WorksheetsMICRO-10
Total questions: 159
Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What resistance does the oxacillin disk screen test detect?
a)
S. penumoniae's penicillin resistance
b)
MRSA or S. aureus to penicillinase-resistant
c)
S. aureus and S. lugdunensis resistance to oxacillin
d)
VRE and VRSA
2.
What resistance does the oxacillin screen agar test detect?
a)
S. penumoniae's penicillin resistance
b)
MRSA or S. aureus to penicillinase-resistant
c)
S. aureus and S. lugdunensis resistance to oxacillin
d)
VRE and VRSA
3.
What resistance does cefoxitin test detect?
a)
S. penumoniae's penicillin resistance
b)
MRSA or S. aureus to penicillinase-resistant
c)
S. aureus and S. lugdunensis resistance to oxacillin
d)
VRE and VRSA
4.
What resistance does vancomycin screen agar test detect?
a)
S. penumoniae's penicillin resistance
b)
MRSA or S. aureus to penicillinase-resistant
c)
S. aureus and S. lugdunensis resistance to oxacillin
d)
VRE and VRSA
5.
What resistance do Extended-Spectrum B-lactamase (ESBL) test detect?
a)
Penicillin, monobactams, cephalosporin (Klebsiella, E. coli)
b)
S. aureus, S. lugdunensis
c)
Enterobacterales, Carbapenemase production
d)
Confirmatory for Carbapenemase
6.
What resistance do D-zone or inducible clindamycin resistance (ICR) test detect?
a)
Penicillin, monobactams, cephalosporin (Klebsiella, E. coli)
b)
S. aureus, S. lugdunensis
c)
Enterobacterales, Carbapenemase production
d)
Confirmatory for Carbapenemase
7.
What resistance do Modified Hodge test detect?
a)
Penicillin, monobactams, cephalosporin (Klebsiella, E. coli)
b)
S. aureus, S. lugdunensis
c)
Enterobacterales, Carbapenemase production
d)
Confirmatory for Carbapenemase
8.
What resistance do Canba NP test detect?
a)
Penicillin, monobactams, cephalosporin (Klebsiella, E. coli)
b)
S. aureus, S. lugdunensis
c)
Enterobacterales, Carbapenemase production
d)
Confirmatory for Carbapenemase
9.
What media is used for the Vancomycin Screen agar test?
a)
BHI with 3 µg Vancomycin/mL
b)
BHI with 6 µg Vancomycin/mL
c)
BHI with 8 µg Vancomycin/mL
d)
BHI with 9 µg Vancomycin/mL
10.
What media is used for the Disk diffusion method test?
a)
MHA + 5 U Penicillin disk + bacteria
b)
MHA + 10 U Penicillin disk + bacteria
c)
MHA + 15 U Penicillin disk + bacteria
d)
MHA + 25 U Penicillin disk + bacteria
11.
What media is used for the Chromogenic cephalosporin test?
a)
Nitrocefin disk + saline + loop of bacteria
b)
Penicillin + phenol red indicator + bacteria
c)
Penicillin + neutral red indicator + bacteria
d)
Penicillin + iodine-starch complex + bacteria
12.
What media is used for the Acidimetric-Beta lactamase detection test?
a)
Nitrocefin disk + saline + loop of bacteria
b)
Penicillin + phenol red indicator + bacteria
c)
Penicillin + neutral red indicator + bacteria
d)
Penicillin + iodine-starch complex + bacteria
13.
What media is used for the Iodometric-Beta lactamase detection test?
a)
Nitrocefin disk + saline + loop of bacteria
b)
Penicillin + phenol red indicator + bacteria
c)
Penicillin + neutral red indicator + bacteria
d)
Penicillin + iodine-starch complex + bacteria
14.
