Supraventricular arrhythmias primarily originate in the ________.

A history of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy would most likely be suggested on exam by a harsh holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border that ________ with Valsalva.

Syncope associated with palpitations raises particular concern for a life-threatening ________ arrhythmia.

When evaluating palpitations, older age is associated with a greater likelihood of which arrhythmias?

“Flip-flopping” sensations in the chest are most consistent with ________ beats.

“Rapid and regular neck pulses” during palpitations suggest which diagnosis?

Each small box on standard ECG paper corresponds to ________ seconds in duration.

A prolonged PR interval indicates slowed conduction primarily in the ________.

Second-degree AV block is an example of a conduction problem that typically produces an ________ rhythm.

Third-degree heart block often results in a regular rhythm because of ________ in the ventricles.

Prolongation of the QRS duration usually indicates conduction delay in the ________ system.

Arrhythmias originating within the atria/SA node that cause palpitations with an irregular rhythm include premature atrial beats, wandering atrial pacemaker, and ________.

Regular palpitations due to fast rhythms arising from the atria/SA node include sinus tachycardia and ________ tachycardia.

Ventricular disease causing palpitations typically presents with a rhythm that is ________ and fast.

If QRS complexes occur without preceding P waves, this implies that depolarization is originating from a focus ________ the atria.

An ECG strip shows chaotic baseline, no discernible P waves, and irregularly irregular QRS complexes. This is most consistent with ________.

Premature atrial beats can be recognized on ECG as early P waves with a ________ QRS complex.

An ECG shows tall, narrow QRS complexes at a rate of about 180 bpm with no visible P waves and a regular rhythm. This is most consistent with ________.

A 6-second rhythm strip shows wide QRS complexes at a rate of ~30 bpm with complete AV dissociation. This most likely represents ________.

The convenient sequence method for estimating rate with a regular rhythm uses large boxes between R waves and the sequence 300–150–100–75–60–50. If two large boxes separate R waves, the rate is approximately ________ bpm.

To calculate heart rate for a very fast regular rhythm, the lecture suggests using the formula: 1500 divided by the number of ________ between R waves.

A narrow QRS complex tachycardia indicates that the impulse originates from a focus that is ________.

A patient describes “rapid fluttering that started abruptly and has been sustained.” The ECG shows a narrow-complex tachycardia at 190 bpm. Which rhythm best fits the description?

“Sudden onset of shortness of breath and dizziness in a smoker” in the case list is meant to raise suspicion for ________ as the cause of palpitations.

In the summary slide, irregular palpitations can be caused by premature beats, wandering atrial pacemaker, multifocal atrial tachycardia, atrial fibrillation/flutter, and ________ heart block.

In the same summary, regular palpitations can be caused by sinus tachycardia, focal atrial tachycardia, supraventricular tachycardia, and ________ tachycardia.

A rhythm strip shows groups of QRS complexes separated by progressively lengthening PR intervals followed by a dropped QRS. This pattern is characteristic of ________ AV block.

A. first-degree

B. second-degree type I (Wenckebach)

C. second-degree type II

D. third-degree

E. none; this is normal

In the context of palpitations, an irregular pounding in the neck can suggest AV dissociation, meaning the atria and ventricles are ________.

A patient feels “occasional weird beats every few minutes.” ECG shows isolated early wide QRS complexes without preceding P waves, followed by compensatory pauses. These are best described as ________.

The lecture emphasizes that reading ECGs the same way every time requires intentional development of a ________.

In patients with palpitations, an irregularly irregular pulse without P waves on ECG strongly points to ________ as the underlying atrial rhythm.

In the lecture framework, disturbances in the cardiac conduction system present clinically as palpitations because they alter cardiac ________.

The current universal definition of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is predicated on monitoring ________, with at least one value above the 99th percentile URL and a rising or falling pattern.

In the context of MI, _________ is required to rule out AMI, whereas high specificity is required to rule in AMI.

Human cardiac troponin I (cTnI) has an additional _________ amino-acid residue on the amino terminal end compared with skeletal muscle TnI, giving it complete cardiac specificity.

Total lactate dehydrogenase (LD/LDH) and its isoenzymes should _________ be used to evaluate cardiac disease according to the lecture.

A Type 1 MI is most commonly associated with _________ loss of coronary blood flow leading to STEMI.

Myocardial injury without myocardial necrosis but with ischemic chest pain is best designated as _________.

In clinical practice, natriuretic peptide monitoring (BNP or NT-proBNP) is most useful as a “rule-_________” test in suspected new CHF.

Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is named a “brain” peptide, but in CHF it is actually secreted mainly by cardiac muscle cells in the _________.

NT-proBNP is preferred over ANP for diagnostic testing partly because NT-proBNP has a _________ half-life.

Congestive heart failure is a condition in which ineffective pumping of the heart leads to accumulation of fluid primarily in the _________.

The Framingham risk score includes total cholesterol and _________ cholesterol as lipid components.

The PROCAM score is validated only in _________.

The initial laboratory approach to assessing atherosclerosis includes measuring serum or plasma total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and ________ cholesterol.

