WorksheetsHEMA2-19
Total questions: 138
Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Hemostasis refers to which physiological function?
a)
Clot destruction
b)
Maintenance of blood flow within the vascular system
c)
Red cell formation
d)
Platelet destruction
2.
If a patient has multiple bruises or reports a tendency to bleed, how long should the phlebotomist observe the venipuncture site?
a)
30 seconds
b)
1 minute
c)
3 minutes
d)
5 minutes
3.
What additional measure should the phlebotomist apply before dismissing a patient who tends to bleed easily?
a)
Warm compress
b)
Pressure bandage
c)
Ice pack
d)
Elastic tourniquet
4.
Which coagulation factors are considered labile factors because they deteriorate easily?
a)
Factors II and VII
b)
Factors IX and XII
c)
Factors V and VIII
d)
Factors I and XIII
5.
Buffered sodium citrate (0.105–0.109 M) increases the stability of which factors?
a)
Factors II and VII
b)
Factors IX and XII
c)
Factors V and VIII
d)
Factors I and XIII
6.
Cold storage at 1–6°C causes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Precipitation of von Willebrand factor
b)
Activation of factor VII
c)
Preservation of platelets
d)
Destruction of platelets
7.
What is the molarity of buffered sodium citrate used in light blue-top tubes for coagulation testing?
a)
0.05 M
b)
0.109–0.120 M
c)
0.105–0.109 M
d)
0.150 M
8.
CTAD tubes are used for coagulation tests and for measuring which platelet activation markers?
a)
Fibrinogen and D-dimer
b)
PF4 and β-thromboglobulin
c)
Factor XIII and vWF
d)
Plasmin and antithrombin
9.
Which anticoagulant additives are present in CTAD tubes?
a)
Citrate, thymine, adenosine, diphosphate
b)
Citrate, theophylline, adenosine, dipyridamole
c)
Citrate, thrombin, ADP, dopamine
d)
Citrate, tocopherol, ATP, dopamine
10.
Hemolysis, prolonged tourniquet use, platelet contamination, and excessive agitation cause PT/APTT results to become:
a)
Prolonged
b)
Shortened
c)
Either
d)
Neither
11.
A short draw in a light blue tube will have what effect on coagulation results?
a)
Prolonged
b)
Shortened
c)
Either
d)
Neither
12.
An elevated hematocrit (>55%) affects PT/APTT testing by causing:
a)
Prolonged
b)
Shortened
c)
Either
d)
Neither
13.
What is the preferred needle gauge for an adult with good veins when collecting a specimen LESS than 25 mL?
a)
19 gauge
b)
20 or 21 gauge
c)
22 gauge
d)
23 gauge
14.
What is the preferred needle gauge for an adult with good veins when collecting a specimen GREATER than 25 mL?
a)
19 gauge
b)
20 or 21 gauge
c)
22 gauge
d)
23 gauge
15.
What is the preferred needle gauge for a child or adult with small, friable, or hardened veins?
a)
19 gauge
b)
20 or 21 gauge
c)
22 gauge
d)
23 gauge
16.
What is the preferred needle gauge for transferring of blood from syringe to tube?
a)
19 gauge
b)
20 or 21 gauge
c)
22 gauge
d)
23 gauge
17.
What needle length is recommended for venipuncture?
a)
0.75 inches or 1.0 inches
b)
1.0 or 1.25 inches
c)
Either
d)
Neither
18.
What type of needle is recommended for small, friable, or hardened veins?
a)
Any needle
b)
Winged-needle (butterfly) set
c)
Multisample needle
d)
IV needle
19.
What needle gauge(s) may be used when a syringe with a winged-needle set is required?
a)
20 gauge
b)
20, 21 gauge
c)
20, 21, 23 gauge
d)
20, 21, 23, 25 gauge
20.
24 hours
a)
PT with no unfractionated heparin (UFH) in specimen
b)
PTT with no unfractionated heparin (UFH) in specimen
c)
PTT for monitoring UFH therapy
d)
PT when UFH is present in specimen
21.
4 hours
a)
PT with no unfractionated heparin (UFH) in specimen
b)
PTT with no unfractionated heparin (UFH) in specimen
c)
PTT for monitoring UFH therapy
d)
PT when UFH is present in specimen
22.
Separate within 1 hour, test within 4 hours
a)
PT with no unfractionated heparin (UFH) in specimen
b)
PTT with no unfractionated heparin (UFH) in specimen
c)
PTT for monitoring UFH therapy
d)
PT when UFH is present in specimen
23.
Prolonged PT/APTT results may result from the presence of clots or
a)
Decreased A:C ratio
b)
Increased A:C ratio
24.
1 mm
a)
Petechiae
b)
Purpura
c)
Ecchymosis
25.
>=1 cm
a)
Petechiae
b)
Purpura
c)
Ecchymosis
26.
