hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

One piece of evidence that supports the Theory of Plate Tectonics is found in the observation of rocks on either side of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, shown in the picture provided. Plate Tectonic theory is supported because as you move out form the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, the rocks -

a)

have higher iron content.

b)

become thicker and thicker.

c)

are increasingly older.

d)

are made of smaller particles.

2.

Scientists theorized that the continents were once joined together even before they had modern evidence from rocks and fossils. Using only maps, they observed that -

a)

continents with the most temperate climates were found near the Equator.

b)

the oceans have become smaller throughout the history of Earth.

c)

the shapes of continents appeared to allow them to fit together.

d)

most of the larger land masses are in the Northern Hemisphere.

3.

The Dead Sea to the north of Africa has formed where land is thinning and sinking. This is a result of the interaction of tectonic plates. The Dead Sea -

a)

is located in the center of a rotating plate.

b)

sits on a boundary between plates moving apart.

c)

formed where one plate covers another.

d)

formed from melting due to solar radiation.

4.

The earthquakes experienced in California are related to tectonic plates because these catastrophic events are the result of -

a)

two tectonic plates sliding past each other.

b)

tectonic plates melting as they slide into the mantle.

c)

tectonic plates being weathered over time.

d)

two tectonic plates pulling away from each other.

5.

One piece of evidence that supports the Theory of Plate Tectonics is the discovery of what in both South America and Africa?

a)

The ancient atmosphere in both places was identical.

b)

The rates of weathering of rock are similar.

c)

Fossil remains of the same land-dwelling animal.

d)

Plants on both continents have similar flowers.

6.

Even before modern observations provided evidence that supports the Theory of Plate Tectonics, people developed theories that the continents were once joined together. Using only maps, they observed that -

a)

most of the larger land masses are in the Northern Hemisphere.

b)

continents with the most moderate climates were located near the Equator.

c)

the shapes of continents appeared to allow them to fit together.

d)

the oceans have decreased in size throughout the history of Earth.

7.

Which of the following features is likely to form where two tectonic plates push toward each other?

a)

Ocean shoreline

b)

Mountain range

c)

Mid-ocean ridge

d)

Rift valley

8.

Every 100,000 to 200,000 years, the magnetic poles of Earth reverse. Rocks that contain iron provide a record of both normal and reversed magnetic poles. The pattern of normal and reversed magnetic poles as recorded in the rock on either side of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge provide evidence supporting the Theory of Plate Tectonics because -

a)

the composition of the rock changed every time the plates pushed against each other.

b)

the symmetric pattern shows where plates are moving away from each other.

c)

deposits of iron in the rock were only made when the plates stopped moving.

d)

" the bands of rock showing normal and reversed poles are not all the same width."

9.

Which of the following crustal features would be the result of two continental tectonic plates moving away from each other?

a)

Mountain range

b)

Volcanoes on land

c)

Rift valley

d)

Mid-ocean ridge

10.
What causes tectonic plates to move along the Earth's surface?
a)
wind
b)
ocean currents
c)
convection in the mantle
d)
expansion of the Earth
11.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move away from each other?
a)
transform
b)
subduction
c)
convergent
d)
divergent
12.
What forms at a divergent boundary between two oceanic plates?
a)
rift valley
b)
mountain
c)
mid-ocean ridge
d)
trench
13.
Which type of crust is more dense?
a)
oceanic
b)
continental
c)
divergent
d)
pizza
14.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move toward each other?
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
d)
lateral
15.
What forms at a convergent boundary between a continental plate and an oceanic plate?
a)
volcanoes
b)
rift valleys
c)
faults
d)
mid-ocean ridges
16.
A rift valley occurs at a ____________ boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
horizontal
17.
What is the process in which hot molten rock rises, then cools and sinks back to the core?
a)
plate tectonics
b)
continental drift
c)
convection
d)
divergence
18.
A trench forms at a _________ boundary.
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
d)
vertical
19.
Mountains form at a ___________ boundary.
a)
transform
b)
divergent
c)
convergent
d)
subduction
20.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates slide past each other?
a)
divergent
b)
transform
c)
lateral
d)
convergent
21.
A fault forms at a _________ boundary.
a)
transform
b)
divergent
c)
horizontal
d)
convergent
22.
What type of boundary is shown at A?
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
subduction
23.
What is happening at point B?
a)
subduction
b)
a divergent boundary
c)
convection
d)
an earthquake
24.
What is the process in which two plates move toward each other but one sinks under the other?
a)
subduction
b)
convection
c)
divergence
d)
transformation
25.

