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Worksheets

MI Unit 3

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During which phase of a clinical study are the side effects identified?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

2.

During which phase of a clinical study do they determine effectiveness?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

3.

When do the clinical trials focus on animal and laboratory studies?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

e)

Before any human trial phases.

4.

During which phase of a clinical study do they determine the drug's risk and benefits?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

5.

During which phase of a clinical study do they only test on 15-30 patients?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

6.

During which phase of a clinical study do they only test on 50-200 patients?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

7.

During which phase of a clinical study do they test up to a few thousands patients?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

8.

During which phase of a clinical study do they sharpen their estimates of proper dosage?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

9.

During which phase of a clinical study do they determine a safe dosage range?

a)

Phase I

b)

Phase II

c)

Phase III

d)

Phase IV

10.

About how long does the animal and laboratory studies part of the clinical trial process take?

a)

less than a year

b)

about 4-5 years

c)

about 6-7 years

d)

about 1 1/2 years

11.

About how long do the first three phases take during the clinical trial process?

a)

less than a year

b)

about 4-5 years

c)

about 8-9 years

d)

about 1 1/2 years

12.

About how long does FDA approval take during the clinical trial process?

a)

less than a year

b)

about 4-5 years

c)

about 8-9 years

d)

about 1 1/2 years

13.

Which type of clinical trial has one group that receives the treatment and another group does not? (controlled)

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

14.

Which type of clinical trial is used to test medicines in combination?

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

15.

Which type of clinical trial is used to test two treatments?

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

16.

Which type of clinical trial is used to test surgical procedures and medical devices? (can't be done without subject or researcher knowing who is receiving treatment)

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

17.

Which type of clinical trial has a control group and treatment group chosen at random?

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

18.

Which type of clinical trial has subjects and scientists not knowing who is assigned to get the treatment or not, until after data is collected?

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

19.

Which type of clinical trial has participants that can get both treatments being tested?

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

20.

Which type of clinical trial is used to test drugs designed to treat rare diseases?

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

21.

Which type of clinical trial is tested on a small number of participants who are very sick?

a)

Randomized, double-blind trials

b)

Open trials

c)

Factorial trials

d)

Crossover trials

e)

Orphan drug trials

22.

Who is given the experimental drug?

a)

Treatment group

b)

Control group

23.

Who is given the standard treatment or a placebo?

a)

Treatment group

b)

Control group

24.

The following describes which type of study? Prone to researcher bias.

a)

Single-blind study

b)

double-blind study

c)

Both; single-blind and double-blind studies

25.

The following describes which type of study? Subjects do not know which group they are assigned too.

a)

Single-blind study

b)

double-blind study

c)

Both; single-blind and double-blind studies

26.

The following describes which type of study? Researchers DON'T know who is assigned to which group

a)

Single-blind study

b)

double-blind study

c)

Both; single-blind and double-blind studies

27.

The following describes which type of study? Researchers know who is assigned to which group

a)

Single-blind study

b)

double-blind study

c)

Both; single-blind and double-blind studies

28.

The following describes which type of study? Prevents subjects in different groups from behaving in different ways

a)

Single-blind study

b)

double-blind study

c)

Both; single-blind and double-blind studies

29.

The following describes which type of study? Prevents scientists from introducing any unconscious bias into the data collection process.

a)

Single-blind study

b)

double-blind study

c)

Both; single-blind and double-blind studies

30.

An SNP profile is

a)

the single-base difference in one gene between one individual and another individual.

b)

the single-base pair differences in 2 or more genes.

c)

the mutation in a gene that causes certain diseases.

d)

the haplotype pair an individual possesses.

e)

the sequence of DNA that allows for primer extension.

31.

The field of research that concerns itself with learning the individual patient's genetic profile in order to determine the best course of drug treatment is specifically termed

a)

pharmacogenetics.

b)

precision medicine

c)

haplotypes.

d)

ALL.

e)

thiopurine methyltransferase.

32.

Which of the following is not a reason that makes personalized or precision medicine more of a realistic treatment option today?

a)

Computer processing times are getting faster and large networks allows for doctors to share research data.

b)

Costs of implementation is getting lower.

c)

The human genome is getting less complicated and therefore, very easy to sequence which only takes a few hours now.

d)

DNA sequence technology has drastically improved.

e)

Computer software is getting better at analyzing massive amounts of DNA data.

