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Complete Revision Question Bank

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two climate variables primarily determine global biome distribution?

a)

Temperature and precipitation

b)

Latitude and altitude

c)

Wind speed and barometric pressure

d)

Solar radiation and cloud cover

2.

Which biome typically has permafrost and very short summers?

a)

Tundra

b)

Temperate grassland

c)

Tropical rainforest

d)

Savanna

3.

Which soil horizon is richest in organic matter and biological activity?

a)

A horizon (topsoil)

b)

O horizon (organic litter)

c)

B horizon (subsoil)

d)

C horizon (parent material)

4.

What is the main role of the O horizon in soil?

a)

Organic matter decomposition and nutrient input

b)

Root storage and water uptake

c)

Mineral accumulation from leaching

d)

Bedrock formation

5.

Tropical rainforests tend to have _____ net primary productivity compared to deserts and tundra.

a)

Much higher

b)

Similar

c)

Slightly lower

d)

Much lower

6.

In the exponential growth model dN/dt=rNdN/dt = rN , what does r represent?

a)

Intrinsic rate of increase

b)

Carrying capacity

c)

Net migration rate

d)

Half-saturation constant

7.

Which growth model includes carrying capacity KK explicitly?

a)

Logistic growth

b)

Exponential growth

c)

Geometric growth

d)

Linear growth

8.

On a logistic growth curve, the plateau at the top represents what?

a)

Carrying capacity

b)

Doubling time

c)

Initial population size

d)

Birth rate

9.

Which phase of a bacterial growth curve corresponds to the plateau of the logistic curve?

a)

Stationary phase

b)

Lag phase

c)

Log phase (exponential phase)

d)

Death phase

10.

If a bacterial population has a high r and a very short doubling time, which statement is true?

a)

It can increase explosively when resources are abundant

b)

It will always remain at carrying capacity

c)

It cannot grow without predators

d)

It grows only during the lag phase

11.

Density-dependent factors are best described as factors that...

a)

Increase in effect as population density increases

b)

Act equally regardless of density

c)

Only affect small populations

d)

Are purely abiotic

12.

Which of the following is a density-independent factor?

a)

A severe hurricane

b)

Competition for food

c)

Disease transmission

d)

Territoriality

13.

In yeast fermentation, what ultimately limits the yeast population in the tank?

a)

Accumulation of alcohol and depletion of nutrients

b)

Lack of oxygen alone

c)

Unlimited sugar supply

d)

Predation by bacteria

14.

Which statement best describes an r-selected species?

a)

Many small offspring, short lifespan, high reproductive rate

b)

Few large offspring, slow growth, late maturity

c)

Extensive parental care with low fecundity

d)

Stable population near carrying capacity

15.

Which survivorship curve (Type I, II, III) is typical of humans and elephants?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Uniform survivorship

16.

Which life-history trait combination is typical of a K-selected species?

a)

Slow growth, late maturity, few large offspring

b)

Early reproduction, many small offspring, fast growth

c)

High dispersal, short generation time

d)

High intrinsic rate of increase with minimal parental care

17.

What is the main trade-off highlighted by life history strategies?

a)

Energy for survival vs. reproduction

b)

Temperature vs. rainfall

c)

Predation vs. parasitism

d)

Migration vs. hibernation

18.

Intraspecific competition occurs between...

a)

Individuals of the same species

b)

Different trophic levels

c)

Members of different species

d)

Populations in different habitats

19.

Which term describes indirect competition via depletion of a shared resource?

a)

Exploitative competition

b)

Interference competition

c)

Mutualism

d)

Commensalism

20.

Producing bacteriocins to inhibit nearby conspecifics is an example of...

a)

Interference competition

b)

Exploitative competition

c)

Facilitation

d)

Neutralism

21.

In scramble competition, resources are...

a)

Shared so all get some but possibly insufficient

b)

Taken by a single dominant competitor

c)

Always partitioned evenly among species

d)

Abundant and nonlimiting

22.

The competitive exclusion principle states that...

a)

Complete competitors cannot coexist indefinitely

b)

Predators and prey always oscillate

c)

Species diversity increases with area

d)

Populations grow exponentially in ideal conditions

23.

Which pair correctly matches the interaction type?

a)

Interspecific competition – between different species

b)

Intraspecific competition – between different species

c)

Mutualism – both harmed

d)

Commensalism – both benefit

24.