A watershed is a

a)

storm drain

b)

aquifer

c)

a place where wter is stored

d)

an area of land that drains into a stream, river, or lake

26.

A small river that flows into a larger is called a

a)

tributary

b)

brook

c)

river

d)

bay

27.

How do watersheds get their names?

a)

After the person who discovered them

b)

For the region they are located

c)

For the body of water they drain into

d)

None of these

28.

Rainfall seeps underground through a process called

a)

precipitation

b)

percolation

29.

Water held underground in the soil or in pores and crevices in rocks is called

a)

groundwater

b)

a divide

c)

run off

d)

surface water

30.

Not all people live in a watershed.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Human activities do not affect a watershed.

a)

True

b)

False

32.
In an energy pyramid, energy_______ as you move up the pyramid.
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
d)
Changes up and down
33.

In this energy pyramid, which organisms have the most energy available?

a)

Producers

b)

Carnivores

c)

Herbivores

d)

Top Predator

34.

In this energy pyramid, which organism has the least amount of energy available?

a)

Producers

b)

Herbivores

c)

Carnivores

d)

Top Predator

35.
The diagram represents a pyramid of energy in an ecosystem.  Which level would most likely contain members of the plant kingdom?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
36.
If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?
a)
10 Kcal
b)
1 Kcal
c)
100 Kcal
d)
1000 Kcal
37.
This diagram shows the amount of energy that moves from one feeding level to another in a food web.
a)
Energy Pyramid
b)
Food Web
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Food Chain
38.
The diagram is intended to show relationships in an ecosystem. What do the arrows represent?
a)
The direction of population migration
b)
Differences in dietary habits
c)
Progressively smaller organisms
d)
The direction of the energy flow
39.
The diagram represents different levels of a marine food pyramid. Between which two levels is the greatest amount of energy transferred
a)
R and Q
b)
S and R
c)
T and S
d)
U and T
40.
The diagram represents a model of a food pyramid.  Which statement best describes what happens in this food pyramid?
a)
More organisms die at higher levels than at lower levels, resulting in less mass at higher levels.
b)
Energy is lost to the environment at each level, so less mass can be supported at each higher level.
c)
When organisms die at higher levels, their remains sink to lower levels, increasing the mass of lower levels.
d)
Organisms decay at each level, and thus less mass can be supported at higher levels
41.

What does a pyramid of numbers compare?

a)

the number of individual organisms at each trophic level

b)

the number of individuals in each population

c)

the number of predators and prey in an ecosystem

d)

the number of different populations at each trophic level

42.

Which body system provides oxygen to all parts of the bodies?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Respiratory

c)

Nervous

d)

Muscular

43.

Which body system is the largest?

a)

Integumentary (skin)

b)

Circulatory

c)

Repiratory

d)

Skeletal

44.

Which body system provides calcium to the body.

a)

Skeletal

b)

Muscular

c)

Circulatory

d)

Respiratory

45.

In which body system is the exchange for carbon dioxide for oxygen take place?

a)

Respiratory

b)

Circulatory

c)

Endocrine

d)

Skeletal

46.

Which body system produces a growth hormone?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Muscular

c)

Respiratory

d)

Excretory

47.

This system gives your body shape and support

a)

Skeletal

b)

Muscular

c)

Nervous

d)

Respiratory

48.

This body system contains the brain and spinal cord.

a)

Nervous

b)

Muscular

c)

Excretory

d)

Skeletal

49.