3 mm
a)
Petechiae
b)
Purpura
c)
Ecchymosis
27.
nosebleed
a)
Epistaxis
b)
Hermothrosis
c)
Hemoptysis
d)
Hematemesis
28.
hemorrhage into a joint
a)
Epistaxis
b)
Hermothrosis
c)
Hemoptysis
d)
Hematemesis
29.
expectoration of blood from some part of the respiratory tract
a)
Epistaxis
b)
Hermothrosis
c)
Hemoptysis
d)
Hematemesis
30.
vomiting of blood
a)
Epistaxis
b)
Hermothrosis
c)
Hemoptysis
d)
Hematemesis
31.
unusually heavy or prolonged menstrual periods
a)
Menorrhagia
b)
Hematochezia
c)
Melena
d)
Thrombosis
32.
passage of fresh blood per anus, usually in or with stools
a)
Menorrhagia
b)
Hematochezia
c)
Melena
d)
Thrombosis
33.
passage of black, tarry stools
a)
Menorrhagia
b)
Hematochezia
c)
Melena
d)
Thrombosis
34.
pathological formation of blood clots in veins/arteries that obstruct blood flow
a)
Menorrhagia
b)
Hematochezia
c)
Melena
d)
Thrombosis
35.
reduced levels of fibrinogen in the blood
a)
Hypofibrinogenemia
b)
Dysfibrinogenemia
36.
fibrinogen does not function normally or optimally
a)
Hypofibrinogenemia
b)
Dysfibrinogenemia
37.
Involves constriction of damaged blood vessels
a)
Primary hemostasis
b)
Secondary hemostasis
38.
Involves formation of platelet plugs
a)
Primary hemostasis
b)
Secondary hemostasis
39.
Involves formation of fibrin meshwork through activated coagulation factors
a)
Primary hemostasis
b)
Secondary hemostasis
40.
Involves inhibition of activated coagulation factors
a)
Primary hemostasis
b)
Secondary hemostasis
41.
- also known as tunica interna
a)
Tunica intima
b)
Tunica media
c)
Tunica adventitia
42.
- forms the smooth glistening surface of endothelium that lines the inner tubular cavity (lumen)
a)
Tunica intima
b)
Tunica media
c)
Tunica adventitia
43.
endothelium – simple squamous epithelium lining the blood vessels
a)
Tunica intima
b)
Tunica media
c)
Tunica adventitia
44.
-composed of smooth muscle and elastic fibers -thickest coat
a)
Tunica intima
b)
Tunica media
c)
Tunica adventitia
45.
-also known as tunica externa
a)
Tunica intima
b)
Tunica media
c)
Tunica adventitia
46.
composed of fibrous connective tissue that contains autonomic nerve endings and the vasa vasorum (small networks of blood vessels that supply nutrients to the tissues of the wall).
a)
Tunica intima
b)
Tunica media
c)
Tunica adventitia
47.
size: 4 mm
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
48.
distributing blood vessels that leave the heart
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
49.
have the thickest walls of the vascular system
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
50.
microscopic continuation of arteries that give off branches called metarterioles, which in turn join the capillaries
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
51.
size: 30 um
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
52.
size: 5 mm
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
53.
collecting blood vessels that return to the heart
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
54.
larger, have a more irregular lumen than arteries
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
55.
size: 20 μm
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
56.
microscopically sized veins; connect the capillaries to the veins
a)
Arteries
b)
Arteriole
c)
Veins
d)
Venules
57.
size: 8 um
a)
Capillaries
b)
Sinusoids
58.
blood passes from the arterial to the venous system via the capillaries
a)
Capillaries
b)
Sinusoids
59.
composed of only one cell layer of simple squamous epithelium (unlike the vessels of the arterial and venous systems), which permits a more rapid rate of transport of materials between blood and tissue.
a)
Capillaries
b)
Sinusoids
60.
specialized types of capillaries found in locations such as the bone marrow, spleen and liver
a)
Capillaries
b)
Sinusoids
61.
capillaries are the thinnest walled and most numerous of the blood vessels.
a)
Capillaries
b)
Sinusoids
62.
a.k.a.: Prostaglandin I2 (PGI2)
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
63.
Inhibits platelet activation
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
64.
produced by the eicosanoid pathway in endothelial cells
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
65.
penetrates the platelet and binds at its IP receptor
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
66.
stimulates vasodilation
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
67.
(metabolic product of ATP and ADP
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
68.
a thrombin cofactor
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
69.
binds thrombin and reduces its ability to participate in the clotting process
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
70.
