wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Basic Labor Relations & Labor Standards Practices Introduction

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes labor relations from labor standards in the Philippine context?

a)

Labor standards governs only union registration and certification

b)

Labor standards focuses on employer branding and workforce morale

c)

Labor relations sets minimum wage, hours, and benefits requirements

d)

Labor relations concerns management–labor interactions and agreements

2.

A competency most relevant to resolving a union–management dispute through facilitated discussion is which of the following?

a)

Mediation skills for structured third‑party dialogue

b)

Supreme Court SCRA citation memorization

c)

Drafting a corporate marketing plan

d)

Occupational safety equipment calibration

3.

Which competency most directly supports preparing and defending a case involving unfair labor practice before a tribunal?

a)

Government tourism rules and incentives

b)

Negotiation skills for supplier price talks

c)

Knowledge of the Labor Code of the Philippines

d)

Basics of laboratory quality assurance

4.

A company seeks to formalize a Collective Bargaining Agreement (CBA). Which paired competencies together would best guide the process from talks to enforceability?

a)

Negotiation skills and knowledge of government rules and procedures

b)

Facility maintenance scheduling and payroll software tips

c)

Social media outreach and employee wellness coaching

d)

Inventory control methods and export documentation

5.

Which statement best distinguishes labor relations from labor standards?

a)

Labor standards focuses on union recognition and bargaining

b)

Labor standards governs processes between employers and workers

c)

Labor relations governs processes between employers and workers

d)

Both terms mean identical regulatory approaches in workplaces

e)

Labor relations prescribes minimum employment terms and benefits

6.

What is the primary focus of labor standards within labor law?

a)

Defining management prerogatives in enterprises

b)

Regulating employer–worker negotiations and disputes

c)

Setting minimum terms and conditions of employment

d)

Mediating political participation by trade unions

e)

Determining taxes and social insurance contributions

7.

A company sets wages, hours, and leave below legal minimums but maintains a cordial union relationship. Which area of labor law is most clearly being violated?

a)

No violation because mutual consent applies

b)

Collective bargaining procedures exclusively

c)

Constitutional provisions on free speech only

d)

Labor standards on minimum terms and benefits

e)

Labor relations obligations and mediation rules

8.

Which biblical principle most directly supports a weekly day of rest for workers?

a)

Leviticus 19:13 on prompt payment of wages

b)

Exodus 23:12 on ceasing work on the seventh day

c)

Proverbs 31 on diligence and industry

d)

Genesis 9 on covenants with humanity

e)

Matthew 5 on turning the other cheek

9.

Which biblical text emphasizes timely payment of wages to hired workers?

a)

Exodus 23:12 on Sabbath rest and refreshment

b)

Psalm 23 on guidance and protection

c)

Leviticus 19:13 on not defrauding neighbors

d)

Deuteronomy 5 on honoring parents and elders

e)

Acts 2 on sharing within early communities

10.

Which item is a core principle of labor law emphasizing long-term employment stability?

a)

Freedom of expression in the workplace

b)

Security of tenure in lawful employment

c)

Living wage pegged to basic needs

d)

Humane conditions and safe facilities

e)

Participation in policy-making bodies

11.

Which set best lists collective rights commonly protected in labor law?

a)

Management rights, performance appraisal, bonuses only

b)

Licensing, training, continuing professional education

c)

Tax withholding, social security, health insurance

d)

Minimum wage, paid leave, safe equipment standards

e)

Self-organization, collective bargaining, concerted activities

12.

A union proposes workers join a committee shaping safety policies, while management promises market wages and regular rest days but rejects committee participation. Which core principle is most at issue?

a)

Humane work conditions and reasonable hours

b)

Participation in policy-making and decision-making

c)

Freedom of expression through workplace notices

d)

Security of tenure with due process rights

e)

Sharing of production fruits through profit bonuses

13.

Which statement best expresses the idea that employment is a contract?

a)

It is a permit issued by the government

b)

It is an informal promise between friends

c)

It is a casual arrangement without duties

d)

It is a mutual agreement with obligations

14.