This system has both white blood cells and red blood cells.

a)

Circulatory

b)

Respiratory

c)

Nervous

d)

Endocrine

50.

This body system is the first line for defense against bacteria and viruses.

a)

Integumentary (skin)

b)

Nervous

c)

Circulatory

d)

Muscular

51.

Two body systems work together to help remove waste products from blood. What are these two systems?

a)

Circulatory and Excretory

b)

Respiratory and Muscular

c)

Endocrine and Excretory

d)

Nervous and Skeletal

52.

Which statement best describes the function of this human body system?

a)

supplies oxygen to the blood, which in turn,

delivers oxygen to all parts of the body

b)

breaks down food into nutrients and wastes

c)

produces and secretes hormones which regulate metabolism, growth, and development

d)

provides support and movement for the body

53.

A student touches a hot stove and immediately withdraws her hand from it. Nerves within her hand felt pain from the hot stove. Which body system includes the three layers of skin that function to protect deeper tissue

a)

Integumentary

b)

Respiatory

c)

Circulator

d)

Skeletal

54.

A student touches a hot stove and immediately withdraws her hand from it. The student experienced an adrenaline rush when she felt the heat from the stove. Chemicals rushed through her body, giving her a little scare. The body system that produces such chemicals that affect other parts of the body is the:

a)

Endocrine System

b)

Circulatory System

c)

Respiratory System

d)

Skeletal System

55.

Muscles move the body by

a)

pulling on bones

b)

stimulating the spinal cord

c)

squeezing ligaments

d)

pushing on tendons

56.

What organ system in the human body contains the pituitary gland, hypothalamus gland, and thyroid gland?

a)

Endocrine System

b)

Muscular System

c)

Integumentary System

d)

Nervous System

57.

To which organ system do the esophagus, liver, pancreas, small intestine, and colon belong?

a)

Digestive

b)

Muscular

c)

Nervous

d)

Endocrine

58.

Which system absorbs and carries food from the digestive system to the rest of the body?

a)

Circulatory system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Nervous system

d)

Endocrine system

59.

Oxygen-rich blood returns from the lungs to the heart. Which two systems are most directly involved in this process?

a)

respiratory and circulatory

b)

excretory and digestive

c)

circulatory and excretory

d)

digestive and respiratory

60.

Which body system is most responsible for the removal of waste?

a)

Excretory system

b)

Nervous system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Skeletal system

61.

The major function of the kidneys is to

a)

filter waste and by products

b)

carry blood back to the heart

c)

break down nutrients

d)

exchange gases

62.

Organs and tissues that perform the same function is called ___________?

a)

Cells

b)

Organ System

c)

Tissue

d)

Organs

63.

A group of tissue that perform a similar function is called__________________. (Example: heart, lungs, stomach)

a)

Cell

b)

Organ

c)

Tissue

d)

Organ System

64.

A group of cells that have similar functions? Examples are nervous, epithelial, muscle, and connective

a)

Cells

b)

Organs

c)

Tissue

d)

Atoms

65.

The _____________ is the basic unit of life

a)

Cell

b)

Organ

c)

Tissue

d)

Atom

66.

When many organ systems work together is can form...

a)

Cell

b)

Tissue

c)

Organ

d)

Organism

67.

A structure made of two or more tissues that work together is a ________________?

a)

Cell

b)

Tissue

c)

Organ

d)

Organ System

68.

This is an example of

a)

Cell

b)

Tissue

c)

Organ

d)

Organ System

69.

This is an example of

a)

Cell

b)

Tissue

c)

Organ

d)

Organ System

70.

This is an example of

a)

Cell

b)

Tissue

c)

Organ

d)

Organ System

71.

This is an example of

a)

Cell

b)

Tissue

c)

Organ

d)

Organ System

72.

This is an example of

a)

Tissue

b)

Organ

c)

Organ System

d)

Organism

73.

