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Cloud Technology Multiple Choice Quiz

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term describes the ability of a system to adapt to workload changes automatically?

a)

Ubiquitous access

b)

Elasticity

c)

Resource pooling

d)

Automation

2.

What does ubiquitous access mean?

a)

Access only during business hours

b)

Anytime, anywhere, any device access

c)

Access restricted to local networks

d)

Access only via VPN

3.

Which characteristic allows cloud services to be deployed in hours rather than weeks?

a)

Rapid deployment

b)

Resource pooling

c)

Automation

d)

Chargeback

4.

On-demand self-service means:

a)

Users must contact IT for resources

b)

Resources are provisioned automatically when needed

c)

Services are scheduled weekly

d)

Manual approval is required for every request

5.

Which term refers to sharing computing resources among multiple customers?

a)

Elasticity

b)

Multi-tenancy

c)

Provisioning

d)

Chargeback

6.

Pay-as-you-grow model means:

a)

Fixed monthly cost regardless of usage

b)

Payment based on actual usage

c)

Payment before service starts

d)

Payment after contract ends

7.

Which term refers to allocating cloud resources to a customer?

a)

Deprovisioning

b)

Provisioning

c)

Automation

d)

Bursting

8.

Cloud bursting occurs when:

a)

A private cloud expands into a public cloud during demand spikes

b)

A public cloud shuts down

c)

A hybrid cloud becomes private

d)

A community cloud merges with another

9.

Which cloud model is dedicated to a single organisation?

a)

Public

b)

Private

c)

Hybrid

d)

Community

10.

Which cloud model combines public and private clouds?

a)

Community

b)

Hybrid

c)

Private

d)

Shared

11.

Which cloud model is designed for organisations in the same industry?

a)

Private

b)

Public

c)

Community

d)

Hybrid

12.

Which cloud model requires only an internet connection and devices to access services?

a)

Private

b)

Public

c)

Hybrid

d)

Community

13.

Which organisation would benefit most from pay-as-you-grow?

a)

Military

b)

Small businesses

c)

Intelligence services

d)

Research labs

14.

Which organisation is least likely to use cloud services due to security concerns?

a)

Marketing agency

b)

Military

c)

Online retail

d)

Start-up

15.

Who is responsible for negotiating SLAs with cloud vendors?

a)

Support desk staff

b)

Vendor management staff

c)

Capacity planners

d)

Cloud architect

16.

Which role monitors and manages cloud resources?

a)

Network operations centre staff

b)

Cloud architect

c)

Vendor manager

d)

Service desk

17.

Which service model provides ready-to-use applications?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

XaaS

18.

Which service model provides a platform for application development?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

CaaS

19.

Which service model provides virtual servers and storage?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

CaaS

20.

Which is an example of SaaS?

a)

Microsoft Azure

b)

Google App Engine

c)

Microsoft Office 365

d)

Amazon Web Services

21.

Which is an example of PaaS?

a)

Google App Engine

b)

Dropbox

c)

AWS EC2

d)

Skype

22.

Which is an example of IaaS?

a)

Google Docs

b)

Microsoft Azure

c)

Force.com

d)

Zoho

23.

Which term refers to removing duplicate data to save storage space?

a)

Data encryption

b)

Data deduplication

c)

Data migration

d)

Data segregation

24.

Which tool is used for command-line data transfer to Azure?

a)

CyberDuck

b)

AzCopy

c)

Storage Explorer

d)

Intune

25.

Which protocol is essential for cloud networking?

a)

FTP

b)

TCP/IP

c)

SMTP

d)

POP3

26.

Which authentication method adds extra security beyond passwords?

a)

Single Sign-On

b)

Multifactor Authentication

c)

Role-based access

d)

Encryption

27.

Which risk involves being unable to leave a cloud vendor easily?

a)

Data integrity

b)

Vendor lock-in

c)

Insider threat

d)

Shadow IT

28.

Which legislation focuses on preventing disclosure of sensitive government data?

a)

Computer Misuse Act

b)

Official Secrets Act

c)

Data Protection Act

d)

GDPR

29.

Which act governs personal data transfer outside the EEA?

a)

Computer Misuse Act

b)

Official Secrets Act

c)

Data Protection Act

d)

Patriot Act

30.

Which performance metric measures delay in data communication?

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Latency

c)

Throughput

d)

QoS

31.

Which SLA element specifies service uptime and performance?

a)

Dispute resolution

b)

Availability requirements

c)

Data ownership

d)

Change control

32.

Which cloud adoption consideration checks if the vendor can handle future growth?

a)

Redundancy

b)

Scalability

c)

Compliance

d)

Exit plan

33.