In the PROCAM score, the triglyceride measurement is included in risk assessment along with LDL and HDL cholesterol and the presence of _________.

Atherosclerotic vascular disease status is routinely monitored by determining serum or plasma total cholesterol and _________ cholesterol.

A. HDL

B. VLDL

C. IDL

D. Lipoprotein(a)

E. ApoB

Hypokalemia in a hypertensive patient can suggest the secondary cause of _________.

A basic laboratory evaluation of hypertension typically includes a complete blood count, electrolytes, creatinine, fasting glucose, and _________.

Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are typically autoantibodies of the immunoglobulin _________ class.

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (formerly Wegener’s granulomatosis) is one of the systemic vasculitides associated with _________.

The p-ANCA pattern on ethanol-fixed neutrophils is characterized by a _________ staining pattern.

The most common antigenic target of p-ANCA antibodies is _________.

The antigen specifically associated with the c-ANCA immunofluorescence pattern is _________.

D-dimer is a degradation product of cross-linked fibrin generated during the action of ________ on fibrin.

In patients with suspected acute DVT and a low clinical likelihood score, the first test typically performed is _________.

A negative D-dimer test in a patient with low pretest probability of DVT is used to _________ DVT.

In stroke, imaging is crucial early on to determine whether the stroke is ischemic or _________.

For ischemic stroke, the general therapeutic goal is to _________ the ability to form clots.

The anion gap is calculated as the difference between the major free cations (Na⁺ and K⁺) and the free anions _________ and HCO₃⁻.

An elevated anion gap occurs when acid anions such as _________ or ketones are present.

Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid that is notably cloudy may suggest a diagnosis of pulmonary _________.

The WHO recommends that patients with COPD be evaluated for deficiency of _________ as a possible underlying cause.

The diagnostic workup for lung cancer often begins when a new pulmonary mass is discovered by imaging such as chest x-ray, CT, or _________.

Molecular testing of advanced-stage adenocarcinoma (NSCLC) is required to direct therapy, particularly for mutations in the _________ gene that predict response to tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy.

Current guidelines recommend initial lung cancer molecular testing to include screening for rearrangements in ALK, EGFR, and _________.

Measurement of cytokeratin 19 fragments (CYFRA 21-1) in serum is particularly useful for assessing _________ in NSCLC.

With a tunable diaphragm, applying light pressure is used to hear _________ frequency sounds such as S3 and S4.

Mitral stenosis, S3, and S4 are best heard using _________ pressure with the diaphragm because they are low-frequency sounds.

Ejection murmurs and the murmurs of aortic and mitral regurgitation are typically _________-frequency and best heard with firm pressure.

. Normal jugular venous pressure (JVP) is _________cm or less above the sternal angle.

A normal JVP report might state: “The JVP is 3 cm above the sternal angle with the head of bed elevated to _________ degrees.”

The point of maximal impulse (PMI) is best palpated with the patient in the _________ position with the left arm abducted.

A PMI that is diffuse or greater than about 3 cm in diameter usually suggests _________.

A “thrill” on palpation is a buzzing or vibratory chest wall sensation caused by _________ blood flow.

The standard four precordial listening posts are often remembered as A–P–T–M, standing for Aortic, Pulmonic, Tricuspid, and _________.

A normal auscultation report might state that at the base S2 is louder than S1 with a physiologic split of _________ greater than P2.

Physiologic splitting of S2 is due to delayed closure of the _________ valve from increased venous return to the right heart.

Fixed splitting of S2 that does not vary with respiration suggests prolonged right ventricular systole, typically due to _________.

Pathologic wide splitting of S2 can be due to valve disease or _________ abnormalities that further delay pulmonic valve closure or cause premature aortic closure.

A murmur that begins after or with the carotid upstroke and ends before S2 is classified as _________.

A murmur that starts after S2 and stops before you feel the carotid upstroke is classified as _________.

According to the slide, aortic murmurs typically radiate to the _________.

Mitral murmurs commonly radiate toward the _________.

The murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in Case A is loudest at the _________ sternal border.

In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, the murmur intensity typically _________ when the patient squats.

systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard best at the right 2nd intercostal space that radiates to the carotids is most consistent with _________.

An S3 is often described by the cadence _________ (“Lub-de-dub”).

In Case D, a child with a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the 2nd left interspace that increases with inspiration most likely has _________ stenosis.

In Noonan syndrome, pulmonic stenosis is a common congenital heart defect, and affected children often have _________ stature.

A holodiastolic blowing decrescendo murmur heard best at the left 2nd and 3rd interspaces and at the apex is due to _________ regurgitation.

Severe aortic regurgitation is most likely associated with which hemodynamic finding: a markedly _________ pulse pressure.

In Case F, the scratchy, scraping sound heard in both systole and diastole along the left third intercostal space that is better heard leaning forward and holding the breath is a _________ friction rub.

A soft systolic ejection murmur at the left sternal border in a healthy 15-year-old athlete with no other abnormal findings is classified as an _________ murmur.

“Heaves” (or lifts) are described as rhythmic rises of the chest wall over the ventricles and are due to forceful _________ contraction.