33.

Response to azathioprine, a chemotherapy drug used to treat ALL (a form of leukemia), depends on

a)

which stage of ALL that patient is in.

b)

if the patient has a specific SNP at an oncogene.

c)

how early TPMT treatment is started.

d)

the dose of TPMT given in conjunction with azathioprine.

e)

a patient's level of TPMT activity.

34.

Personalized medicine for a specific patient factors in all of the following except

a)

age.

b)

computer used in analysis.

c)

genetics.

d)

diet.

e)

environmental factors.

35.

Cancer of the white blood cells is referred to as

a)

melanoma.

b)

osteosarcoma.

c)

actinic keratosis.

d)

acute lymphoblastic leukemia.

36.

A haplotype is

a)

a single-base substitution in a region of DNA that is different from another genetic profile.

b)

a person's reaction to a drug.

c)

a combination of single-base substitutions in a region of DNA that is different from another genetic profile..

d)

a pair of chromosomes that we inherit from both of our parents.

37.

Thiopurine methyltransferase or TPMT

a)

is an enzyme produced by the body that breaks down azathioprine, preventing toxic levels to build up.

b)

is a chemotherapy drug that attacks cancer cells.

c)

is a drug that stops DNA replication in all cells.

d)

is a type of drug that relieves symptoms of asthma only in people with certain SNP profiles.

38.

Refer to the DNA sequences below:

DNA sample from patient:

From chromosome region (from mother)

GGATTACAAT

CCTAATGTTA

From chromosome region (from father)

GGATGACATT

CCTACTGTAA

The pair of DNA sequences above (both from the same patient) found on homologous chromosomes would be referred to as

a)

an SNP.

b)

a SNP profile.

c)

a haplotype.

d)

a genome.

39.

How are scientists able to tell the difference between two different SNPs using PCR and gel electrophoresis?

a)

A primer that matches one of the SNPs perfectly will continue to extend the sequence which will be longer and appear as a larger fragment on a gel.

b)

Both DNA samples with the different SNPs will be copied but one of the SNPs will only be copied half as much and will appear lower on a gel.

c)

Both DNA samples with the different SNPs will be copied but one of the SNPs will be copied doubled the amount as the other SNP sample and appear darker on a gel.

d)

A primer will cut and destroy one of DNA samples with a particular SNP and will not show up on a gel at all.

40.

The GeneSight test evaluates the genetic variations that may affect how one responds to ________________ and has lead to __________________.

a)

antidepressants; reduced prescriptions and lower costs

b)

antibiotics; increased effectiveness in fighting infections

c)

chemotherapy; decreased negative side effects

d)

vaccinations; increased boost in immunity

41.

Personalized diets can be developed for patients with diabetes by examining

a)

diabetic medication levels in the blood and designing the best dosages that interact with food.

b)

epidemiological studies of the cultural and ethnic influences in food.

c)

bioinformatic data on pancreatic enzymes such as insulin for each patient when exposed to different foods.

d)

the glycemic response to different foods, using a computer algorithm and analyzing individual genetic profiles.

42.

DNA sequencing and molecular profiling of bacterial, fungal and viral pathogens

a)

is the only way to cure the infection.

b)

can help reduce treatment costs.

c)

can design treatments that are most effective against a particular strain or species of pathogens.

d)

can reduce the negative side effects of drug treatment.

43.

Precision medicine currently involved in cancer therapies include

a)

creating bionic cells that will circulate in the bloodstream and destroy cancer cells with radiation.

b)

drugs that target specific cell surface markers of cancer cells.

c)

analyzing genetic profiles using computers and inserting a microchip in patients that will electrify cancer cells.

d)

boosting individual immune systems to attack cancer cells.

44.

Precision medicine can help in the field of regenerative medicine by

a)

combining engineering, materials science and 3D printing in creating replacement organs.

b)

coaxing the patients own stem cells into forming damaged or missing tissues that normally cannot on its own.

c)

reducing the patient's immune response in rejecting implanted engineered tissues.

d)

creating super bacteria that manufactures engineered organs in cloned animals that can be transplanted in humans.

45.