What media is used on D-zone or inducible clindamycin resistance test?
a)
Disk diffusion with Cefotaxime (CTX), Ceftazidime (CAZ), and Clavulanic acid (CLA)
b)
5% SBA/MHA with 10 µg erythromycin and 2 µg clindamycin
c)
5% SBA/MHA with 2 µg erythromycin and 15 µg clindamycin
d)
5% SBA/MHA with 15 µg erythromycin and 2 µg clindamycin
15.
What media is used on Extended-spectrum B-lactamase (ESBL) test?
a)
Disk diffusion with Cefotaxime (CTX), Ceftazidime (CAZ), and Clavulanic acid (CLA)
b)
5% SBA/MHA with 10 µg erythromycin and 2 µg clindamycin
c)
5% SBA/MHA with 2 µg erythromycin and 15 µg clindamycin
d)
5% SBA/MHA with 15 µg erythromycin and 2 µg clindamycin
16.
What media is used on Modified Hodge test?
a)
Disk diffusion using 5 µg Meropenem or Ertapenem on MHA
b)
Disk diffusion using 10 µg Meropenem or Ertapenem on MHA
c)
Disk diffusion using 15 µg Meropenem or Ertapenem on MHA
d)
Disk diffusion using 20 µg Meropenem or Ertapenem on MHA
17.
What media is used on Canba NP test?
a)
Imipenem, Neutral red indicator, Microtube
b)
Imipenem, Phenol red indicator, Microtube
c)
Imipenem, Bromothymol blue indicator, Microtube
d)
Imipenem, Bromcresol purple indicator, Microtube
18.
What media is used for the oxacillin agar screen for MRSA/S. aureus?
a)
MHA + 5 µg Oxacillin and 4% NaCl
b)
MHA + 6 µg Oxacillin and 4% NaCl
c)
MHA + 7 µg Oxacillin and 4% NaCl
d)
MHA + 8 µg Oxacillin and 4% NaCl
19.
What media is used for the cefoxitin test?
a)
MHA + 20 µg cefoxitin
b)
MHA + 25 µg cefoxitin
c)
MHA + 30 µg cefoxitin
d)
MHA + 35 µg cefoxitin
20.
What media is used for the oxacillin disk screen for S. pneumoniae?
a)
MHA + 5% sheep blood and 1 µg oxacillin
b)
MHA + 5% sheep blood and 2 µg oxacillin
c)
MHA + 5% sheep blood and 3 µg oxacillin
d)
MHA + 5% sheep blood and 10 µg oxacillin
21.
In the oxacillin disk screen, a zone ≤21 mm around the 1 µg oxacillin disk means:
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
c)
Indeterminate; perform MIC
d)
Do not report
22.
Growth in the oxacillin agar screen indicates?
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
c)
Indeterminate; perform MIC
d)
Do not report
23.
Growth in the Vancomycin screen agar indicates?
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
c)
Indeterminate; perform MIC
d)
Do not report
24.
No growth in the oxacillin agar screen indicates?
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
c)
Indeterminate; perform MIC
d)
Do not report
25.
No growth in the Vancomycin screen agar indicates?
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
c)
Indeterminate; perform MIC
d)
Do not report
26.
Sharp/Cliff zone - Beta lactamase producer Fuzzy/Beach zone - Negative
a)
Disk diffusion method
b)
Chromogenic cephalosporin
c)
Acidimetric Beta lactamase detection
d)
Iodometric Beta lactamase detection
27.
Red/Pink = Beta-lactamase producer
a)
Disk diffusion method
b)
Chromogenic cephalosporin
c)
Acidimetric Beta lactamase detection
d)
Iodometric Beta lactamase detection
28.
Yellow = Beta-lactamase producer
a)
Disk diffusion method
b)
Chromogenic cephalosporin
c)
Acidimetric Beta lactamase detection
d)
Iodometric Beta lactamase detection
29.
Colorless/White = Beta lactamase producer
a)
Disk diffusion method
b)
Chromogenic cephalosporin
c)
Acidimetric Beta lactamase detection
d)
Iodometric Beta lactamase detection
30.