Which business benefit of cloud reduces upfront costs?

a)

Hardware independence

b)

Capital expenditure minimisation

c)

SLA enforcement

d)

Vendor lock-in

34.

Which risk involves employees bypassing IT to use cloud services?

a)

Insider threat

b)

Shadow IT

c)

Multitenancy

d)

Data integrity

35.

Which tool provides a GUI for cloud storage management?

a)

AzCopy

b)

PowerShell

c)

Storage Explorer

d)

CLI

36.

Which term refers to isolating data to prevent unauthorised access?

a)

Data segregation

b)

Data deduplication

c)

Data encryption

d)

Data migration

37.

Which cloud security risk occurs when multiple tenants share infrastructure?

a)

Shadow IT

b)

Multitenancy issues

c)

Vendor lock-in

d)

Data deduplication

38.

Which tool is used for physical data transfer to a cloud vendor?

a)

Storage Explorer

b)

AWS Snowball

c)

AzCopy

d)

CyberDuck

39.

Which cloud feature reduces manual provisioning efforts?

a)

Automation

b)

Elasticity

c)

Chargeback

d)

Bursting

40.

Which business consideration relates to launching products faster?

a)

Scalability

b)

Time to market

c)

Hardware independence

d)

Variable cost

41.

What is cloud computing?

a)

A linked connection of computers

b)

A delivery of computing services

c)

A process of scheduling computer programs

d)

A study of system uses

42.

What are the types of cloud services?

a)

Public, private and hybrid clouds

b)

Personal area (PAN), Local area (LAN), Campus area networks (CAN)

c)

Infrastructure as a service (IaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), software as a service (SaaS)

d)

Mail server, collaboration server, web server, application server

43.

What is the purpose of on-demand self-service in cloud computing?

a)

Allowing users to manage resources automatically

b)

Restricting access to IT staff only

c)

Reducing scalability

d)

Fixing resource limits

44.

What does scalability in cloud computing refer to?

a)

Increasing resources only

b)

Decreasing resources only

c)

Adjusting resources based on demand

d)

Fixing resource usage

45.

True or False: Cloud computing enables access from any device connected to the internet.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

What does "multi-tenancy" mean?

a)

Each organisation has dedicated hardware

b)

Multiple customers share the same resources securely

c)

Resources cannot be shared

d)

Only one tenant can use the service at a time

47.

Which of these describes a benefit of cloud computing?

a)

High upfront costs

b)

Pay-as-you-go pricing

c)

Manual scaling

d)

Fixed infrastructure

48.

What is rapid elasticity?

a)

Resources can be scaled up or down as needed

b)

Fixed resource allocation

c)

Broad network access

d)

Limiting resources

49.

What is a drawback of cloud computing?

a)

Improved disaster recovery

b)

Dependence on internet connectivity

c)

Rapid elasticity

d)

Broad network access

50.

True or False: Cloud computing eliminates the need for physical data centres.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Which NIST characteristic enables a pay-per-use model through monitoring and reporting?

a)

On-demand self-service

b)

Measured service

c)

Rapid elasticity

d)

Resource pooling

52.

A retailer experiences traffic spikes at Christmas and wants capacity to grow and shrink automatically. Which characteristic addresses this need?

a)

Broad network access

b)

Measured service

c)

Rapid elasticity

d)

Resource pooling

53.

Which deployment model delivers services over the Internet to multiple tenants and is owned by a provider?

a)

Private Cloud

b)

Community Cloud

c)

Public Cloud

d)

Hybrid Cloud

54.

A university consortium shares a platform for research data and HPC workloads. Which deployment model fits best?

a)

Public Cloud

b)

Community Cloud

c)

Private Cloud

d)

Hybrid Cloud

55.

In a hybrid Cloud, mission-critical ERP runs privately while office apps run from a provider. What is the main trade-off being balanced?

a)

Bandwidth vs latency

b)

Security/privacy/compliance vs price

c)

SLA vs CAPEX

d)

Virtualisation vs containerisation

56.

Which service model provides complete business applications accessed via a web UI?

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

BPaaS

57.

Developers need temporary scalable test environments without managing underlying servers. Which service model is most appropriate?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

On-prem

58.

Which evolution factor most directly enabled Cloud multi-tenancy by dividing hardware into secure logical instances?

a)

Internet

b)

Virtualization

c)

Client-server

d)

Mainframes

59.

Which OSI layers are primarily involved when establishing TCP/IP connectivity for Cloud access?

a)

Application & Presentation

b)

Session & Transport

c)

Transport & Network

d)

Data Link & Physical

60.

Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) contributes to Cloud by...

a)

Eliminating the need for APIs

b)

Providing an architectural style of reusable services

c)

Mandating proprietary protocols

d)

Replacing virtualization

61.

Which is a core hardware element of a local Cloud enabling boot-from-SAN and dense compute?

a)

Rack PCs

b)

Blade server arrays

c)

Thin clients

d)

Tape libraries

62.

What is the purpose of a load balancer in Cloud architectures?

a)

Encrypt data at rest

b)

Provide role-based access control

c)

Distribute requests across instances and support auto-scaling

d)

Manage software licensing

63.

Which statement best describes a VPN?

a)

A secure tunnel over public networks extending a private LAN/WAN

b)

A virtualization platform for desktops

c)

A Cloud-native storage layer

d)

A mobile device management app

64.

IP tunneling typically encapsulates passenger data using an encapsulating protocol over a carrier protocol. Which combination is correct?

a)

HTTP over SMTP over POP

b)

IP over GRE over Ethernet

c)

Ethernet over IP over TCP

d)

IP over TLS over Wi-Fi

65.

A company connects its private Cloud to a public provider via VPN to create a virtual private Cloud. What is the main benefit?

a)

Lower SAN latency

b)

Shared tenancy

c)

Secure hybrid connectivity

d)

Eliminates identity management

66.

Which ISO/IEC standard focuses specifically on IT service management?

a)

ISO/IEC 27001

b)

ISO/IEC 20000

c)

ISO/IEC 38500

d)

ISAE 3402

67.

Which process is NOT part of ISO/IEC 20000?

a)

Service level management

b)

Supplier management

c)

Configuration management

d)

People recruitment and payroll management

68.

You are the customer selecting a Cloud provider. Which question best addresses data residency and legal compliance?

a)

What hypervisor do you use?

b)

Where are your servers located and what legislation applies?

c)

Do you offer dark fiber?

d)

Can I visit your NOC any time?

69.

Which risk arises when connecting a local Cloud to the public Internet without proper partitioning?

a)

Higher CAPEX

b)

Lower elasticity

c)

Data leakage across tenants

70.

Which two benefits of a VPN most support remote work?

a)

Lower CAPEX and faster SAN

b)

Remote secure connectivity and mobility

c)

Backup automation and cheaper licensing

d)

Higher CPU frequency and lower heat

71.

Which requirement must be met for browser-based access to SaaS?

a)

Application must be compatible with the client’s browser/OS

b)

User must know the server IP

c)

Client must run the same programming language

d)

Local admin rights must be disabled

72.

Which protocol secures web transactions for Cloud apps?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

SMTP

d)

HTTPS/SSL

73.

A firm replaces PCs with network-booted devices without disks to lower cost and improve security. What are they adopting?

a)

Thick clients

b)

Thin clients

c)

Edge gateways

d)

HSMs

74.

Mobile access raises which common business concern when using smartphones for Cloud email?

a)

Lack of TCP/IP

b)

Shoulder surfing and removable media risks

c)

Incompatibility with POP

d)

Excess fiber cost

75.

Which service model lets sales staff use a virtual desktop from any device?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

On-prem VDI only

76.

Which collaboration example represents Cloud-based document sharing among users?

a)

SMTP

b)

Dropbox/Ubuntu One

c)

SNMP

d)

DHCP

77.

Providers must rewrite SLAs in the Cloud era because...

a)

Customers no longer care about compliance

b)

Providers deliver more of the value chain and must assure performance and audits

c)

It eliminates multi-tenancy

d)

Browsers change frequently

78.

Which service model gives customers control over more architecture layers?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

All equally

79.

Selecting SaaS for office productivity primarily impacts which OSI layer on the customer side?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Application

d)

Network

80.

A startup wants to be operational quickly with minimal IT ownership. Which choice aligns best?

a)

On-prem servers with custom ERP

b)

Public Cloud SaaS for email, docs, and CRM

c)

Private Cloud only

d)

Hybrid Cloud with MPLS

81.

Which security property is achieved by preventing unauthorised disclosure of information?

a)

Availability

b)

Integrity

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Non-repudiation

82.

Which is NOT a mitigation specifically for data loss/leakage?

a)

Encryption

b)

Backups

c)

Authentication and authorisation

d)

Using SAN alone without controls

83.

Which threat involves password theft and session hijacking against Cloud accounts?

a)

Unknown risk profile

b)

Abuse of Cloud services

c)

Account/service/traffic hijacking

d)

Shared tech vulnerability

84.