The following can be limitations to a healthy, natural immune system's ability to fight cancer on its own except:

a)

The immune system doesn't see the cancer cells as foreign because the cancer cells are not different enough from normal cells.

b)

The immune system recognizes the cancer cells, but the response might not be strong enough to destroy the cancer.

c)

Cancer cells can release substances that keep the immune system from fighting the cancer cells effectively.

d)

The immune system is boosted by the proteins given off by cancer cells making it give a more robust response.

46.

How is immunotherapy different than chemotherapy?

a)

Immunotherapy attacks healthy cells while chemotherapy attacks only cancer cells.

b)

Chemotherapy attacks both cancer cells and healthy cells while immunotherapy targets cancer cells.

c)

Immunotherapy is targeted to one region while chemotherapy is systemic.

d)

Immunotherapy is a surgical procedure while chemotherapy is a drug treatment.

47.

PD-1 and CTLA-4

a)

are targets for checkpoint inhibitors.

b)

act as "off switches" to keep immune cells from attacking other cells in the body.

c)

are viruses that have been modified to infect and kill tumor cells.

d)

are target for CAR T-cell therapy.

48.

CAR T-cell therapy

a)

involves altering a patient's own T cells to attack cancer cells better.

b)

can cause cytokine release syndrome.

c)

prevents cancer like a vaccine.

d)

causes checkpoint inhibitors to multiply.

49.

An adjuvant

a)

binds checkpoint receptors on immune cells.

b)

changes the gene expression in T-cells.

c)

can help boost a cancer vaccine's effectiveness.

d)

removes cytokines from the body.

50.

Cancer vaccines work by

a)

preventing infections by viruses that can cause certain cancers.

b)

increasing cytokine production in the body.

c)

creating viruses that attack cancer cells.

d)

exposing immune cells to cancer cell antigens to program them to fight cancer cells in the body.

51.

Cytokines are

a)

receptors on T-cells that help them to find and attack cancer cells.

b)

messenger proteins that can direct the immune system response.

c)

treatments that are normally used in conjunction with vaccines.

d)

made in a lab to attack certain cancer cells.

52.

Antibodies with no drug or radioactive material attached to them and are the most commonly used monoclonal antibodies used to fight cancer are

a)

chemolabeled antibodies.

b)

bispecific antibodies.

c)

radiolabeled antibodies.

d)

naked antibodies.

53.

Bispecific monoclonal antibodies work by

a)

blocking antigens on cancer cells to prevent them from growing and spreading.

b)

targeting immune system checkpoint proteins.

c)

binding both cancer cells targets and T-cells which helps T-cells to fight the cancer cells.

d)

attaching mAbs to chemo drugs for targeted delivery to cancer cells.

54.

Oncolytic viruses

a)

cause cervical cancer.

b)

cause liver cancer.

c)

turn on oncogenes.

d)

are manufactured in a lab and target and kill cancer cells.

55.
Noninvasive technique that uses ionizing radiation to produce 2-D images of dense materials such as bone
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
56.
Noninvasive technique that uses ionizing radiation to quickly produce cross-sectional images of tissue/bone
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
57.
Noninvasive technique that produces images of internal soft tissues through the use of magnets and radio waves.
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
58.
Noninvasive technique that examines skeletal abnormalities through the use of radio-tracers
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
59.
Scenario: Cleaning out the gutters, grandpa fell off the ladder and hit his head.  He felt nauseous and dizzy. Grandma took him to the ER to check for any internal brain swelling or bleeding. 
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
60.

Scenario: Jake is in the ER because he didn't stick his landing on his skateboard and has swelling in his right ankle. He also experiences pain when he attempts to put any weight on it.

a)

MRI

b)

CT Scan

c)

x-ray

d)