This rainforest organism is multicellular and autotrophic.

a)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Plantae

b)

Domain Achaea, Kingdom Plantae

c)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi

d)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

74.

This rainforest organism is unicellular with no nucleus and live in the soil.

a)

Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Bacteria

b)

Domain Arachea, Kingdom Archaea

c)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

d)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi

75.

This organism lives in the rainforest and is unicellular with a nucleus. It is heterotrophic and found in rainwater trapped in leaves.

a)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

b)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi

c)

Domain Archaea, Kingdom Archaea

d)

Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Bacteria

76.

This organism is found in the rainforest jumping from treetop to treetop. It is heterotrophic.

a)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Animalia

b)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi

c)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Plantae

d)

Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Bacteria

77.

This organism is found in a volcanic hot spring in a rainforest. It is unicellular with no nucleus and autotrophic.

a)

Domain Archaea, Kingdom Archaea

b)

Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Bacteria

c)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

d)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Plantae

78.

This organism is found in the rainforest attached to dead leaves below the trees. It is multicellular and heterotrophic.

a)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi

b)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Animalia

c)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

d)

Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Bacteria

79.

This organism is found in a salt lake in the desert where no fish were living. It is unicellular and has no nucleus.

a)

Domain Archaea, Kingdom Archaea

b)

Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Bacteria

c)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

d)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Archaea

80.

This organism is found in the desert growing out of the ground. It is multicellular and autotrophic.

a)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Plantae

b)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi

c)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

d)

Domain Archaea, Kingdom Archaea

81.

This organism is found in the desert living in a cactus. It is multicellular and heterotrophic, feeding on insects.

a)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Animalia

b)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Fungi

c)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

d)

Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Archaea

82.

This organism is unicellular with no nucleus and found in the desert living on a cactus.

a)

Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Bacteria

b)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista

c)

Domain Archaea, Kingdom Archaea

d)

Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Bacteria

83.
What is the purpose of a dichotomous key?
a)
to find a common ancestor
b)
to show the evolution of organisms
c)
to show relationships between organisms
d)
to identify organisms
84.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
85.
A dichotomous key for insects is given. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?
a)
Coleoptera
b)
Heteroptera
c)
Diptera
d)
Lepidoptera
86.
What step do we always start with when using dichotomous keys?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
87.
When using a dichotomous key to identify organisms, what do we look at?
a)
physical features
b)
weather patterns
c)
environment
d)
diet
88.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
89.
Term given to describe the 2 name naming system is:
a)
dichotmous key
b)
binomial nomenclature
c)
2 scientific names
d)
binomial key
90.
Using this dichotomous key, identity the name of the circled fish.
a)
band-tail puffer
b)
spotted goat fish
c)
peacock flounder
d)
trumpet fish
91.
The first part of a scientific name is an organism's _______________ and the second part is its ________________.
a)
species, genus
b)
phylum, order
c)
class, spices
d)
genus, species
92.
Take your time and read carefully! Timer is 3 minutes!
---------
An illustration and a dichotomous key are given. What is the correct classification for this organism?
a)
Class Insecta
b)
Order Amblygygi
c)
Order Araneae
d)
Order Scorpiones
93.
A botanist discovers a new plant in the jungle. Which of the
following observations of the plant’s characteristics would be useful in determining its identity with a dichotomous key?
a)
It was discovered in the summertime
b)
It is wet from a recent rain storm.
c)
Its leaves curl up on the edges.
d)
It is eaten by native jungle ants.
94.
What is the name of bird W?
a)
Certhidea
b)
Geospiza
c)
Camarhynchus
d)
Platyspiza
95.
What is the name of bird Z?
a)
Certhidea
b)
Geospiza
c)
Camarhynchus
d)
Platyspiza
96.
Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of a house cat? (imagine that these options are all in italics)
a)
Felis Domesticus
b)
felis domesticus
c)
Felis domesticus
d)
felis Domesticus
97.

Elements

a)

are made of two or more types of atoms bonded together

b)

are made of one type of atom

c)

are made of two or more types of molecules

d)

are always individual atoms

98.

