WorksheetsMICRO-14
Total questions: 168
Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Niacin: Positive
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
2.
Nitrate: Positive
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
3.
Tellurite: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
4.
Niacin: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
5.
Nitrate: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
6.
Urease: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
7.
68 Catalase: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
8.
SQ Catalase: Negative
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
c)
Mycobacterium forfitum
d)
Mycobacterium avium
9.
SQ Catalase: Positive
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium forfitum/gordonae
c)
Mycobacterium kansasii/gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium avium
10.
68 Catalase: Positive
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Mycobacterium forfitum/gordonae
c)
Mycobacterium kansasii/gordonae
d)
Mycobacterium avium
11.
Tween 80: positive
a)
Mycobacterium gordonae
b)
Mycobacterium kasasii
c)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
d)
Mycobacterium avium
e)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
12.
Tellurite: positive
a)
Mycobacterium gordonae
b)
Mycobacterium kasasii
c)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
d)
Mycobacterium avium
e)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
13.
Tween 80: negative
a)
Mycobacterium gordonae
b)
Mycobacterium kasasii
c)
Mycobacterium intracellulare
d)
Mycobacterium avium
e)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
14.
Positive results on Niacin
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
15.
Positive results on Nitrate
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
16.
Positive results on 68 catalase
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
17.
Positive results on SQ catalase
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
18.
Positive results on Urease
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
19.
Positive results on Tween 80
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
20.
Positive results on Tellurite
a)
Yellow
b)
Pink or red
c)
Bubbles
d)
>45 mm
e)
Smooth, fine black precipitate
21.
Negative on Tellurite
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
22.
Negative on Tween 80
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
23.
Negative on Niacin
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
24.
Negative on Nitrate
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
25.
Negative on Urease
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
26.
Negative on 68 catalase
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
27.
Negative on SQ catalase
a)
No color change
b)
No bubbles
c)
<45 mm
d)
Gray clumps
28.
Nocardia
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
29.
Rhodococcus
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
30.
Gordonia
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
31.
Some Corynebacterium
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
32.
Segniliparus
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
33.
Tsukamurella
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
34.
Lawsonella
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
35.
Nocardiopsis
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
36.
Streptomyces
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
37.
Actinomadura
a)
Actinomycetes WITH mycolic acid on Cell wall
b)
Actinomycetes WITHOUT mycolic acid on Cell wall
38.
Which of the ff. is aerobic?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Actinomyces spp.
c)
Both
39.
Which of the ff. is anaerobic?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Actinomyces spp.
c)
Both
40.
Which of the ff. is partially acid fast?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Actinomyces spp.
c)
Both
41.
Which of the ff. is not acid fast?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Actinomyces spp.
c)
Both
42.
Which of the ff. is filamentous and fungi-like?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Actinomyces spp.
c)
Both
43.
Which of the following causes pulmonary and cutaneous nocardiosis?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
44.
Which of the following exhibits beaded appearance with hyphae?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
45.
Which of the following shows substrate hyphae and aerial hyphae in agar?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
46.
Which of the following is associated with catheter-based sepsis, Osteomyelitis, Skin and urinary tract infections?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
47.
Which of the following shows recursively branching hyphae on tap water agar?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
48.
Which organism produces sulfur granules that appear yellow-orange, kidney-shaped with club-like structures when crushed in KOH?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
49.
Which organism produces mucoid orange-red to salmon-pink colonies?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
50.
Which organism is associated with Pneumonia, UTI, bacteremia; Immunocompromised infections (HIV/AIDS)?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
51.
Which organism is associated with Pericarditis, bacteremia, brain abscess, Actinomycetoma?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
52.
Which organism is exhibits ,usty basement odor?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
53.
Which organism is a gram-positive atypical bacilli with spore-like bodies and extensive branching that do not fragment?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
54.
Which organism is associated with mycetoma?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
55.