-weakly enhances Antithrombin (previously called Antithrombin III)
a)
Prostacyclin
b)
Adenosine
c)
Thrombomodulin
d)
Heparan sulfate
71.
activated protein C; inactivates factors Va and VIIIa
a)
Protein C
b)
TAFI
72.
an antifibrinolytic enzyme; -thrombin activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor
a)
Protein C
b)
TAFI
73.
aka fibrinolysin
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
74.
enzyme that dissolves clot
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
75.
-major plasminogen activator
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
76.
Aids in platelet adhesion
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
77.
Acts as a carrier protein for factor VIII
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
78.
“a disintegrin and metalloproteinase with a thrombospondin type 1 motif, member 13”
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
79.
aka VWF-cleaving protease; a plasma enzyme secreted by the LIVER
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
80.
regulates the size of circulating VWF by cleaving ultra-long VWF multimers (ULVWF) into shorter segments (have less hemostatic potential)
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
81.
caused by a deficiency of ADAMTS-13
a)
TPA
b)
VWF
c)
ADAMTS 13
d)
TTP
e)
Plasmin
82.
Endothelial cells and megakaryocytes
a)
Site of synthesis of VWF
b)
Site of storage of VWF
83.
Weibel-Palade bodies, alpha granules
a)
Site of synthesis of VWF
b)
Site of storage of VWF
84.
Found in platelets
a)
Weibel-Palade bodies
b)
Alpha granules
85.
Found in blood vessels
a)
Weibel-Palade bodies
b)
Alpha granules
86.
Platelets arise from which bone marrow precursor cell?
a)
Myeloblasts
b)
Megakaryocytes
c)
Monoblasts
d)
Promyelocytes
87.
Platelets play a role in which parts of hemostasis?
a)
Only primary hemostasis
b)
Only secondary hemostasis
c)
Both primary and secondary hemostasis
d)
None of the choices
88.
Which best describes the morphology of platelets?
a)
Nucleated cells with vacuolated cytoplasm
b)
Cells with granular cytoplasm and no nucleus
c)
Binucleated cells with basophilic granules
d)
Large cells with multiple nuclei
89.
Platelets tend to cluster with which blood component near the center of the blood vessel?
a)
WBCs
b)
RBCs
c)
Plasma proteins
d)
Fibrin strands
90.
Platelets move back and forth with WBCs from venules into which part of the spleen?
a)
Red pulp
b)
White pulp
c)
Marginal zone
d)
Capsule
91.
What is the average platelet life span?
a)
9 ± 1 days
b)
8 ± 1 days
c)
7 ± 1 days
d)
6 ± 1 days
92.
On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, how many platelets are expected?
a)
7 to 21 per 10x field
b)
7 to 21 per 100x field
c)
2 to 5 per 10x field
d)
2 to 5 per 100x field
93.
What is the normal platelet diameter?
a)
1 to 2 um
b)
2 to 4 um
c)
5 to 7 um
d)
8 to 10 um
94.
Which of the following is NOT one of the major functions of platelets?
a)
Form an aggregate plug
b)
Participate in plasma coagulation
c)
Preserve endothelial lining
d)
Produce erythropoietin
95.
Reticulated platelets are also known as:
a)
Fragmented platelets
b)
Stress platelets
c)
Giant platelets
d)
Storage platelets
96.
Reticulated platelets are newly released from megakaryocytes and therefore still contain:
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Hemoglobin
d)
Iron
97.
What is the expected size of reticulated platelets on PBS?
a)
<6 um
b)
>6 um
c)
<3 um
d)
>3 um
98.
Reticulated platelets increase in which condition?
a)
Polycythemia
b)
Thrombocytopenia
c)
Thrombocytosis
d)
Leukocytopenia
99.
Reticulated platelets are clinically useful for distinguishing:
a)
Leukemia vs lymphoma
b)
Iron deficiency vs thalassemia
c)
Bone marrow failure vs peripheral destruction
d)
Hemophilia A vs B
100.
Reticulated platelets are considered potentially:
a)
Antithrombotic
b)
Prothrombotic
c)
Neutral
d)
Apoptotic
101.
Normal mean platelet volume (MPV) reference range is:
a)
12 to 14 fL
b)
6.8 to 10.2 fL
c)
9.6 to 11 fL
d)
3 to 5 fL
102.
EDTA causes platelet volume to:
a)
Decrease by ~20% during the first hour
b)
Increase by ~20% during the first hour
c)
Increase by ~20% during the second hour
d)
Decrease by ~20% during the second hour
103.
MPV should be measured using EDTA specimens that are:
a)
Fresh (<15 minutes old)
b)
1 to 4 hours old
c)
6 to 12 hours old
d)
>24 hours old
104.
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal recessive
d)
Autosomal dominant
105.
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal recessive
d)
Autosomal dominant
106.
Gray Platelet Syndrome
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal recessive
d)
Autosomal dominant
107.
Fechtner syndrome
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal recessive
d)
Autosomal dominant
108.