Growth on BHI + 6 µg vancomycin/mL means:
a)
Vancomycin resistance
b)
Penicillin resistance
c)
Enterobacterales carbapenemase production
d)
Confirmatory for carbapenemase
31.
In the penicillin disk diffusion beta-lactamase test, a SHARP/CLIFF zone indicates:
a)
Beta-lactamase producer
b)
Negative
32.
In the penicillin disk diffusion beta-lactamase test, a FUZZY or BEACH zone indicates:
a)
Beta-lactamase producer
b)
Negative
33.
Beta-lactamase detection identifies resistance to:
a)
Penicillin, monobactams, cephalosporin
b)
Oxacillin
c)
VRE and VRSA
d)
Ampicillin, Penicillin (-cillin)
34.
ESBL test is used for which organisms?
a)
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus spp.
b)
Enterococcus, N. gonorrhoeae, H. influenzae
c)
Klebsiella and E. coli
d)
S. aureus and S. lugdunensis
35.
ESBL positivity is indicated when:
a)
CTX/CAZ has larger zone of inhibition than CTX/CAZ + CLA
b)
CTX/CAZ has smaller zone of inhibition than CTX/CAZ + CLA
c)
CTX/CAZ + CLA has larger zone of inhibition than CTX/CAZ alone
d)
CTX/CAZ + CLA has smaller zone of inhibition than CTX/CAZ alone
36.
D-Zone test detects:
a)
E. vermicularis infection
b)
Carbapenem resistance
c)
Inducible clindamycin resistance
d)
mecA gene
37.
A positive D-zone test shows:
a)
Red color change
b)
Flattening of clindamycin zone near penicillin
c)
Flattening of clindamycin zone near methicillin
d)
Flattening of clindamycin zone near erythromycin
38.
A positive Modified Hodge Test shows:
a)
Red color change
b)
Flattening of zones
c)
Cloverleaf indentation toward carbapenem disk
d)
Yellow color change
39.
In the Carba NP test, which result indicates a positive reaction?
a)
Tube A becomes yellow or red / Tube B yellow
b)
Tube A becomes red or orange / Tube B becomes red or orange
c)
Tube A becomes red or orange / Tube B becomes yellow
d)
No color change
40.
mecA positive
a)
≤20 mm
b)
≤21 mm
c)
≥22 mm
d)
≥23 mm
41.
mecA negative
a)
≤20 mm
b)
≤21 mm
c)
≥22 mm
d)
≥23 mm
42.
1 gradient of concentration of antibiotic in a plastic strip
a)
E-test
b)
Liofilchem
43.
1 gradient of concentration of antibiotic in a paper strip
a)
E-test
b)
Liofilchem
44.
Endocarditis, Bacteremia, Septic arthritis, UTI, Vascular catheter infections
a)
S. lugdunensis
b)
S. schleiferi
c)
S. haemolyticus
d)
S. epidermidis
e)
S. saprophyticus
45.
Endocarditis, Septicemia, Osteomyelitis, Joint infections, Wounds
a)
S. lugdunensis
b)
S. schleiferi
c)
S. haemolyticus
d)
S. epidermidis
e)
S. saprophyticus
46.
Endocarditis, Bacteremia, Peritonitis, UTI, Wound, Bone, Joints infection
a)
S. lugdunensis
b)
S. schleiferi
c)
S. haemolyticus
d)
S. epidermidis
e)
S. saprophyticus
47.
Nosocomial bacteremia from indwelling vascular catheters, endocarditis from prosthetic heart valve, infections from prosthetic joints, postsurgical ocular infection, vascular grafts, bacteremia in neonates under ICU
a)
S. lugdunensis
b)
S. schleiferi
c)
S. haemolyticus
d)
S. epidermidis
e)
S. saprophyticus
48.
Clumping factor positive
a)
S. lugdunensis
b)
S. schleiferi
c)
S. haemolyticus
d)
S. epidermidis
e)
S. saprophyticus
49.