Which is the smallest particle of an element that has the same properties as that element?

a)

atom

b)

molecule

c)

compound

d)

chemical

99.

A substance that cannot be broken down further chemically is known as...

a)

an element

b)

a compound

c)

a molecule

d)

a mixture

100.

Which of the following are examples of ELEMENTS? Choose all that are correct.

a)

Oxygen (O)

b)

Water

(H2O)

c)

Flourine

(F)

d)

Lemonade

e)

Sulfur Dioxide (SO2)

101.

Compounds

a)

are made of two or more types of atoms chemically bonded together

b)

are made of one type of atom

c)

are found on the periodic table

d)

can be separated into their individual parts through physical means

102.

Which of the following are examples of compounds? Check all that apply.

a)

Salt

(NaCl)

b)

Salt Water

(NaCl and H2O)

c)

Sugar

(C6H12O6)

d)

Carbon Dioxide

(CO2)

103.

The bonds of compounds can be broken easily because they are not chemically bonded.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

When substances combine chemically...

a)

they form a mixture and their properties change

b)

they form a compound and their properties change

c)

they form a mixture where their properties stay the same

d)

the form a compound where their properties stay the same

105.

Which of the following are examples of Mixtures?

a)

The atmosphere

(N + O + Ar + H2O...)

b)

Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

c)

Oxygen

(O2)

d)

Lemonade

(sugar, lemon juice, water)

e)

Anything on the Periodic Table

106.

Mixtures

a)

are made of two different types of atoms chemically bonded together

b)

Are only liquids

c)

Cannot be separated

d)

Can be separated using physical properties

107.

Pure Substances

a)

Are only made of one type of atom

b)

Have the same properties throughout

c)

Can never be broken down into something simpler

d)

Are only made of molecules

108.

Which of the following are examples of a Pure Substance?

a)

Water

(H2O)

b)

Helium

(He)

c)

Orange Juice

(oranges, water)

d)

Uranium

(Ur)

e)

Sugar

(C6H12O6)

109.

Which of the following is an example of COHESION?

a)

water sticking to water

b)

water sticking to glass

c)

oil sticking to plastic

d)

hydrogen sticking to oxygen

110.

What is the correct chemical formula for water?

a)

H2O

b)

HO2

c)

H2O2

d)

2H1O

111.

Water is polar. What does that mean?

a)

it is a molecule with opposite charges on opposite ends

b)

it is a molecule with no charge

c)

it is a molecule with identical charges on opposite ends

d)

it is a molecule with too many protons

112.

Water sticks well to many materials. What term relates to this property of water?

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

density

d)

surface tension

113.

What is the term for water's ability to defy gravity and climb up a tube?

a)

Capillary Action

b)

Specific Heat

c)

Universal Solvent

d)

Magic

114.

A water strider can skate along the top of a pond because:

a)

covalent bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

b)

hydrogen bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

c)

water striders have adapted to take advantage of water cohesion

d)

water striders are afraid of water and avoid it

115.

Why does ice float?

a)

water expands when it freezes, making ice less dense than water

b)

water compacts when it freezes, making ice more dense than water

c)

hydrogen bonds in water push the ice to the surface

d)

ice is afraid of water, and avoids it

116.
Large bodies of water do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. Why?
a)
Water is a solvent.
b)
Water has a high heat capacity.
c)
Water acts as a buffer.
d)
Water is non-polar.
117.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
118.
The tightness across the surface of water that enables paper clips to float is ____________.
a)
adhesion
b)
capillary action
c)
surface tension
d)
polarity
119.

Which property of water allows water to climb up a tree's root system to the leaves?

a)

Cohesion

b)

water's density

c)

Polarity

d)

Capillary Action

120.

Water is a (a)   molecule due to it having a positive AND negative end.

121.

What two elements make up water?

a)

Helium and Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen and Oxygen

c)

Helium and Carbon

d)

Oxygen and Carbon

122.

How many hydrogen atoms are in a water molecule?