Which organism is a gram-positive filamentous bacilli, non-acid fast, that shows tertiary branching on tap water agar?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
56.
Which organism is a gram-positive actinomycete associated with infection of GIT leading to impaired absorption and digestion?
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
57.
Which organism is first identified via PCR of duodenum biopsy? Also, PAS stain in gastrointestinal biopsy is the gold standard in this organism.
a)
Nocardia spp.
b)
Rhodococcus equi
c)
Streptomyces griseus
d)
Actinomadura spp.
e)
Tropheryma whipplei
58.
Which characteristic colony describes Streptomyces griseus?
a)
Beaded appearance with hyphae.
b)
Mucoid orange to red or Salmon-pink non-hemolytic colonies
c)
Glabrous Waxy heaped gray-white colonies
d)
Gram positive filamentous bacilli
59.
Which biochemical pattern is correct for Streptomyces griseus?
a)
Positive for casein, xanthine, and tyrosine hydrolysis
b)
Negative for casein, xanthine, and tyrosine hydrolysis
60.
Streptomyces griseus
a)
Lysozyme sensitive
b)
Lysozyme resistant
61.
What is the Gram stain morphology of Rhodococcus equi?
a)
Gram-negative coccobacilli with scanty zigzag branching
b)
Gram-positive coccobacilli with scanty zigzag branching
c)
Gram-variable coccobacilli with scanty zigzag branching
d)
Gram-positive bacilli with scanty zigzag branching
62.
Rhodococcus equi is
a)
Positive in Urease, Catalase, and CAMP
b)
Negative in Urease, Catalase, and CAMP
63.
Sulfur granules of Nocardia spp. from specimen is emulsified in ___ KOH, crush, and gram stained showing small yellow-orange kidney shaped with club-like structure.
a)
3% KOH
b)
5% KOH
c)
9% KOH
d)
10% KOH
64.
Which of the ff. is the most common Nocarida isolate?
a)
Nocardia asteroides
b)
Nocardia brasiliensis
65.
Which of the ff. is also known as sensu stricto?
a)
Nocardia asteroides
b)
Nocardia brasiliensis
66.
Which of the ff. is negayive on casein, xanthine, and tyrosine hydrolysis?
a)
Nocardia asteroides
b)
Nocardia brasiliensis
67.
Which component is characteristic of the cell wall of Nocardia spp.?
a)
Teichoic acid and lipopolysaccharide
b)
Diaminopimelic acid, arabinose, and galactose
c)
Diaminopimelic acid, lactose, glucose
d)
Muramic acid and mycolic acid
68.
Which of the ff. is positive in casein and tyrosine hydrolysis?
a)
Nocardia asteroides
b)
Nocardia brasiliensis
69.
Nocardia spp. is catalase and urease?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
70.
Nocardia spp. is lysozyme?
a)
Lysozyme sensitive
b)
Lysozyme resistant
71.
associated with mouth lesions
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
72.
Gram-positive bacillus but neither acid fast nor stained with fungus stain. ANAEROBIC
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
73.
Agent of lumpy jaw
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
74.
Shows molar tooth colonies
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
75.
Gram-positive and considered PARTIALLY acid fast; AEROBIC
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
76.
associated with primary pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
77.
Phylogenetic analysis shows that this organism is a gram-positive actinomycete that is not closely related to other genus known to cause infection
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
78.
Associated with Whipple's disease; found primary in middle-aged men and characterized by the presence of PAS-staining macrophages indicating mucopolysaccharide glycoprotein in almost every organ of the body
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
79.
This bacillus is seen in macrophages and affected tissue but has never been cultured
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
80.
Associated with multiple-organ system disease
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
81.