Which is an example of a microbial structural adaptation?

a)

Endospore formation in Bacillus

b)

Flagellar rotation rate changes

c)

Induction of operons

d)

Increased mutation rate

25.

What is the main advantage of thermophilic enzymes like Taq polymerase?

a)

They remain stable and active at very high temperatures

b)

They denature easily at moderate heat

c)

They require cold conditions to function

d)

They inhibit DNA replication

26.

Biofilm formation gives microbes which key advantage?

a)

Protection from stress and antibiotics

b)

Increased individual motility

c)

Immediate nutrient depletion

d)

Reduced cell communication

27.

Quorum sensing allows bacteria to...

a)

Coordinate behavior based on population density

b)

Respire anaerobically

c)

Fix nitrogen

d)

Store phosphorus

28.

Ecological succession is best defined as...

a)

Directional change in community structure over time

b)

Random fluctuation in population size

c)

Immediate replacement of species after disturbance

d)

Seasonal migration of communities

29.

Primary succession begins...

a)

On bare substrate where no soil exists

b)

In mature forests after selective logging

c)

After minor disturbances within established soil

d)

In agricultural fields left fallow

30.

Which of the following is typical of secondary succession?

a)

Soil and seed bank are already present

b)

Begins on newly formed lava flows

c)

Occurs where no organisms are present

d)

Requires complete loss of all nutrients

31.

During microbial succession in compost, which group tends to dominate at the hottest thermophilic stage?

a)

Mesophilic fungi

b)

Thermophilic bacteria (e.g., Bacillus and Thermus)

c)

Nitrifying archaea

d)

Actinomycetes

32.

In the facilitation model of succession, early species...

a)

Inhibit later species

b)

Have no effect on later species

c)

Modify the environment to benefit later species

d)

Replace later species only after catastrophes

33.

Which two abiotic factors most strongly determine terrestrial biome distribution globally?

a)

Temperature and soil pH

b)

Temperature and precipitation

c)

Sunlight intensity and wind speed

d)

Altitude and salinity

34.

Which biome is characterized by permafrost, low-growing vegetation, and very short growing seasons?

a)

Tundra

b)

Taiga (boreal forest)

c)

Savanna

d)

Temperate grassland

35.

Which biome typically has the highest net primary productivity per unit area?

a)

Desert

b)

Temperate deciduous forest

c)

Tropical rainforest

d)

Tundra

36.

Which soil horizon is known as topsoil, rich in organic matter and roots?

a)

O horizon

b)

A horizon

c)

B horizon

d)

C horizon

37.

The O horizon of soil is mainly composed of what?

a)

Clay and silt

b)

Unweathered bedrock

c)

Partially decomposed organic matter and litter

d)

Dissolved minerals only

38.

Which biome is dominated by grasses, has seasonal rainfall, and supports large grazing herbivores?

a)

Savanna

b)

Chaparral

c)

Tundra

d)

Boreal forest

39.

In deserts, the main limiting factor for primary productivity is what?

a)

Temperature

b)

Nitrogen availability

c)

Water

d)

Sunlight

40.

Which soil type is typically most fertile for agriculture in temperate regions?

a)

Sandy soil

b)

Clay soil

c)

Loam

d)

Peat

41.

Tropical rainforests usually have nutrient-poor soils despite high productivity. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Boreal forests (taiga) are found mainly in low latitudes near the equator. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What is the exponential growth equation?

a)

dN/dt=rNdN/dt = rN

b)

dN/dt=rN(1−N/K)dN/dt = rN(1 - N/K)

c)

Nt+1=λNtN_{t+1} = \lambda N_t

d)

dN/dt=0dN/dt = 0

44.

In the logistic growth model, what does K represent?

a)

Intrinsic rate of increase

b)

Initial population size

c)

Carrying capacity

d)

Half-saturation constant

45.

On a logistic growth curve, the maximum growth rate occurs at approximately what population size?

a)

00

b)

KK

c)

K/2K/2

d)

2K2K

46.

Give one example of a density-dependent factor regulating population size.

a)

Competition for food

b)

Volcanic eruption

c)

Hurricane landfall

d)

Prolonged drought

47.

Give one example of a density-independent factor regulating population size.

a)

Competition for mates

b)

Disease transmission between individuals

c)

Severe drought

d)

Territoriality

48.

In population models, what does r refer to?

a)

Carrying capacity

b)

Per capita intrinsic rate of increase

c)

Immigration rate

d)

Number of births at time zero

49.