(HINT: H20)

a)

5

b)

1

c)

2

d)

0

123.

Water dissolves all substances because it is the universal solvent.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

How do acids taste?

a)

Sweet

b)

Sour

c)

Salty

d)

Bitter

125.

Which solution will turn litmus paper red?

a)

Acids

b)

Bases

c)

Neutral

126.

Which statement describes a base?

a)

Tastes Sour

b)

Stays clear in Phenolphthalein

c)

Turns magenta in Phenolphthalein

d)

Turns litmus paper red

127.

Which of the following is an example of an acid?

a)

Blood

b)

Baking Soda

c)

Drain Cleaner

d)

Lemon Juice

128.

When acids and bases are mixed together, what neutral product is created?

a)

Acid

b)

Base

c)

Acid and Base

d)

Water

129.

Soaps are classified as

a)

Acids

b)

Bases

c)

Neutral

130.

If a solution has a pH of 13, it is considered to be a what?

a)

Strong Acid

b)

Weak Acid

c)

Strong Base

d)

Weak Base

131.

If a solution has a pH of 7, it is considered to be what?

a)

Acid

b)

Base

c)

Neutral

132.

Which is found in a lot of household cleaners?

a)

Acids

b)

Bases

c)

Neutrals

133.

If a litmus paper does not change color (stays red or blue), the solution is -

a)

An Acid

b)

A Base

c)

Neutral

134.

If a solution has a pH of 2, it is considered to be a what?

a)

Strong Acid

b)

Weak Acid

c)

Strong Base

d)

Weak Base

135.

Which statement is true?

a)

Acids taste bitter.

b)

Acids feel slippery.

c)

Bases taste sour.

d)

Bases taste bitter.

136.

What is the pH range for acids?

(a)  

137.

What is the pH range for bases?

(a)  

138.

Based on the pH scale, which is the weakest base?

a)

Drain Cleaner

b)

Blood

c)

Soap

d)

Ammonia

139.
Matter can not be created nor destroyed: it can only be
a)
Destroyed a little bit
b)
Invisible
c)
Transformed, changed
d)
None of the above
140.
The number to the lower side of an element is a 
a)
Subscript
b)
Superscript
c)
Coefficient
d)
Charge
141.
The number in front of a compound or element is a 
a)
Subscript
b)
Coefficient
c)
Superscript
d)
Charge
142.
A chemical reaction is balanced when
a)
both sides have the same elements
b)
Both sides have the same  number of atoms
c)
Same subscripts
d)
Same coefficients
143.
Which of these is not a chemical reaction?
a)
Burning of wood
b)
Milk going bad
c)
Mixing vinegar and baking soda
d)
Melting of ice
144.
A precipitate is a 
a)
liquid that forms when two solids are reacted
b)
a solid that forms when two liquids are mixed
c)
a gas that forms when vinegar and baking soda react
d)
a change of color in a solution
145.
If reaction starts with 20g of reactants it should produce 
a)
a total of 40g of products
b)
a total of 10g of products
c)
a total of 80 g of products
d)
a total of 20g of products
146.
What is the Law of Conservation of mass?
a)
Mass is created in a chemical reaction
b)
Mass is created in a physical change
c)
New chemicals formed from a chemical reaction have a larger overall mass than the original reactants
d)
Mass is never created or destroyed
147.

When sodium and chlorine combine to form sodium chloride, sodium chloride is the:

a)

Originator

b)

Reactant

c)

Product

d)

Produce

148.
Maria fills a bowl with 200 g of water. She puts the bowl of water in the freezer, and the water freezes. Which will most likely be the mass of the frozen water?
a)
50 g
b)
100 g
c)
200 g
d)
400 g
149.

How many atoms do you have in the compound 2MgCl2?

a)

2 atoms

b)

4 atoms

c)

6 atoms

d)

8 atoms

150.

How many Ca (Calcium) atoms are found in Ca(OH)2?

a)

5 atoms

b)

3 atoms

c)

2 atoms

d)

1 atom

151.