Sexually-active young women urinary tract infection
a)
S. lugdunensis
b)
S. schleiferi
c)
S. haemolyticus
d)
S. epidermidis
e)
S. saprophyticus
50.
S. aureus is
a)
PYR positive
b)
PYR negative
51.
S. lugdunensis is
a)
PYR positive
b)
PYR negative
52.
S. schleiferi is
a)
PYR positive
b)
PYR negative
53.
S. haemolyticus is
a)
PYR positive
b)
PYR negative
54.
Staphylococcus spp. are generally
a)
VP positive
b)
VP negative
55.
Screening test for Gram positive and differentiates Micrococcaceae from Streptococci
a)
Catalase test
b)
Modified Oxidase test
c)
Coagulase test
d)
DNase test
e)
Voges-Proskauer
56.
Differentiate Micrococci from Staphylococci
a)
Catalase test
b)
Modified Oxidase test
c)
Coagulase test
d)
DNase test
e)
Voges-Proskauer
57.
Differentiate S. aureus from CoNS
a)
Catalase test
b)
Modified Oxidase test
c)
Coagulase test
d)
DNase test
e)
Voges-Proskauer
58.
Distinguish S. aureus, Serratia, and M. catarrhalis
a)
Catalase test
b)
Modified Oxidase test
c)
Coagulase test
d)
DNase test
e)
Voges-Proskauer
59.
Aids in ID of some GP cocci and bacilli
a)
Catalase test
b)
Modified Oxidase test
c)
Coagulase test
d)
DNase test
e)
Voges-Proskauer
60.
Differentiates Clumping factor positive Staphylococci
a)
PYR test
b)
CAMP test
c)
Coagulase test
d)
Microdase test
61.
What is the positive QC organism in catalase test?
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. pyogenes
c)
E. coli
d)
B. anthracis
e)
M. luteus
62.
What is the positive QC organism in coagulase test?
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. pyogenes
c)
E. coli
d)
B. anthracis
e)
M. luteus
63.
What is the positive QC organism in DNase test?
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. pyogenes
c)
E. coli
d)
B. anthracis
e)
M. luteus
64.
What is the negative QC organism in catalase test?
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. pyogenes
c)
S. epidermidis
d)
E. coli
65.
What is the negative QC organism in modified oxidase test?
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. pyogenes
c)
S. epidermidis
d)
E. coli
66.
What is the negative QC organism in coagulase test?
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. pyogenes
c)
S. epidermidis
d)
E. coli
67.
What is the negative QC organism in DNase test?
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. pyogenes
c)
S. epidermidis
d)
E. coli
68.
Modified Oxidase Test detects:
a)
Coagulase production
b)
DNase
c)
Cytochrome oxidase
d)
Clumping factor
69.
What is the positive QC organism in modified oxidase test?
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. pyogenes
c)
E. coli
d)
B. anthracis
e)
M. luteus
70.
What reagent is used for the slide coagulase test?
a)
EDTA Rabbit plasma
b)
0.5 mL EDTA Rabbit plasma
c)
1.5 mL EDTA Rabbit plasma
d)
Methyl Green
71.
What reagent is used for the tube coagulase test?
a)
EDTA Rabbit plasma
b)
0.5 mL EDTA Rabbit plasma
c)
1.5 mL EDTA Rabbit plasma
d)
Methyl Green
72.
DNAse agar indicator
a)
Methyl green
b)
Toluidine blue
c)
Hydrochloric acid
d)
Phenol red
73.
Agarose slant indicator
a)
Methyl green
b)
Toluidine blue
c)
Hydrochloric acid
d)
Phenol red
74.
Tube coagulase test uses how much EDTA rabbit plasma?
a)
0.1 mL
b)
0.3 mL
c)
0.5 mL
d)
0.9 mL
75.
A positive modified oxidase test appears as:
a)
Blue to purple-blue
b)
Deep pink
c)
Red
d)
Bright red
e)
Colorless or clearing
76.