Which option lists the four elements of the 4-Fold Test most commonly used to determine an employment relationship?

a)

Hire, Fire, Pay, Control

b)

Hours, Leave, Overtime, Safety

c)

Wages, Benefits, Taxes, Tenure

d)

Recruitment, Training, Appraisal, Rewards

15.

In the 4-Fold Test, what does the element of “control” primarily refer to?

a)

The employee’s freedom to choose any client

b)

The government’s power to regulate industries

c)

The union’s role in negotiating collective terms

d)

The employer’s right to direct how work is done

16.

A company selects a worker, sets work methods and schedules, pays a monthly salary, and may terminate for cause. Under the 4-Fold Test, how is the relationship best classified?

a)

As an independent contractor arrangement

b)

As a temporary volunteer engagement

c)

As an employment relationship under the test

d)

As a purely civil service appointment

17.

Which situation most strongly weakens a claim of employment under the 4-Fold Test?

a)

Firm provides regular pay for services

b)

Worker controls methods and timing of tasks

c)

Firm chooses who performs the work

d)

Firm can end the engagement for cause

18.

Which item is a statutory monetary benefit typically given at year’s end in the Philippines?

a)

Service Charges

b)

Separation Pay

c)

Premium Pay

d)

13th Month Pay

e)

Overtime Pay

19.

Which benefit compensates work performed beyond the employee’s normal daily hours?

a)

Holiday Pay

b)

Premium Pay

c)

Overtime Pay

d)

Service Incentive Leave

e)

Night Shift Differential

20.

Which benefit specifically addresses work performed during late-night hours?

a)

Maternity Leave

b)

Service Charges

c)

Night Shift Differential

d)

Minimum Wage

e)

Solo Parents Leave

21.

Which set lists only government-mandated social insurance benefits marked with an asterisk?

a)

Social Security Benefit, Overtime Pay

b)

VAWC Leave, Retirement Pay

c)

PhilHEALTH Benefit, Pag-IBIG Benefit

d)

Compensation Benefit (ECC), Service Charges

e)

Maternity Leave, Minimum Wage

22.

Which option best explains the analogy that employment is like marriage?

a)

Both prioritize benefits over duties

b)

Both eliminate need for written contracts

c)

Both remove employer’s legal liabilities

d)

Both guarantee permanent legal union

e)

Both involve long-term mutual obligations

23.

Which pair correctly matches the benefit to its general purpose?

a)

Service Incentive Leave – paid annual rest

b)

Retirement Pay – pay for working holidays

c)

Premium Pay – monthly government pension

d)

Service Charges – overtime compensation

e)

Separation Pay – bonus for perfect attendance

24.

Which sequence correctly represents the three broad stages in the employment lifecycle as depicted in the diagram?

a)

Hiring, Training, Retirement

b)

Recruitment, Placement, Termination

c)

Pre-employment, Employment, Post-employment

d)

Orientation, Appraisal, Separation

25.

In the marriage analogy for employment stages, which phase aligns with Pre-Employment?

a)

Wedding ceremony

b)

Anniversary celebration

c)

Separation and annulment

d)

Courtship and engagement

26.

Which ordered set best matches Recruitment, Selection, and Placement with their marital parallels?

a)

Courtship, Marriage, Separation

b)

Engagement, Marriage, Anniversary

c)

Courtship, Engagement, Marriage

d)

Marriage, Separation, Annulment

27.

During recruitment, which activity most directly depends on job analysis outcomes?

a)

Scheduling orientation sessions

b)

Issuing the job offer

c)

Conducting background checks

d)

Preparing the job description

28.

Which step typically occurs after receiving job applications but before job offer and acceptance?

a)

Onboarding and induction

b)

Short-listing candidates

c)

Drafting job analysis

d)

Holding exit interviews

29.

Which pairing correctly links an employment outcome with its marriage-analogy counterpart for a positive end state?

a)

Long tenure with awards — Golden anniversary

b)

Probationary dismissal — Engagement party

c)

Redundancy payment — Prenuptial agreement

d)

Resignation without clearance — Wedding reception

30.