Which measure helps reduce malicious insider risk at providers?

a)

Ignoring logs

b)

Strong HR vetting and security policies

c)

Using only public networks

d)

Disable encryption

85.

Which statement about APIs in Cloud security is TRUE?

a)

APIs are irrelevant to Cloud

b)

Insecure APIs increase risk; secure design and strong auth are needed

c)

APIs remove the need for authentication

d)

APIs only exist in PaaS

86.

Triple-A refers to...

a)

Audit, Assurance, Availability

b)

Authentication, Authorisation, Accounting

c)

Access, API, Application

d)

Attestation, Auditing, Access

87.

Single Sign-On (SSO) improves web security by...

a)

Replacing TLS

b)

Consolidating distributed auth so users authenticate once to access multiple services

c)

Disabling passwords

d)

Removing identity federation

88.

Federated identity enables...

a)

Proprietary lock-in

b)

Cross-domain single sign-on and attribute exchange via open standards

c)

Elimination of compliance needs

d)

Local-only accounts

89.

Which standard specifies requirements for an Information Security Management System?

a)

ISO/IEC 20000-1

b)

ISO/IEC 27001

90.

Under the EU Data Protection Directive (1995), personal data refers to...

a)

Only health records

b)

Any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person

c)

Only financial identifiers

d)

Only biometric identifiers

91.

Which financial impact is typical when moving from Capex to Cloud subscriptions?

a)

Higher Capex, lower Opex

b)

Elimination of all costs

c)

Shift from Capex to Opex (subscriptions/pay-per-use)

d)

No impact

92.

Which approach helps avoid vendor lock-in when choosing SaaS?

a)

Pick proprietary APIs

b)

Choose APIs that are platform/provider-independent

c)

Disable integrations

d)

Use no APIs

93.

Which is a realistic operational benefit of Cloud?

a)

Eliminates backups

b)

Provider-managed services and faster server deployment

c)

No need for governance

d)

Unlimited bandwidth

94.

Which staffing benefit is commonly cited for Cloud adoption?

a)

Higher wages for all IT staff

b)

Less IT staff with lower training and recruitment costs

c)

No security team needed

d)

No need for helpdesk

95.

Before signing with a provider, which performance question is most useful?

a)

Do users like your logo?

b)

How long does it take to resolve incidents and problems?

c)

Can we access your cafeteria?

d)

Do you use ring topology?

96.

Post-contract, which governance activity should be in the SLA or practice?

a)

Quarterly management reviews and annual third-party assurance (e.g., ISAE 3402)

b)

Allow customer admin on provider routers

c)

Public posting of all logs

d)

No audits

97.

Which statement about storage availability in Cloud is accurate?

a)

Always shorter access time than LAN

b)

Additional storage can be provisioned and released on demand and paid when used

c)

Cloud storage is always more secure

d)

Cloud storage removes compliance risks

98.

A pilot (trial period) with SaaS primarily helps...

a)

Eliminate MPLS

b)

Manage expectations and validate service quality against needs

c)

Replace ISO standards

d)

Guarantee zero downtime

99.

When comparing providers, which evidence supports service management maturity?

a)

ISO/IEC 20000 certification and documented processes

b)

Use of the latest smartphones

c)

Bright office lighting

d)

Free coffee

100.

Scenario: Your firm needs EU-resident storage for customer PII to meet regulatory obligations. Which deployment/service choice is most appropriate?

a)

Any public Cloud with global data scatter

b)

Public Cloud with guaranteed EU data residency and ISO/IEC 27001 controls

c)

Private Cloud outside the EU

d)

Unmanaged file hosting

101.

Scenario: During a DDoS against your public SaaS portal, which provider control is most relevant?

a)

Kerberos only

b)

Elastic auto-scaling plus load balancing and upstream mitigation

c)

Tape backup speed

d)

Thin client boot time

102.

Scenario: A multi-tenant CRM exposes customers to cross-tenant data access due to misconfiguration. Which practice most directly reduces this risk?

a)

Disable TLS

b)

Enforce strong tenant data partitioning, zoning, and role-based access

c)

Use public Wi-Fi

d)

Block HTTPS

103.

Scenario: Developers need rapid, temporary environments for integration testing and build pipelines. Which service and benefit match?

a)

SaaS – managed email

b)

PaaS – low setup overhead and elastic scale for dev/test

c)

IaaS – manual racking of servers

d)

On-prem – long procurement cycles

104.

Scenario: Sales staff must register leads on the road with full sync to office systems. Which approach fits best?

a)

POP-only email

b)

SaaS CRM with mobile apps and push email via Exchange

c)

Tape-based backups

d)

Serial terminals