A positive DNase test using Methyl green indicator appears as:
a)
Blue to purple-blue
b)
Deep pink
c)
Red
d)
Bright red
e)
Colorless or clearing
77.
A positive Voges-Proskauer test appears as:
a)
Blue to purple-blue
b)
Deep pink
c)
Red
d)
Bright red
e)
Colorless or clearing
78.
A positive PYR test appears as:
a)
Blue to purple-blue
b)
Deep pink
c)
Red
d)
Bright red
e)
Colorless or clearing
79.
A positive Catalase test appears as:
a)
Effervescence
b)
Clumping
c)
Clot
d)
Precipitates of DNA
80.
A positive Slide coagulase test appears as:
a)
Effervescence
b)
Clumping
c)
Clot
d)
Precipitates of DNA
81.
A positive Tube coagulase test appears as:
a)
Effervescence
b)
Clumping
c)
Clot
d)
Precipitates of DNA
82.
A positive DNAse test using hydrochloric acid as indicator appears as:
a)
Effervescence
b)
Clumping
c)
Clot
d)
Precipitates of DNA
83.
A negative result in PYR test appears as:
a)
No effervescence
b)
No clumps
c)
No clot
d)
No precipitate
e)
No color change
84.
A negative result in Catalase test appears as:
a)
No effervescence
b)
No clumps
c)
No clot
d)
No precipitate
e)
No color change
85.
A negative result in Microdase test appears as:
a)
No effervescence
b)
No clumps
c)
No clot
d)
No precipitate
e)
No color change
86.
A negative result in Tube coagulase test appears as:
a)
No effervescence
b)
No clumps
c)
No clot
d)
No precipitate
e)
No color change
87.
A negative result in Slide coagulase test appears as:
a)
No effervescence
b)
No clumps
c)
No clot
d)
No precipitate
e)
No color change
88.
A negative result in DNase test using hydrochloric acid as indicator appears as:
a)
No effervescence
b)
No clumps
c)
No clot
d)
No precipitate
e)
No color change
89.
A negative result in DNase test using Methyl green as indicator appears as:
a)
Green
b)
Blue
c)
Yellow
d)
Any of the choices
90.
A negative result in DNase test using Toluidine blue as indicator appears as:
a)
Green
b)
Blue
c)
Yellow
d)
Any of the choices
91.
A negative result in Voges-Proskauer appears as:
a)
Green
b)
Blue
c)
Yellow
d)
Any of the choices
92.
Solutions A and B in Coblentz method
a)
a-naphthol
b)
40% KOH with creatine
c)
N,N-methylaminoCinnamaldehyde
d)
3% or 30% hydrogen peroxide
93.
PYR test reagent
a)
a-naphthol
b)
40% KOH with creatine
c)
N,N-methylaminoCinnamaldehyde
d)
3% or 30% hydrogen peroxide
94.
Which of the ff. is the QC organism in a positive PYR test?
a)
S. aureus and S. anginosus
b)
S. intermedius
c)
S. lugdunensis
d)
S. anginosus
e)
B. anthrasis and B. cereus
95.
Which of the ff. is the QC organism in a positive VP test?
a)
S. aureus and S. anginosus
b)
S. intermedius
c)
L. monocytogenes
d)
S. anginosus
e)
B. anthrasis and B. cereus
96.
Golden yellow in Loeffler's serum slant
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. citreus
c)
S. albus
97.
Lemon yellow in Loeffler's serum slant
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. citreus
c)
S. albus
98.
Porcelein white in Loeffler's serum slant
a)
S. aureus
b)
S. citreus
c)
S. albus
99.
Which of the ff. is PYR positive?
a)
S. aureus only
b)
S. lugdunensis, S. schleiferi, S. intermedius
c)
S. intermedius only
d)
All of the above
100.
Which of the ff. is PYR negative?
a)
S. aureus only
b)
S. lugdunensis, S. schleiferi, S. intermedius
c)
S. intermedius only
d)
All of the above
101.