Bone scan

61.
Scenario: Alex has been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and is experiencing pain in his joints.  His physician suspects he has metastatic cancer that has spread to his skeletal system ad orders further testing to examine the joints and surrounding skeletal tissue. 
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
62.
__________ can proliferate indefinitely. 
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
63.
__________ divide in an organized manner. 
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
64.
__________ contain distinct features that enable them to perform their specific function.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
65.
__________ lose their specialized cell features, which prevents them from performing their functions properly.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
66.
__________ have the same size and shape.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
67.
__________ vary in size and shape.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
68.
__________ have large, variably shaped nuclei
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
69.
__________ arrange themselves in an organized manner. There are well-defined tissue boundaries.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
70.
__________ have a disorganized arrangement of cells. Tissue boundaries are poorly defined
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
71.
The tissue on the right is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
72.
The prostate tissue on the right  is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
73.
The liver tissue on the right  is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
74.
What does the black dot represent?
a)
Hybridization of healthy and cancer cells
b)
Hybridization of just healthy cells
c)
Hybridization of cancer cells
d)
Genes that were not transcribed in healthy cells
75.
What does the red dot represent?
a)
Hybridization of healthy and cancer cells
b)
Hybridization of just healthy cells
c)
Hybridization of cancer cells
d)
Genes that were not transcribed in healthy cells
76.
What does the green dot represent?
a)
Hybridization of healthy and cancer cells
b)
Hybridization of just healthy cells
c)
Hybridization of cancer cells
d)
Genes that were not transcribed in healthy cells
77.
What does the yellow dot represent?
a)
Hybridization of healthy and cancer cells
b)
Hybridization of just healthy cells
c)
Hybridization of cancer cells
d)
Genes that were not transcribed in healthy cells
78.

Circle B and D have been...

a)

Up regulated "turned up"

b)

down regulated "turned down"

c)

not transcribed at all

79.

Which spot indicates a gene is expressed at a higher level?

a)

dim green

b)

bright green

80.

Circle A and B have been...

a)

up regulated "turned on"

b)

down regulated "turned down"

c)

Not transcribed at all

81.

Cancer Terminology: What is the removal and examination of tissue, cells and fluid?

a)

biopsy

b)

apoptosis

c)

cancer

d)

cell cycle

82.

Cancer Terminology: What is programmed cell death?

a)

biopsy

b)

apoptosis

c)

cancer

d)

cell cycle

83.

Cancer Terminology: What has the potential for unlimited growth because of unregulated cell cycle?

a)

biopsy

b)

apoptosis

c)

cancer

d)

cell cycle

84.

Cancer Terminology: What is the ordered sequence of events in the life of a cell?

a)

biopsy

b)

apoptosis

c)

cancer

d)

cell cycle

85.

Cancer Terminology: What is the spreading of cancer from original location to new location?

a)

metastasize

b)

p53

c)

growth

d)

apoptosis

86.

Cancer Terminology: What is the specific tumor suppressor gene that acts as the "guardian of the genome"?

a)

metastasize

b)

p53

c)

radiology

d)

risk factor

87.

Cancer Terminology: What is the branch of medicine that uses radiant energy in the diagnosis and treatment of disease?

a)

oncologist

b)

ultrasound

c)

radiology

d)

orthapaedic surgeon

88.

Classify the following risk factor: water pollution

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

89.

Classify the following risk factor: asbestos

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

90.

Classify the following risk factor: radiation

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

91.

Classify the following risk factor: smoking

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

92.

Classify the following risk factor: drinking

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

93.

Classify the following risk factor: poor diet

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

94.

Classify the following risk factor: grandmother, mother, aunt, and uncle all had cancer

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

95.

Classify the following risk factor for developing cancer: African american

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

96.

Classify the following risk factor for developing cancer: 60 years of age and a smoker

a)

Environmental risk factor

b)

behavioral risk factor

c)

hereditary

d)

biological

97.

Classify the following type of cancer: Cancer that occurs in families more often than would expected by chance. May be inherited or also a sign of shared environmental or lifestyle factors.

a)

Familial

b)

Sporadic

c)

Hereditary

98.

Classify the following type of cancer: An inherited disorder in which affected individuals have a higher-than-normal chance of developing certain types of cancer, often before the age of 50.

a)

Familial

b)

Sporadic

c)

Hereditary

99.

Classify the following type of cancer: Cancer occurring occasionally, singly, or in scattered instances?

a)

Familial

b)

Sporadic

c)