Epstein syndrome
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal recessive
d)
Autosomal dominant
109.
MHA
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal recessive
d)
Autosomal dominant
110.
Sebastian syndrome
a)
X-linked dominant
b)
X-linked recessive
c)
Autosomal recessive
d)
Autosomal dominant
111.
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
a)
Small platelets
b)
Large or giant platelets
112.
TORCH infections
-Toxoplasma
-Other agents
-Rubella virus
-Cytomegalovirus
-Herpesvirus
a)
Small platelets
b)
Large or giant platelets
113.
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
a)
Small platelets
b)
Large or giant platelets
114.
Gray platelet syndrome
a)
Small platelets
b)
Large or giant platelets
115.
MYH9 gene mutations
– examples:
*Fechtner syndrome
*Sebastian syndrome
*Epstein syndrome
*MHA
a)
Small platelets
b)
Large or giant platelets
116.
-characterized by:
*leukopenia
*variable thrombocytopenia
*giant platelets
*Dohle body-like inclusions in leukocytes
a)
Fechtner syndrome
b)
Sebastian syndrome
c)
Epstein syndrome
d)
May Hegglin Anomaly
117.
Biconvex or disc shaped
a)
Resting and circulating platelets
b)
Activated platelets
118.
Spherical with pseudopods
a)
Resting and circulating platelets
b)
Activated platelets
119.
Centrally located, granular
a)
Chromomere
b)
Hyalomere
120.
Peripherally located, non-granular
a)
Chromomere
b)
Hyalomere
121.
Thrombopoietin (TPO) is also known as:
a)
EPO
b)
MGDF
c)
G-CSF
d)
MGFD
122.
What is the major regulator of platelet production?
a)
Erythropoietin
b)
Thrombopoietin
c)
Either
d)
Neither
123.
Where is thrombopoietin primarily produced?
a)
Kidneys
b)
Spleen
c)
Liver
d)
Bone marrow
124.
TPO shares ___% homology with erythropoietin (EPO).
a)
10%
b)
23%
c)
40%
d)
50%
125.
The MPL receptor for TPO is found at which stages of megakaryocyte–platelet development?
a)
Only mature megakaryocytes
b)
Only platelets
c)
Only BFU-Meg
d)
All stages—from BFU-Meg to platelets
126.
Plasma TPO concentration is inversely proportional to:
a)
RBC mass
b)
WBC mass
c)
Platelet and megakaryocyte mass
d)
Eosinophil mass
127.
Which cytokines work with TPO to stimulate megakaryocytopoiesis?
a)
IL-1 and IL-2
b)
IL-3, IL-6, IL-11
c)
IL-5 and IL-12
d)
TNF-α and IFN-γ
128.
Which of the following is NOT a function of TPO?
a)
Induces proliferation of megakaryocytes
b)
Induces maturation of megakaryocytes
c)
Stimulates thrombocytopoiesis
d)
Stimulates erythropoiesis
129.
Megakaryocytes are the ___ cells in the bone marrow.
a)
Smallest
b)
Most mature
c)
Least mature
d)
Largest
130.
Megakaryocytes have which characteristic nucleus?
a)
Round
b)
Binucleated
c)
Multilobulated
d)
Segmented like neutrophils
131.
What proportion of bone marrow cells do megakaryocytes represent?
a)
5 to 10%
b)
<0.5%
c)
>0.5%
d)
25%
132.
How many megakaryocytes can be seen in a normal peripheral blood smear?
a)
2 to 4 megakaryocytes per 100x lpf
b)
2 to 4 megakaryocytes per 10x lpf
c)
5 to 10 megakaryocytes per 10x lpf
d)
10 to 20 megakaryocytes per 100x lpf
133.
Least mature
a)
burst-forming unit (BFU0Meg)
b)
colony-forming unit (CFU-Meg)
c)
light-density CFU (LD-CFU-Meg)
134.
participate in normal mitosis
a)
burst-forming unit (BFU0Meg)
b)
colony-forming unit (CFU-Meg)
c)
light-density CFU (LD-CFU-Meg)
135.
loses its capacity to divide
a)
burst-forming unit (BFU0Meg)
b)
colony-forming unit (CFU-Meg)
c)
light-density CFU (LD-CFU-Meg)
136.
performs endomitosis
a)
burst-forming unit (BFU0Meg)
b)
colony-forming unit (CFU-Meg)
c)
light-density CFU (LD-CFU-Meg)
137.
BFU-Meg, CFU-Meg, and LD-CFU-Meg all resemble the?
a)
Megakaryocytes
b)
Leukocytes
c)
Lymphocytes
d)
Thrombocytes
138.
Most mature
a)
burst-forming unit (BFU0Meg)
b)
colony-forming unit (CFU-Meg)
c)
light-density CFU (LD-CFU-Meg)
100 %