Which of the ff. is VP negative?
a)
S. aureus only
b)
S. lugdunensis, S. schleiferi, S. intermedius
c)
S. intermedius only
d)
All of the above
102.
As per the Academic or Bergey's classification, which of the ff. grows as 37 degree Celsius only?
a)
Pyogenic
b)
Viridans
c)
Lactic
d)
Enterococcus
103.
As per the Academic or Bergey's classification, which of the ff. grows as 37 and 45 degree Celsius?
a)
Pyogenic
b)
Viridans
c)
Lactic
d)
Enterococcus
104.
As per the Academic or Bergey's classification, which of the ff. grows as 37 and 10 degree Celsius?
a)
Pyogenic
b)
Viridans
c)
Lactic
d)
Enterococcus
105.
As per the Academic or Bergey's classification, which of the ff. grows as 37 , 10, and 45 degree Celsius?
a)
Pyogenic
b)
Viridans
c)
Lactic
d)
Enterococcus
106.
Which of the ff. is group D as per the Lancefield classification?
a)
S. dysgalactiae
b)
S. bovis
c)
S. equi
d)
S. agalactiae
107.
Which of the ff. is group C as per the Lancefield classification?
a)
S. dysgalactiae
b)
S. bovis
c)
S. equi
d)
S. agalactiae
108.
Which virulence factor of Group A streptococcus is responsible for 2 sequelae and binds factor H?
a)
Protein F
b)
Hyaluronic acid
c)
C5a peptidase
d)
Streptolysin S and O
e)
M protein
109.
Which virulence factor of Group A streptococcus is responsible for Epithelial cell attachment (Fibronectin binding)?
a)
Protein F
b)
Hyaluronic acid
c)
C5a peptidase
d)
Streptolysin S and O
e)
M protein
110.
Which virulence factor of Group A streptococcus is responsible for inhibiting phagocytosis?
a)
Protein F
b)
Hyaluronic acid
c)
C5a peptidase
d)
Streptolysin S and O
e)
M protein
111.
Which virulence factor of Group A streptococcus destroys chemotactic factors?
a)
Protein F
b)
Hyaluronic acid
c)
C5a peptidase
d)
Streptolysin S and O
e)
M protein
112.
Which virulence factor of Group A Streptococcus is responsible for scarlet fever characterized by fever, rashes, pharyngitis, and strawberry tounge?
a)
DNase
b)
Streptokinase
c)
Hyaluronidase
d)
Pyrogenic exotoxin
e)
Pyrogenic endotoxin
113.
Taxo A Sensitive
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
Group C Streptococcus
d)
Group D
114.
Virulence: Capsule Activation of complement
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
Group C Streptococcus
d)
Group D
115.
Virulence: Endogenous strain of skin, nasopharynx, GI, and genital that may gain access to sterile site
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
Group C Streptococcus
d)
Group D
116.
Virulence: Biofilms, Adhesins (medical implants), Cytolysin, Hemolysin, peptide inhibitors
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
Group C Streptococcus
d)
Group D
117.
Nosocomial or Healthcare associated, and multi-drug resistant infections of UTI, bacteremia, wound, abdominal region
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
Group C Streptococcus
d)
Group D
118.
Capsule is the #1 virulence factor
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
119.
Meningitis, Community acquired-Pneumonia, Otitis media, Endocarditis
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
120.
(S. adjacens, S. defectivus)
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
121.
Normal flora of oral cavity and upper respiratory tract
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
122.
Rare infections of endocarditis on prosthetic heart valve
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
123.
Seen in GI tract, food, and vegetation
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
124.
Bacteremia, UTI, wounds, isolated from sterile fluids
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
125.
Pneumolysin, mediate oxidative outburst in phagocytosis Secretory IgA protease Phosphorylcholine – Spreading and invasion
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
126.
Normal flora of oral cavity, GI tract, female genitals
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
127.
Virulence factor: Extracellular polysaccharides like glucans and dextrans that enhances attachment to cell surfaces
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
128.