Which of the following is most appropriately categorized under Selection rather than Recruitment?

a)

Administering employment tests

b)

Sourcing applicants externally

c)

Advertising vacancies widely

d)

Writing the job description

31.

Which action best represents Post-Employment activities in a labor standards context?

a)

Processing separation clearance

b)

Finalizing job placement

c)

Scheduling applicant testing

d)

Drafting job advertisements

32.

In the recruitment-to-placement pipeline shown, what is the most logical immediate successor to Background Checks?

a)

Testing of candidates

b)

Performance appraisal

c)

Payroll enrollment

d)

Job analysis review

33.

A company maps its processes to the marriage analogy. Which policy most closely reduces the risk of a 'tragic ending' like separation or lawsuits?

a)

Lengthy anniversary celebrations

b)

Lavish recruitment advertising

c)

Symbolic engagement ceremonies

d)

Rigorous selection with testing

34.

Which scenario best fits a happy ending to employment?

a)

Retirement with proper clearances

b)

Termination for repeated offenses

c)

Filing a labor case for wages

d)

Getting sued for negligence

35.

Which item is most associated with a tragic ending to employment?

a)

Labor case over unpaid benefits

b)

Retirement with farewell rites

c)

Cordial resignation after turnover

d)

Completion of a fixed project

36.

What is a Yellow Dog contract?

a)

A contract promising lifetime employment

b)

An arrangement to pay wages in company scrip

c)

A contract where a worker rejects union membership

d)

An agreement waiving overtime premiums

37.

An employer presents a new hire with a Yellow Dog contract. Which choice describes the worker’s commitment in that document?

a)

To remain for five years without leave

b)

Not to join or stay in a union

c)

To accept variable pay below minimum

d)

To report all safety incidents weekly

38.

Which pair correctly matches ending type with an example?

a)

Tragic ending – cordial resignation

b)

Happy ending – lawsuit for negligence

c)

Tragic ending – labor case filed

d)

Happy ending – termination for cause

39.

Which principle best captures the link between recruitment and dismissal decisions in labor relations?

a)

Hiring methods shape lawful termination steps

b)

Recruiters decide all future firing outcomes

c)

Hiring paperwork is unrelated to future dismissal

d)

Termination rules dictate how firms must hire

40.

Which statement reflects that not everyone engaged by a firm becomes an employee under labor law?

a)

Freelancers are always considered employees

b)

Some hires are independent, not employees

c)

All hires automatically gain employee status

d)

Probation always means permanent employment

41.

Which is a non-employment option commonly used by organizations?

a)

Regular seasonal worker status

b)

Tenured civil service placement

c)

Permanent full-time appointment

d)

Independent contractor engagement

42.

Which pairing shows two non-employee categories from common practice?

a)

Regulars and probationary hires

b)

Project and seasonal employees

c)

Supervisors and rank-and-file

d)

Consultants and freelancers

43.

Which role is typically outside an employer–employee relationship?

a)

Volunteers providing unpaid services

b)

Workers with fixed monthly salaries

c)

Probationary employees learning duties

d)

Regular staff under company control

44.

Labor law imposes limits on what aspect of business authority?

a)

Shareholder voting procedures

b)

Management prerogative in employment

c)

Corporate taxation and customs

d)

Product pricing in open markets

45.

Under the Labor Code, who bears the burden of proof that a dismissal had a valid or authorized cause?

a)

The employer initiating the dismissal

b)

The dismissed employee alone

c)

The labor arbiter hearing

d)

The government labor inspector

46.

Which article places the burden on the employer to prove valid termination causes?

a)

Article 4 paragraph 3

b)

Article 96 paragraph 4

c)

Article 282 paragraph 1

d)

Article 291 paragraph 2

47.

How should doubts in interpreting the Labor Code and its rules be resolved?

a)

By case lottery assignment

b)

In favor of business interests

c)

In favor of labor interests

d)

By equal split between sides

48.

Which legal directive favors workers when rules are ambiguous?

a)

Article 4 of the Labor Code

b)

Article 291 on tax benefits

c)

Article 110 on capital gains

d)

Article 3 of the Civil Code

49.