Gram-negative, helical, strictly AEROBIC organism
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
82.
causes RAT-bite fever in humans
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
83.
known as SODUKU
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
84.
rarely seen in px with Sodoku and swollen lymph nodes are prominent; febrile episodes are also more predictable here
a)
Actinomyces
b)
Nocardia
c)
Tropheryma whipplei
d)
Spirillum minus
85.
more prominent in cases associated with Spirillum minus
a)
swollen lymph nodes
b)
febrile episodes
86.
more COMMON and predictable in cases associated with Spirillum minus
a)
swollen lymph nodes
b)
febrile episodes
87.
Found primary in middle-aged men and characterized by the presence of PAS-staining macrophages indicating mucopolysaccharide glycoprotein in almost every organ of the body
a)
Lumpy jaw
b)
Pulmonary infections
c)
Whipple's disease
d)
Rat bite fever
88.
Most clinically relevant spp. of Nocardia
a)
Nocardia asteroids
b)
Nocardia otitidiscaviarum
c)
Nocardia brasillensis
89.
Helically coiled bacteria transmitted through arthropod vectors including lice and ticks
a)
Borrelia spp.
b)
Brucella spp.
c)
Treponema spp.
d)
Leptospira spp.
90.
Stains that can be used for this include levaditi, warthin starry, and fontana tribondaeu
a)
Borrelia spp.
b)
Brucella spp.
c)
Treponema spp.
d)
Leptospira spp.
91.
Agent of louse-borne relapsing fever
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
92.
symptoms of this infection include high fever, muslce and bone pain, and confusion
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
93.
Agent of lyme disease
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
94.
Transmitted by tick vectors
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
95.
Its vectors is Ixodes tick
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
96.
Early localized stage is erythema and chronicicum migrans
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
97.
most common cause of tickborne disease in U.S
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
98.
associated with tickborne relapsing fever
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
99.
vector is ornithodoros spp.
a)
Borrelia recurrentis
b)
Borellia burgdorferi
c)
Borrelia parkerii / hermsii
100.
appearance of lesion: erythema chronicum migrans
a)
Stage one
b)
Stage two
c)
Stage three
101.
dissemination through blood, affected areas may include the bones, CNS, heart, and liver
a)
Stage one
b)
Stage two
c)
Stage three
102.
characterized by neurological abnormalities, arthritis, and skin lesions
a)
Stage one
b)
Stage two
c)
Stage three
103.
Associated with venereal syphilis
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
104.
Transmitted by sexual contact, direct blood transmission, or transplacental route
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
105.
YAWS
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
106.
Also known as nonvenereal disease of skin and bones
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
107.
Associated with Bejel (lesions in oral cavity, oral mucosa, skin, bones and nasopharynx)
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
108.
Transmission include mouth to mouth by utensils
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
109.
Associated with pinta; an ulceration of skin aka ulcerative skin disease
a)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
b)
Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
c)
Treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum
d)
Treponema carateum
110.
ulceration of skin aka ulcerative skin disease
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
111.
T. carateum
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
112.
T. pallidum subsp. endemicum
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
113.
lesions in oral cavity, oral mucosa, skin, bones and nasopharynx
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
114.
nonvenereal disease of skin and bones
a)
venereal syphilis
b)
bejel
c)
yaws
d)
pinta
115.
hard chancre that is painless and firm
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
116.
associated with condylomata, a wart-like lesion in moist areas of the body
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
117.
characterized by absence of clinical symptoms
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
118.
deemed as dormant or inactive stage
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
119.
gummas; neurosyphilis
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
120.
endstage syphilis
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
121.
causes dementia and lasts for years.
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
122.
Associated with Hutchinson's triad
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
123.
1. Notched teeth
2. Keratitis
3. Deafness
a)
Primary syphilis
b)
Secondary syphilis
c)
Latent syphilis
d)
Tertiary syphilis
e)
Congenital syphilis
124.
associated with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
a)
Treponema vincentii
b)
Treponema denticola
c)
Treponema refringens
d)
Treponema soncranskii
e)
Treponema pectinovorum
125.
nonpathogenic, found in water and soil
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
126.
causative of human and animal leptospirosis
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
127.
parasitic on vertebrates other than humans including rodents, cattle, dogs, cats, raccoons and bats
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
128.
shed in the urine of these animals and human acquire the infection through direct contact with urine of animals who carry the organisms.