Low virulence; Both have intrinsic resistance to vancomycin
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
129.
Normal flora of nasopharynx
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
130.
Which organism shows satellitism around Staphylococcus aureus?
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
131.
Which genera are vancomycin-resistant (“intrinsic resistance”) and may be isolated from sterile body fluids?
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans Streptococci
c)
Abiotrophia spp. Granulicatella spp.
d)
Leuconostoc spp. Pediococcus spp.
132.
Pediococcus
a)
LAP positive
b)
LAP negative
133.
Leuconostoc
a)
LAP positive
b)
LAP negative
134.
Which Streptococcus group has members that produce a butterscotch odor on chocolate agar?
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
S. pneumoniae
d)
Viridans Streptococci
135.
Which Streptococcus group is LAP positive, PYR negative?
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
S. pneumoniae
d)
Viridans Streptococci
136.
LIM or Todd-Hewitt broth is commonly used for the isolation of?
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
S. pneumoniae
d)
Viridans Streptococci
137.
Which Streptococcus group is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis?
a)
Group A Streptococcus
b)
Group B Streptococcus
c)
S. pneumoniae
d)
Viridans Streptococci
138.
Which post-streptococcal sequelae is manifested after Streptococcal respiratory infection?
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Acute glomerulonephritis
139.
Which post-streptococcal sequelae is manifested after Streptococcal respiratory or cutaneous infection?
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Acute glomerulonephritis
140.
Which post-streptococcal sequelae has class I M protein?
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Acute glomerulonephritis
141.
Antibody cross reactivity of M protein to heart muscle
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Acute glomerulonephritis
142.
Fever, endocarditis, subcutaneous nodules, and polyarthritis
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Acute glomerulonephritis
143.
Deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in glomeruli
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Acute glomerulonephritis
144.
Edema, hypertension, hematuria, and proteinuria
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Acute glomerulonephritis
145.
Which post-streptococcal sequelae has class I or II M protein?
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Acute glomerulonephritis
146.
PYR, Taxo A susceptibility
a)
S. pyogenes
b)
S. alagactiae
c)
S. bovis
d)
Enterococci
147.
Pharyngitis, Scarlet fever, Erysipelas, Rheumatic fever, Acute glomerulonephritis
a)
S. pyogenes
b)
S. alagactiae
c)
S. bovis
d)
Enterococci
148.
CAMP Hippurate hydrolysis
a)
S. pyogenes
b)
S. alagactiae
c)
S. bovis
d)
Enterococci
149.
Neonatal meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia
a)
S. pyogenes
b)
S. alagactiae
c)
S. bovis
d)
Enterococci
150.
Bile esculin +
a)
S. pyogenes
b)
S. alagactiae
c)
S. bovis
d)
Enterococci
151.
Colon cancer, Endocarditis, Sepsis
a)
S. pyogenes
b)
S. alagactiae
c)
S. bovis
d)
Enterococci
152.
Bile esculin +, PYR, 6.5% NaCl growth
a)
S. pyogenes
b)
S. alagactiae
c)
S. bovis
d)
Enterococci
153.
Nosocomial, MDR – UTI, bacteremia, wound infection
a)
S. pyogenes
b)
S. alagactiae
c)
S. bovis
d)
Enterococci
154.
Prosthetic Heart Valve infections
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans
c)
Abiotrophia and Granulicatella
155.
Cross-streak test Cysteine and Pyridoxal requirement
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans
c)
Abiotrophia and Granulicatella
156.
LAP
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans
c)
Abiotrophia and Granulicatella
157.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis, pneumonia, dental caries
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans
c)
Abiotrophia and Granulicatella
158.
Pneumonia, Meningitis, Otitis media
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans
c)
Abiotrophia and Granulicatella
159.
Taxo P/Optochin susceptibility Bile solubility
a)
S. pneumoniae
b)
Viridans
c)
Abiotrophia and Granulicatella
100 %