Hereditary

100.
Which of the following would describe a cancerous tumor?
a)
malignant
b)
biopsy
c)
benign
d)
infectious
101.
What does it mean for a tumor to metastasize?
a)
mass
b)
spread
c)
to get better
d)
to repair cells
102.
A mole that changes in size, shape or color means:
a)
oral cancer.
b)
mouth cancer.
c)
skin cancer.
d)
prostate or ovarian cancer.
103.
What cancer treatment involves stimulating the body's immune system to attack cancer cells?
a)
Immunotherapy
b)
Surgery
c)
Radiation Therapy
d)
Chemotherapy
104.
What type of disease is cancer?
a)
Infectious Disesase
b)
Communicable Disease
c)
Noncommunicable Disease
d)
Sexually Transmitted Disease
105.
What is is called when a tumor proves to be NON cancerous?
a)
malignant
b)
benign
c)
oncogene
d)
byogene
106.
A scientist specializing in biomedical research for cancer may analyze which cellular component when studying the life cycle of a cell?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
genes
d)
ribosome
107.
The origin of most malignant tumors are:
a)
clonal
b)
monoclonal
c)
multiclonal
d)
polyclonal
108.
Any substance that causes cancer by either damaging genes or disrupting metabolic processes is called a:
a)
carcinogen
b)
halogen
c)
mutagen
d)
pathogen
109.
In the normal cellular processes, which genes inhibit cell division?
a)
mutant genes
b)
oncogenes
c)
proto-oncogenes
d)
tumor-suppressant genes
110.
Martha's colon cancer has not spread.  When abnormal cells are only found in the tissue of origin, this refers to:
a)
dysplasia
b)
hyperplasia
c)
in situ
d)
invasiveness
111.

Can viruses have oncogenes?

a)

yes

b)

no

112.

Which of the following is a mutated version of a gene that promotes cell division?

a)

proto-oncogene

b)

oncogene

c)

tumor suppressor gene

d)

p53

113.

Why isn't mRNA applied to the microarray slide?

a)

mRNA sequences are too long

b)

mRNA molecules degrade too easily

c)

mRNA is too small to see

d)

You can't extract enough mRNA from the cells

114.

Which diagnostic imaging is best for examining bone AND soft tissue?

a)

MRI

b)

CT scan

c)

bone scan

d)

x-ray

115.

Which type of gene code for a protein that promotes cell division in normal genes?

a)

proto-oncogene

b)

oncogene

c)

tumor suppressor gene

116.

A clinical trial in which both the researchers and the patients know who gets the drug/placebo

a)

open study

b)

double blind study

c)

single blind study

d)

controlled study

117.

A scientifically controlled study of the safety and effectiveness of medications is called a

a)

double blind study

b)

single-blind study

c)

open study

d)

controlled study

e)

clinical trial

118.

The gold standard for a scientific study to most likely be reliable and valid

a)

double blind study

b)

single-blind study

c)

open study

d)

controlled study

e)

clinical trial

119.

Which of the following phase of a clinical trial would use 50-75 participants and would take 3-12 months

a)

pre-clinical

b)

phase 1

c)

phase 2

d)

phase 3

e)

phase 4

120.

Which of the following phase of a clinical trial would be considered a field trial?

a)

pre-clinical

b)

phase 1

c)

phase 2

d)

phase 3

e)

phase 4

121.

Which of the following would be considered nano-scale?

a)

bacteria

b)

virus

c)

cell

d)

antibody

122.

When a person is stressed, his body temperature would...

a)

increase due to anxiety

b)

increase due to high heart rate

c)

decrease due to blood redirected to inner muscles

d)

decrease due to stress hormones

123.

Which of the following treatments would be most likely to be given to a patient with a localized tumor that has failed to metastasize?

a)

chemotherapy

b)

radiation

c)

immunotherapy

d)

stem cell treatment

e)

bone marrow transplant

124.

Which of the following treatments would be most likely to be given to a patient with osteosarcoma or leukemia?

a)

chemotherapy

b)

radiation

c)

immunotherapy

d)

stem cell treatment

e)

bone marrow transplant

125.

Which of the following treatments would be most likely to be given to a patient with HIV?

a)

chemotherapy

b)

radiation

c)

immunotherapy

d)

stem cell treatment

e)

bone marrow transplant

126.

Which of the following treatments would be most likely to be given to a patient whose cancer is in stage 3 or 4?

a)

chemotherapy

b)

radiation

c)

immunotherapy

d)

stem cell treatment

e)

bone marrow transplant

127.

Which of the following would be equipment more likely used by an OT than a PT?

a)

goiniometer

b)

balance ball

c)

ramps

d)

pencil adapter

128.

Which of the following is the function of the IRB?

a)

approve a drug to go on the market

b)

assure that a study is done ethically

c)

design clinical trials to test drugs

d)

Deal with scientists that run experiments incorrectly

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