If λ=1\lambda = 1 in a geometric growth model, how is the population changing?

a)

Growing exponentially

b)

Declining

c)

Stable (no change in size)

d)

Oscillating

50.

Which curve shape best represents exponential growth on a graph of N vs. time?

a)

S-shaped curve

b)

J-shaped curve

c)

Linear increase

d)

Inverted U-shaped curve

51.

In a closed yeast culture, why does the population eventually stop growing?

a)

Ambient temperature drops

b)

Predators invade the culture

c)

Nutrients are depleted and waste (e.g., alcohol) accumulates

d)

Cells become larger and stop dividing

52.

What may happen if a population overshoots its carrying capacity?

a)

Sustained exponential growth continues

b)

The population becomes stably higher than carrying capacity

c)

A sudden crash or die-off may occur

d)

Immediate recovery to the original size

53.

The logistic model assumes per capita growth rate decreases as population size approaches K. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Density-dependent factors have the same effect regardless of population size. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Give one example of a human population or situation that might show logistic-like growth.

a)

An island population with unlimited food and space

b)

A developed country’s population stabilizing due to lower birth rates and resource limits

c)

An introduced species experiencing unchecked growth in a new habitat

d)

A community with frequent catastrophes causing repeated collapses

56.

Distinguish exponential from logistic growth.

a)

Exponential growth assumes unlimited resources and is J-shaped; logistic growth includes carrying capacity so growth slows as N approaches K, producing an S-shaped curve

b)

Exponential growth assumes limited resources and is S-shaped; logistic growth assumes unlimited resources and is J-shaped

c)

Both exponential and logistic growth are linear increases over time

d)

Exponential and logistic growth are identical except for starting population size

57.

Which trait combination is typical of r-selected species?

a)

Few large offspring, late maturity, long lifespan

b)

Many small offspring, early maturity, short lifespan

c)

Slow growth, strong competitive ability, parental care

d)

Low reproductive rate, high survivorship throughout life

58.

Which trait combination is typical of K-selected species?

a)

Many small offspring, early maturity, little parental care

b)

Few large offspring, slow growth, late maturity, strong competitive ability

c)

Explosive reproduction following disturbance, short lifespan

d)

High juvenile mortality, little investment per offspring

59.

Which survivorship curve type is typical of humans and elephants?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

None of the above

60.

Give an example of an organism that is strongly r-selected.

a)

Dandelion

b)

Oak tree

c)

Elephant

d)

Blue whale

61.

Give an example of an organism that is strongly K-selected.

a)

Elephant

b)

Fruit fly

c)

House mouse

d)

E. coli bacterium

62.

Life history traits reflect trade-offs between growth, reproduction, and survival. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

63.

r-selected species tend to dominate in disturbed or unpredictable environments. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

64.

K-selected species usually have high fecundity and almost no parental care. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

65.

What does trade-off mean in the context of life history?

a)

Investment in one function reduces energy available for other functions

b)

Simultaneous maximization of all functions

c)

Increase in reproduction automatically increases survival

d)

Trade-offs occur only in K-selected species

66.

Give one life-history trait that differs between r- and K-selected species.

a)

Number and size of offspring differ: r-selected produce many small offspring, K-selected produce fewer larger offspring with more parental care

b)

Both produce the same number of offspring but differ only in habitat

c)

r-selected invest heavily in parental care, K-selected invest none

d)

Only K-selected species reproduce sexually

67.

Intraspecific competition occurs between which individuals?

a)

Individuals of the same species

b)

Individuals of different species

c)

Predators and their prey

d)

Individuals from different ecosystems

68.

In exploitative competition, how do individuals compete?

a)

Indirectly by consuming and depleting a shared resource

b)

Directly by aggression and blocking access

c)

By cooperating to share resources

d)

By mutualistic exchange of nutrients

69.

In interference competition, how do individuals compete?

a)

Directly by blocking or aggressively defending access to resources

b)

Indirectly via depletion of a shared resource

c)

By avoiding resources altogether

d)

By increasing resource production

70.

What does the competitive exclusion principle state?

a)

Complete competitors cannot coexist indefinitely; one will be excluded

b)

Species with identical niches always coexist

c)

Competition always leads to mutualism

d)

Predators exclude prey from all habitats

71.

Producing antibiotics that inhibit neighboring bacteria is an example of what type of interaction?

a)

Amensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Facilitation

72.