How many atoms do you have in the chemical formula 2Mg(ClO3)2?

a)

2 atoms

b)

7 atoms

c)

9 atoms

d)

18 atoms

152.

Law of conservation of mass states the amounts of atoms in the reactants and the products...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

No correct answer

153.

Does the equation H2+O2 →H2O follow the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

Yes, because the atoms are equal.

b)

No, because more info is needed.

c)

No, because there are more atoms in the product.

d)

No, because there are more atoms in the reactant.

154.

What is Newton's Second Law of Motion?

a)

The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass (F = ma).

b)

An object in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by an external force.

c)

The force acting on an object is equal to the mass of that object multiplied by its acceleration (F = ma).

d)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

155.

What is the difference between mass and weight?

a)

Mass is the amount of matter in an object, while weight is the force exerted by gravity on that mass.

b)

Mass and weight are the same; both refer to the quantity of matter in an object.

c)

Weight is the amount of matter in an object, while mass is the force exerted by gravity on that matter.

d)

Mass is a measure of an object's volume, while weight is a measure of its density.

156.

If a 10 kg object accelerates at 15 m/s², what is the force applied?

a)

100 Newtons

b)

150 Newtons

c)

200 Newtons

d)

250 Newtons

157.

What is the unit of force in the International System of Units (SI)?

a)

Joule (J)

b)

Pascal (Pa)

c)

Newton (N)

d)

Watt (W)

158.

What happens to acceleration if force increases while mass remains constant?

a)

Acceleration decreases.

b)

Acceleration remains constant.

c)

Acceleration increases.

d)

Acceleration becomes zero.

159.

What is the formula for calculating acceleration?

a)

a = F/m

b)

a = m/F

c)

a = F*m

d)

a = F+m

160.

What two variables define force?

a)

Mass and acceleration.

b)

Velocity and time.

c)

Distance and speed.

d)

Energy and momentum.

161.

What is inertia?

a)

The force that causes an object to move in a circular path.

b)

The tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion.

c)

The speed at which an object travels in a vacuum.

d)

The gravitational pull exerted by an object on another object.

162.

How does friction affect the motion of an object?

a)

Friction increases the speed of an object.

b)

Friction has no effect on the motion of an object.

c)

Friction opposes the motion of an object, requiring more force to achieve acceleration.

d)

Friction only affects objects at rest.

163.

What is the effect of applying a force to an object at rest?

a)

It will cause the object to accelerate in the direction of the force.

b)

It will cause the object to remain at rest indefinitely.

c)

It will cause the object to change its color.

d)

It will cause the object to vibrate without moving.

164.

How much force is needed to accelerate a 3 kg skateboard at 5 m/s²?

a)

10 Newtons

b)

15 Newtons

c)

20 Newtons

d)

25 Newtons

165.

How do you calculate force?

a)

F = ma, where F is force, m is mass, and a is acceleration.

b)

F = mv^2, where F is force, m is mass, and v is velocity.

c)

F = m/a, where F is force, m is mass, and a is acceleration.

d)

F = m + a, where F is force, m is mass, and a is acceleration.

166.

What is the relationship between mass and force in Newton's Second Law?

a)

The greater the mass of an object, the more force is required to accelerate it.

b)

Mass and force are unrelated concepts in physics.

c)

Increasing mass decreases the required force for acceleration.

d)

Force is independent of mass in Newton's Second Law.

167.

If I apply the same force to a ping pong ball and a bowling ball, which one will accelerate faster?

a)

The bowling ball.

b)

The ping pong ball.

c)

Both will accelerate at the same rate.

d)

The ping pong ball will accelerate slower.

168.

What happens to acceleration if mass increases while force remains constant?

a)

Acceleration increases.

b)

Acceleration remains the same.

c)

Acceleration decreases.

d)

Acceleration becomes zero.

169.

Newtons law states that for every action, there is an_________ reaction

a)

unequal and opposite

b)

stronger and opposite

c)

equal and similar

d)

equal and opposite

170.

