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Fire alarm multiple choice 50 questions

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which British Standard covers fire detection and alarm systems for non-domestic buildings?

a)

BS 7671

b)

BS 5839-1:2017

c)

BS 5839-6:2013

d)

BS EN 54-23

2.

Category L1 systems are designed to:

a)

Protect property only

b)

Provide earliest possible warning for life protection

c)

Rely on manual call points only

d)

Protect escape routes only

3.

Which category relies solely on manual call points?

a)

L1

b)

L3

c)

M

d)

P1

4.

Category P1 systems aim to:

a)

Warn occupants for evacuation

b)

Minimise time from ignition to fire brigade arrival

c)

Protect escape routes only

d)

Detect smoke in voids only

5.

EN 54-23 relates to:

a)

Visual Alarm Devices

b)

Heat Detectors

c)

Aspirating Smoke Detection

d)

Voice Alarm Systems

6.

Which document replaced most UK fire safety laws in 2006?

a)

Building Regulations Part B

b)

Regulatory Reform (Fire Safety) Order

c)

Equality Act 2010

d)

BS 5839-8

7.

Category L4 systems provide protection to:

a)

All rooms

b)

Escape routes only

c)

High-risk rooms only

d)

Voids only

8.

Category L2 systems include:

a)

Smoke detectors in escape routes only

b)

Additional protection for high-risk rooms

c)

Manual call points only

d)

No automatic detection

9.

Category L5 systems are:

a)

Property protection systems

b)

Customised life protection systems for specific areas

10.

BS 5839-8:2013 applies to:

a)

Voice Alarm Systems

b)

Beam Detectors

c)

Wireless Fire Detection

d)

Visual Alarm Devices

11.

Optical smoke detectors are most sensitive to:

a)

Clean-burning fires

b)

Smouldering fires

c)

Gas leaks

d)

High temperatures

12.

Heat detectors are preferred in:

a)

Bedrooms

b)

Kitchens

c)

Escape routes

d)

Offices

13.

Rate-of-rise heat detectors alarm when:

a)

Smoke obscuration exceeds 0.07%

b)

Temperature rises quickly or reaches a threshold

c)

CO levels exceed 50 ppm

d)

Infrared flame flicker is detected

14.

SMART 4 detectors combine:

a)

Optical, Heat, Infrared, CO

b)

Optical and Heat only

c)

Optical and CO only

d)

Heat and Infrared only

15.

Beam detectors are ideal for:

a)

Small offices

b)

High-ceiling areas

c)

Bathrooms

d)

Kitchens

16.

Aspirating Smoke Detection systems work by:

a)

Detecting heat rise

b)

Drawing air samples through pipes

c)

Using infrared beams only

d)

Detecting CO levels

17.

VIEW detectors are used for:

a)

High sensitivity smoke detection without moving parts

b)

Detecting CO only

c)

Detecting flames only

d)

Detecting heat only

18.

Which detector type is least affected by stratification in high atriums?

4 lines
19.

Flame detectors are typically used in:

a)

Data centres

b)

Oil refineries

c)

Offices

d)

Libraries

20.

OSID technology uses:

a)

UV and IR dual wavelength beams

b)

CO sensors only

c)

Heat and smoke combination

d)

Acoustic sensors

21.

Maximum radius of coverage for a point smoke detector on a flat ceiling is:

a)

5.3m

b)

7.5m

c)

10.5m

d)

15m

22.

Maximum spacing between smoke detectors in corridors less than 2m wide is:

a)

7.5m

b)

10.5m

c)

15m

d)

20m

23.

Manual call points should be mounted at:

a)

0.9m

b)

1.4m

c)

2.0m

d)

1.8m

24.

Maximum travel distance to a manual call point is:

a)

25m

b)

45m

c)

60m

d)

75m

25.

Maximum ceiling height for EN 54-5 Class A1 heat detector is:

a)

7.5m

b)

9m

c)

10.5m

d)

12m

26.

Beam detectors can cover up to:

a)

100m range and 1500m² area

b)

50m range and 500m² area

c)

25m range and 250m² area

d)

200m range and 3000m² area

27.