A company labels a worker as a consultant but controls work hours, methods, and provides tools. Which issue is most relevant?

a)

Possible misclassification as employee

b)

Need for more onboarding sessions

c)

Proper use of consulting title

d)

Choice of contractor billing cycle

50.

When planning hiring policies to minimize disputes, which approach aligns with legal limits?

a)

Shift proof of cause to the employee

b)

Assume doubts favor management decisions

c)

Rely on verbal promises to new hires

d)

Define status clearly and keep evidence

51.

Which set best represents the three actors in the tripartite model of labor relations?

a)

Employers, Consumers, Media

b)

Courts, Police, Military

c)

Government, Labor, Business

d)

Unions, NGOs, Academia

52.

In the tripartite model, which role primarily sets and enforces minimum wage orders?

a)

Nonprofits through advocacy funds

b)

Business through price controls

c)

Labor through collective strikes

d)

Government through wage boards

53.

Which interaction is central to the tripartite model’s balance of interests?

a)

Exclusive arbitration by courts

b)

Silent compliance by workers

c)

Bilateral negotiations among all three

d)

Unilateral decisions by employers

54.

A regional wage order increases non‑agriculture rates while keeping agriculture rates lower. Which rationale most aligns with typical wage‑setting considerations?

a)

Sector productivity and cost structures

b)

Random adjustments without criteria

c)

International law mandates parity

d)

Uniform pay for all occupations

55.

If Region NCR shows a higher non‑agriculture daily wage than a rural region, which explanation is most consistent with regional wage policy?

a)

Higher living costs and market wages

b)

Foreign currency subsidies

c)

Punishment for urban employers

d)

Union bans in rural communities

56.

A business argues that plantation agriculture should match non‑agriculture wages immediately. Which tripartite process step should occur before a decision?

a)

Plebiscite of non‑resident voters

b)

Court trial without submissions

c)

Consultation among government, labor, business

d)

Instant decree by business owners

57.

Which principle best describes non-diminution of benefits in employment?

a)

Benefits cannot be reduced once granted

b)

Benefits can be reduced during losses

c)

Benefits may be delayed without limit

d)

Benefits have maximum caps by policy

58.

Termination of employment is generally lawful only when based on which categories?

a)

Economic downturn alone

b)

Managerial prerogative alone

c)

Just cause or authorized cause

d)

Voluntary quit or retirement

59.

Which is a just cause for termination?

a)

Mandatory retirement age

b)

Redundancy of a position

c)

Closure due to automation

d)

Serious misconduct by the employee

60.

Which is an authorized cause for termination?

a)

Installation of labor-saving devices

b)

Willful disobedience of orders

c)

Fraud against the employer

d)

Crime against a supervisor

61.

Which pair correctly matches cause type to example?

a)

Authorized cause – employee fraud

b)

Just cause – serious misconduct

c)

Authorized cause – gross insubordination

d)

Just cause – redundancy of staff

62.

Which statement about substantive due process in termination is most accurate?

a)

There must be a valid legal ground

b)

Separation pay suffices alone

c)

Only the hearing must be held

d)

Only notices must be issued

63.

Which statement about procedural due process in dismissal is correct?

a)

Proper notices and hearing are required

b)

No hearing is ever required

c)

Only a final notice is necessary

d)

Employer intent alone is sufficient

64.

Which sequence reflects the typical procedural due process steps?

a)

Investigation, immediate termination, appeal

b)

Hearing, notice to explain, final payment

c)

Notice of termination, hearing, notice to explain

d)

Notice to explain, hearing, notice of termination

65.

Which is NOT generally a just cause for termination?

a)

Willful breach of trust

b)

Serious misconduct at work

c)

Gross and habitual neglect

d)

Redundancy due to reorganization

66.

Which is NOT an authorized cause for termination?

a)

Habitual minor offenses by employee

b)

Retrenchment to prevent losses

c)

Disease prejudicial to health

d)

Business closure or cessation

67.