What does niche differentiation (resource partitioning) allow species to do?

a)

Coexist by using different resources or conditions

b)

Increase direct interference competition

c)

Occupy identical niches without change

d)

Go extinct more rapidly

73.

Competition can occur for light, space, nutrients, mates, and other resources. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Intraspecific competition is usually stronger than interspecific because individuals are ecologically very similar. Often true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Briefly distinguish exploitative from interference competition.

a)

Exploitative is indirect via depletion of a shared resource; interference is direct, blocking access through aggression or other mechanisms

b)

Exploitative is direct aggression; interference is indirect resource use

c)

Exploitative and interference are identical processes

d)

Interference occurs only among different species; exploitative only within the same species

76.

Endospore formation in Bacillus mainly helps bacteria survive what?

a)

Extreme conditions such as heat, dryness, and nutrient limitation

b)

Abundant nutrients

c)

Low cell density

d)

Lack of oxygen in all environments

77.

Which adaptation is typical of thermophilic enzymes?

a)

They remain stable and active at very high temperatures

b)

They denature at moderate temperatures

c)

They function only at very low temperatures

d)

They are inactive in hot environments

78.

What key advantage do biofilms provide to microbes?

a)

Protection from stress, antibiotics, and host immune responses

b)

Immediate cell death

c)

Enhanced photosynthesis in all microbes

d)

Elimination of competition

79.

What does quorum sensing allow bacteria to do?

a)

Coordinate gene expression and behavior based on cell density

b)

Perform photosynthesis in the dark

c)

Move randomly without signals

d)

Form spores only in radiation

80.

Name one common biofilm habitat.

a)

Teeth (dental plaque)

b)

Sterile distilled water in a sealed flask

c)

Vacuum of outer space

d)

Dry desert sand with no moisture

81.

Biofilms can make infections more difficult to treat with antibiotics. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Extremophiles survive only in mild environments. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Give one example of a microbial structural adaptation and the challenge it addresses.

a)

Endospores enable survival in heat and dryness

b)

Thick cell walls help resist osmotic stress

c)

Capsules increase light absorption to support photosynthesis

d)

Plasmids directly reduce environmental salinity

84.

Why is Taq polymerase useful in PCR?

a)

It is heat-stable and remains active during the high temperatures used to denature DNA in PCR

b)

It binds RNA at low temperatures

c)

It denatures DNA so primers can anneal without heating

d)

It requires freezing conditions to function

85.

What is ecological succession?

a)

Directional change in community composition and structure over time

b)

Random seasonal fluctuations with no directional trend

c)

Instantaneous genetic change within individuals

d)

Inevitable loss of biodiversity regardless of conditions

86.

Primary succession begins under what conditions?

a)

On bare substrate where no soil or organic matter exists

b)

After a disturbance where soil remains

c)

In mature forests only

d)

Only in deep ocean vents

87.

Secondary succession occurs under what conditions?

a)

After a disturbance where soil and some organisms or seed bank remain

b)

On newly formed lava with no soil

c)

Only when predators are removed

d)

During undisturbed climax conditions

88.

In the facilitation model of succession, what do early species do?

a)

Modify the environment to make it more suitable for later species

b)

Exclude all later species via competition

c)

Leave the environment unchanged

d)

Reduce resource availability for all species

89.

During microbial succession in compost, which group often dominates during the hottest thermophilic phase?

a)

Thermophilic bacteria

b)

Mesophilic fungi

c)

Cold-adapted algae

d)

Anaerobic archaea only

90.

As succession proceeds towards a climax community, what happens to structural complexity and often diversity?

a)

Both usually increase

b)

Both usually decrease

c)

Complexity increases while diversity decreases

d)

Complexity decreases while diversity increases

91.

Pioneer species are usually stress-tolerant and can colonize harsh environments. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Disturbance can reset succession and create a mosaic of patches at different stages. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

93.

What is the main difference between primary and secondary succession?

a)

Primary begins without soil, whereas secondary begins where soil and some life remain after disturbance.

b)

Primary begins after minor disturbance, whereas secondary begins on brand-new land formed by lava.

c)

Primary relies on an existing seed bank, whereas secondary occurs only in aquatic ecosystems.

d)

Primary is always faster than secondary, whereas secondary is slower in all cases.

94.

Give one real-world example of secondary succession.

a)

Vegetation regrows after a forest fire.

b)

Plant communities reestablish on abandoned agricultural fields.

c)

New communities establish on fresh lava flows that create brand-new land.

d)

Lichens colonize bare rock following glacier retreat.