Detectors should be mounted at least:

a)

100mm from walls

b)

250mm from walls

c)

500mm from walls

d)

750mm from walls

28.

Maximum zone floor area for detection zones is:

a)

300m²

b)

2000m²

c)

5000m²

d)

10,000m²

29.

Maximum search distance within a zone should not exceed:

a)

45m

b)

60m

c)

75m

d)

90m

30.

Ceiling obstructions greater than 10% of ceiling height should be treated as:

a)

Ignored

b)

A wall dividing the room

c)

A minor variation

d)

A mounting point

31.

Agile™ wireless systems use:

a)

Star topology

b)

Mesh topology

c)

Ring topology

d)

Bus topology

32.

EN 54-25 relates to:

a)

Wireless fire detection systems

b)

Visual alarm devices

c)

Voice alarm systems

d)

Beam detectors

33.

Which technology provides 3D coverage for large open spaces?

a)

Beam detection

b)

OSID

c)

Aspirating detection

d)

Flame detection

34.

Voice alarm systems improve evacuation because:

a)

A) People respond faster to voice messages

b)

B) Bells are louder

c)

C) They reduce installation cost

d)

D) They eliminate false alarms

35.

EVCS systems are required for:

a)

All single-storey buildings

b)

Multi-storey non-domestic premises

c)

Buildings without staircases

d)

Small offices only

36.

Which standard governs EVCS design?

a)

BS 5839-9:2011

b)

BS 5839-8:2013

c)

BS EN 54-23

d)

BS 7671

37.

Paging systems for the hearing impaired comply with:

a)

BS 5839-1:2017, Clause 18

b)

BS 5839-8:2013

c)

BS EN 54-16

d)

BS 8300 only

38.

Visual Alarm Devices must provide minimum luminance of:

a)

0.2 lux

b)

0.4 lux

c)

1.0 lux

d)

2.0 lux

39.

Category C VAD coverage is defined as:

a)

A cube of light

b)

A cylinder of light

c)

A sphere of light

d)

A cone of light

40.

Mesh wireless systems offer reliability because:

a)

They use a single communication path

b)

They self-heal with multiple paths

c)

They require no batteries

d)

They avoid EN standards

41.

BS 5839 recommends functional testing of detectors:

a)

Weekly

b)

Monthly

c)

Annually

d)

Every 5 years

42.

Weekly fire alarm tests should involve:

a)

Activating a smoke detector

b)

Activating a manual call point

c)

Disconnecting the power supply

d)

Removing a detector head

43.

Drift compensation in detectors helps to:

a)

Increase sensitivity over time

b)

Maintain sensitivity despite contamination

c)

Disable alarms during cleaning

d)

Reduce battery life

44.

Cause & Effect programming is used to:

a)

Define detector sensitivity

b)

Control outputs based on input conditions

c)

Reduce installation cost

45.

Maximum sound pressure level for alarms should not exceed:

a)

85dB(A)

b)

100dB(A)

c)

120dB(A)

d)

140dB(A)

46.

Sound level at bed head for waking occupants should be:

a)

65dB(A)

b)

75dB(A)

c)

85dB(A)

d)

95dB(A)

47.

GUI-based monitoring systems allow:

a)

Remote system monitoring and control

b)

Elimination of detectors

c)

Faster smoke detection only

d)

Avoidance of BS standards

48.

Which feature helps prevent nuisance alarms?

a)

Multi-sensor detectors with SMART algorithms

b)

Using only heat detectors everywhere

c)

Disabling alarms permanently

d)

Increasing sensitivity in dusty areas

49.

EN 54-20 Class A sensitivity is:

a)

Normal sensitivity

b)

Very high sensitivity for early warning

c)

Low sensitivity for large spaces

d)

Medium sensitivity for offices

50.

Which maintenance step is essential after servicing detectors?

a)

Replace all detectors

b)

Perform functional testing

c)

Disable alarms for 24 hours

d)

Reduce sensitivity settings

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