Force always come in________

a)

waves

b)

triplets

c)

pairs

171.

Newton's Third Law is also known as...

a)

The Law of Inertia

b)

The Law of Acceleration

c)

The Law of Conservation of Momentum (Force Pairs)

172.
A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the ball. The reaction force is...
a)
The grip of the player's hands on the ball
b)
the air resistance of the ball
c)
the force of the ball against the bat
173.
A rocket pushes exhaust 10, 000 N. Without any other forces acting on the rocket, how much force does the rocket go forward?
a)
15,000 N
b)
1,000 N
c)
10, 000 N
174.

if the action force was 70 N to the right , the reaction force must be ___________________

a)

70 N to the right

b)

80 N to the left

c)

70 N to the left

d)

70 N up

175.

The figure shows __________________

a)

balanced force

b)

unbalanced force

c)

force pairs ( action and reaction force)

176.
How does Newton’s third law explain how a rocket takes off?
a)
The rocket’s acceleration is positive, while the gasses acceleration is negative but the direction is the same. 
b)
The rocket is at rest until ignition.
c)
The hot gasses move in one direction, while the rocket moves in the opposite direction but with equal force.
177.
Which type of force(s) will cause a change in an object's motion?
a)
gravity
b)
zero net force
c)
balanced forces
d)
unbalanced forces
178.
Newton's third law states that any action will have a(n) _______ and ______ reaction
a)
Equal and similar
b)
Equal and opposite
c)
Equal and different
d)
Greater and opposite
179.

What type of wave is pictured?

a)

Transverse wave

b)

Longitudinal wave

c)

Wave, what wave?

d)

Slinky wave

180.
What kind of wave is pictured below?
a)
compressional wave
b)
transverse wave
c)
sound wave
d)
mechanical wave
181.

ALL waves carry ______________.

a)

Sound

b)

Light

c)

Water

d)

Energy

182.

Sound travels in which kind of wave?

a)

Longitudinal waves

b)

Transverse waves

183.
How would you describe the movement of a transverse wave?
a)
Up and down
b)
In zigzags
c)

In a straight line

184.
Which wave travels parallel in relation to a medium?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
c)
Both
d)
Neither
185.

Water waves and light waves are both examples to ___

a)

Longitudinal Wave

b)

Transverse Wave

c)

Frequency wave

d)

Sound Wave

186.
A transverse wave can be created in a Slinky® by moving it
a)
in a circular motion.
b)
together and apart.
c)
up and down.
187.

When on a flat surface, giving the Slinky® a push or pull will create a disturbance

a)
in the opposite direction of the wave motion.
b)
parallel to the wave motion.
c)
in a circle.
d)
perpendicular to the wave motion.
188.

What is a wave?

a)

A disturbance that transfers matter from place to place.

b)

A disturbance that transfers energy from place to place.

189.

As wavelength increases, frequency ___________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

unknown

190.

As frequency increases, energy ________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

unknown

191.

Visible light is part of the electromagnetic spectrum humans can detect. It can be broken into different colors. Looking at the chart, which color has the greatest energy?

a)

violet

b)

red

c)

green

d)

yellow

192.

What is frequency?

a)

the length between two identical points on adjacent waves

b)

the speed of gravitational acceleration between two waves

c)

how much work a photon particle can exert

d)

how many wavelengths pass a point in a second

193.

What happens to frequency when wavelength decreases?

a)

stays the same

b)

decreases

c)

increases

d)

There is no relationship between wavelength & frequency.

194.

Which color waves have the lowest frequency?

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

green

d)

violet

195.

The part of the of the wave labeled #3 is the ____________.

a)

amplitude

b)

trough

c)

wavelength

d)

crest

196.

The part of the wave labeled #4 is the ___________________.

a)

amplitude

b)

wavelength

c)

crest

d)

trough

197.

The part of the wave labeled #5 is called a ____________.

a)

wavelength

b)

trough

c)

crest

d)

amplitude

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