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
129.
involves the kidney, liver, and central nervous system
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
130.
severe form of leptospirosis: weil's disease
a)
Leptospira biflexa
b)
Leptospira interrogans
131.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with Weil's disease?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
132.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is deemed the most infectious?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
133.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with infectious jaundice?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
134.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is also known as fort bragg?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
135.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with pretribial fever?
a)
iceterohemorrhagiae
b)
canicola
c)
autumnalis
136.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with swine nerd's disease?
a)
grippotyphosa
b)
hebdomadis
c)
mitis/pomona
137.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is characterized by a 7-day fever?
a)
grippotyphosa
b)
hebdomadis
c)
mitis/pomona
138.
Which of the following L. interrogans' serovars is associated with marsh fever?
a)
grippotyphosa
b)
hebdomadis
c)
mitis/pomona
139.
Obligate intracellular; infectious particle = elementary bodies
a)
Chlamydia spp.
b)
Mycoplasma spp.
c)
Rickettsia spp.
140.
primary life cycle of Chlamydia spp.
a)
elementary bodies
b)
reticulate bodies
141.
metabolically active component in the life cycle of Chlamydia spp.
a)
elementary bodies
b)
reticulate bodies
142.
McCoy
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
143.
HEp-2 HeLa
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
144.
BGMK
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
145.
DFA
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
146.
EIA
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
147.
OIA
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
148.
Probe
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
149.
PCR
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
150.
CF
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
151.
EIA,Micro-IF
a)
culture
b)
nonculture, nonamplied
c)
nonculture, amplified
d)
serology
152.
Which of the following subtypes of Chlamydia trachmatis is associated with endemic trachoma?
a)
A, B, Ba, C
b)
D - K
c)
L1, L2, L3
153.
Which of the following subtypes of Chlamydia trachmatis is associated with multiple or persistent infections that ultimately lead to blindness?
a)
A, B, Ba, C
b)
D - K
c)
L1, L2, L3
154.
Which of the following subtypes of Chlamydia trachmatis is associated with urethritis, cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, epididymitis, infant pneumoniae, and conjunctivitis?
a)
A, B, Ba, C
b)
D - K
c)
L1, L2, L3
155.
Which of the following subtypes of Chlamydia trachmatis is associated with Lymphagranuloma venereum (transmitted through sexual contact)?
a)
A, B, Ba, C
b)
D - K
c)
L1, L2, L3
156.
intradermal skin test for LGV antigen; obsolete already
a)
PPD skin test
b)
Frei's test
157.
substituted with nucleic acid amplification test
a)
PPD skin test
b)
Frei's test
158.
indicates positive results for lymphogranuloma venerium (LGV) in Frei's test
a)
>4 mm
b)
>5 mm
c)
>6 mm
d)
>7 mm
159.
Frei's test results is obtained within how many hours..
a)
24 to 48 hours
b)
48 to 72 hours
c)
20 to 30 hours
160.
Associated with mild respiratory tract infections
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chlamydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
161.
TWAR strain
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
162.
Taiwan Acute Respiratory Strain
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
163.
Clinical infections include pneumonia, pharyngitis, and Guillain-Barre syndrome
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
164.
Treatment of choice is tetracycline and erythromycin
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
165.
Causative agent of parrot fever; may lead to pneumonia
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
166.
Agent of psittacosis or ornithosis; a disease of birds, parrots, parakeets, and cockatoos
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
167.
human may acquire the infection by inhalation of contaminated aerosols or formites or through person to person transmission
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
168.
acquired by birds by inhalation of aerosols
a)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
b)
Chalmydia psitacci
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis
100 %