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Worksheets

CHM 101

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Bohr's model failed primarily because it could not explain:

a)

Energy levels.

b)

Atomic spectra.

c)

Elliptical orbits.

d)

Stationary states.

2.

If n = 4, which l value is forbidden?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

3.

Max electrons in an f subshell (l = 3)?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

14

d)

18

4.

How many m_l values exist for a p subshell?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

5.

A particle with large mass and low speed has a de Broglie wavelength that is:

a)

Large.

b)

Predictable.

c)

Very small.

d)

Infinite.

6.

Heisenberg's principle limits the simultaneous knowledge of position and:

a)

Energy.

b)

Momentum.

c)

Spin.

d)

Velocity.

7.

Psi² (Psi square) in quantum mechanics represents the:

a)

Wave function.

b)

Orbital shape.

c)

Probability density.

d)

Energy level.

8.

Which quantum number differentiates 2s from 4s?

a)

l

b)

m_l

c)

m_s

d)

n

9.

Which set (n, l, m_l) describes a 3dz² orbital?

a)

3, 2, +3

b)

3, 2, 0

c)

2, 3, +1

d)

3, 1, 0

10.

The arrangement, energy, and count of an atom's electrons define its:

a)

Quantum state.

b)

Atomic structure.

c)

Electronic structure.

d)

Quantum level.

11.

Hund's Rule maximizes stability by ensuring orbitals have:

a)

Paired, opposite spins.

b)

Unpaired, parallel spins.

c)

Paired, parallel spins.

d)

Full capacity.

12.

Which two phenomena confirmed the quantization of energy?

a)

Atomic spectra, de Broglie.

b)

Diffraction, wave-particle duality.

c)

Blackbody, photoelectric effect.

d)

Emission spectra, Heisenberg.

13.

The minimum frequency needed for the photoelectric effect is called the:

a)

Planck frequency.

b)

Quantum frequency.

c)

Threshold frequency.

d)

Wave frequency.

14.

What is the ground state configuration of the Fe³⁺ ion?

a)

[Ar] 3d⁶ 4s⁰

b)

[Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹

c)

[Ar] 3d⁵

d)

[Ar] 3d³ 4s²

15.

According to the Aufbau principle, which orbital follows 4p?

a)

4d

b)

5p

c)

4f

d)

5s

16.

The classification of s, p, d, and f sections in the periodic table are known as:

a)

Periods.

b)

Rectangular blocks.

c)

Groups.

d)

Main groups.

17.

The first stage of quantum theory treated the electron as a:

a)

Wave.

b)

Particle.

c)

Photon.

d)

Ion.

18.

Elements where d or f subshells are filled are classified as:

a)

Noble gases.

b)

Representative elements.

c)

Transition elements.

d)

Main group elements.

19.

The Lanthanides are part of which group classification?

a)

d-transition.

b)

p-block.

c)

f-transition.

d)

Representative.

20.

The principle that no two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers is:

a)

Hund's rule.

b)

Aufbau principle.

c)

Pauli exclusion principle.

d)

Quantization rule.

21.

The stronger ionic bond in MgO vs. NaCl is due to:

a)

Higher electronegativity.

b)

Smaller ion size.

c)

Greater ionic charge magnitude.

d)

Lower melting point.

22.

A dative bond is unique because:

a)

Sharing is unequal.

b)

Only one sigma bond forms.

c)

One atom contributes both shared electrons.

d)

Electron transfer occurs.

23.

Unequal sharing of electron pairs defines:

a)

Non-polar covalent.

b)

Pure covalent.

c)

Polar covalent.

d)

Ionic.

24.

What is the characteristic bond angle of an sp hybrid orbital?

a)

109.5°

b)

120°

c)

180°

d)

90°

25.

Metallic bonding consists of positive ions surrounded by a:

a)

Crystalline structure.

b)

Network of shared pairs.

c)

Sea of delocalised electrons.

d)

Fixed molecular lattice.

26.

Order the forces: Strongest → Weakest.

a)

Covalent > H-bond > van der Waals.

b)

Ionic > Covalent > H-bond > van der Waals.

c)

H-bond > Ionic > Covalent.

d)

Covalent > Ionic > van der Waals.

27.

The ability of a metal to be drawn into wires is called:

a)

Malleability.

b)

Brittleness.

c)

Ductility.

d)

Expansibility.

28.

VSEPR theory predicts shape by minimizing electronic repulsion in the:

a)

Nucleus.

b)

Pi-electron system.

c)

Valence shell.

d)

Core electron shell.

29.

The phase change from Gas → Solid (bypassing liquid) is called:

a)

Sublimation.

b)

Condensation.

c)

Deposition.

d)

Vaporization.

30.

The complete mixing of different gases is explained by their:

a)

Expansibility.

b)

Compressibility.

c)

Diffusibility.

d)

Low density.

31.

Hybridization involves mixing atomic orbitals of the:

a)

Same shape.

b)

Same spin.

c)

Same energy level.

d)

Same principal quantum number.

32.

The bond angle for an sp² hybrid set is:

a)

180°

b)

120°

c)

109.5°

d)

90°

33.

Strong hydrogen bonding requires the H atom to be bonded to a small, highly:

a)

Electropositive atom.

b)

Electronegative atom.

c)

Partially positive atom.

d)

Polarizable atom.

34.

Hydrogen bonding is a specific, strong type of:

a)

Covalent bond.

b)

Intramolecular force.

c)

Dipole-dipole interaction.

d)

London Dispersion Force.

35.

The abnormally high boiling points of H-bonded compounds are due to the extra energy needed to break:

a)

Intramolecular covalent bonds.

b)

Sigma and pi bonds.

c)

Intermolecular H-bonds.

d)

Ion-dipole forces.

36.

Which gas property is a direct result of perpetual, random molecular motion?

a)

Low density.

b)

Compressibility.

c)

Pressure exertion.

d)

Fixed volume.

37.

The transformation where solid forces are overcome by particle vibration is:

a)

Sublimation.

b)

Condensation.

c)

Melting.

d)

Evaporation.

38.

Dipole-dipole forces occur between the partial positive end of one molecule and the neighboring molecule's:

a)

Nucleus.

b)

Non-polar region.

c)

Partial negative end.

d)

Delocalised electron.

39.

The force holding atoms in a chemical compound together is called a(n):

a)

Van der waals force.

b)

Nuclear force.

c)

Chemical bond.

d)

Gravitational force.

40.

An increase in electrostatic attraction for an ionic bond is favored by:

a)

High atomic mass.

b)

Small ion size.

c)

Low melting point.

d)

High malleability.