Loss of trust as a ground is typically associated with which type of cause?

a)

Just cause requiring proof of breach

b)

Authorized cause due to redundancy

c)

Statutory cause with automatic pay

d)

Economic cause requiring notice only

68.

A company installs robots, rendering some jobs unnecessary. What cause applies?

a)

Authorized cause: employee fraud

b)

Just cause: serious misconduct

c)

Just cause: willful disobedience

d)

Authorized cause: labor-saving devices

69.

An employee repeatedly ignores lawful orders. What cause may justify dismissal?

a)

Just cause: willful disobedience

b)

Authorized cause: redundancy

c)

Authorized cause: retrenchment

d)

Just cause: compulsory retirement

70.

Which due process document first informs the employee of the charges?

a)

Payroll memo acknowledging pay

b)

Notice of termination only

c)

Employment certification letter

d)

Notice to explain with details

71.

Redundancy as an authorized cause generally requires which employer action?

a)

Good faith and proper notice

b)

Immediate dismissal without pay

c)

Secret reorganization only

d)

Criminal complaint against staff

72.

Which situation best illustrates gross and habitual neglect of duties?

a)

Repeatedly missing critical tasks

b)

One accidental late submission

c)

Taking approved unpaid leave

d)

Requesting additional training

73.

Incompetence without improvement may justify termination under which category?

a)

Statutory cause: retirement

b)

Procedural cause: hearing only

c)

Authorized cause: retrenchment

d)

Other just causes recognized

74.

Which scenario properly invokes disease as an authorized cause?

a)

Illness poses health risk at work

b)

Minor cold treated in one day

c)

Stress from heavy workload

d)

Dislike of shift schedule

75.

If a business must close entirely, termination may be based on what?

a)

Authorized cause: closure or cessation

b)

Just cause: breach of trust

c)

No cause is ever required

d)

Just cause: serious misconduct

76.

Habitual commission of minor offenses leading to dismissal is grounded in which concept?

a)

One-strike termination rule

b)

Purely economic necessity

c)

Zero-tolerance once policy

d)

Totality of infraction doctrine

77.

Which element belongs to substantive due process in employment decisions?

a)

Just cause for action

b)

Notice to explain

c)

Notice of termination

d)

Notice of hearing

78.

Which step is part of procedural due process before termination?

a)

Good faith applied

b)

Reasonableness tested

c)

Just cause established

d)

Notice to explain

79.

Why is a written employment contract considered a best HR practice?

a)

It clarifies terms and obligations

b)

It replaces due process entirely

c)

It prevents any future disputes

d)

It eliminates need for documentation

80.

Which documentation set correctly matches timing with purpose?

a)

Pre-employment: screening records

b)

Employment: resignation letters

c)

Post-employment: onboarding forms

d)

Pre-employment: payroll adjustments

81.

Article 19 of the Civil Code requires actions with justice, giving everyone their due, honesty, and what additional principle?

a)

Waiver of employee rights

b)

Strict liability to employees

c)

Absolute employer discretion

d)

Good faith in dealings

82.

Which practice best demonstrates good faith in human relations at work?

a)

Fair investigation before discipline

b)

Immediate dismissal without notice

c)

Ignoring employee explanations

d)

Secret evidence against employees

83.

An HR officer plans a termination. Which sequence aligns with procedural due process?

a)

Hearing, notice to explain, termination

b)

Termination, hearing, notice to explain

c)

Notice to explain, hearing, termination

d)

Just cause, termination, appeal hearing

84.

A company collects IDs, clearances, and pre-employment medical results. Which documentation phase is this?

a)

Collective bargaining records

b)

Post-employment documentation

c)

Disciplinary documentation

d)

Pre-employment documentation

85.

Which situation shows substantive due process is missing?

a)

No HR signature on notice

b)

No written termination letter

c)

No schedule for the hearing

d)

No just cause for dismissal

86.

Which statement best links best practices and legal standards in HR?

a)

Good documentation supports due process

b)

Verbal policies replace written contracts

c)

Good faith removes need for hearings

d)

Just cause is optional if polite