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Chapter 1: Introduction - Computer Organization and Architecture

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes computer architecture from computer organization?

a)

Organization specifies number of bits for data types

b)

Architecture specifies control signal wiring details

c)

Organization defines instruction set visibility to programmers

d)

Architecture defines attributes visible to programmers

2.

Which item is an example of a computer architecture attribute?

a)

The timing of internal control signals

b)

The exact interface circuitry to peripherals

c)

The instruction set available to programs

d)

The specific memory technology used

3.

Which item is an example of computer organization?

a)

The number of bits for integer data

b)

The programmer-visible I/O mechanisms

c)

Whether a multiply instruction exists

d)

How interfaces to peripherals are wired

4.

A system provides a multiply instruction. Which interpretation is correct?

a)

Availability is an architecture attribute

b)

Availability is an organization detail

c)

Implementation method is an architecture attribute

d)

Implementation method is programmer-visible

5.

Which statements are true about code compatibility within processor families?

a)

System/370 family members share a basic architecture

b)

x86 family members share a basic architecture

c)

Compatibility is at least backward within a family

d)

Organization is identical across all family versions

6.

Define structure versus function in computer systems.

a)

Structure is operations; function is interconnections

b)

Structure equals memory technology; function equals interfaces

c)

Structure relates components; function is their operations

d)

Structure equals visible attributes; function equals control signals

7.

Which are the four fundamental functions of a computer?

a)

Data movement

b)

Data storage

c)

Program compilation

d)

Control

e)

Data processing

8.

In the functional view diagram, which component directly coordinates data movement apparatus with storage and processing units?

a)

Central control mechanism

b)

Operating environment controller

c)

Arithmetic and logic unit

d)

System interconnection hub

9.

In the data movement operation diagram, what is the primary role of the Control element?

a)

Execute arithmetic and logic operations

b)

Store moved data persistently

c)

Provide external device interfaces

d)

Initiate movement between storage and processing

10.

Which sequence best matches the storage operation depicted: data originates at Movement and ends at which component after Control directs it?

a)

Storage component destination

b)

Processing component destination

c)

I/O subsystem destination

d)

Registers inside CPU

11.

In the processing-from/to-storage diagram, which path represents data being processed then written back?

a)

Movement → Control → Processing → Storage

b)

Control → Movement → Processing → Storage

c)

Movement → Control → Storage → Processing

d)

Movement → Processing → Control → Storage

12.

Which path corresponds to processing from storage to I/O as shown in the diagram?

a)

Movement → Control → Storage → Processing → I/O

b)

Processing → Control → Movement → Storage

c)

Storage → Control → Processing → Movement (I/O)

d)

Control → Storage → Movement → Processing

13.

Identify the four main structural components of a computer shown in the top-level structure figure.

a)

Central processing unit (CPU)

b)

Main memory

c)

I/O subsystem

d)

ALU module

14.

Within CPU structural components, which are explicitly listed in the material?

a)

Cache controller

b)

Registers

c)

Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU)

d)

Control unit

15.

In the top-level computer diagram, which element connects CPU, main memory, input, and output?

a)

Control mechanism layer

b)

Data movement apparatus

c)

Systems interconnection

d)

Peripheral bus matrix

16.

In the CPU diagram, which component primarily coordinates instruction execution timing and directs data paths?

a)

Register file collection

b)

Arithmetic and Logic Unit

c)

Internal CPU interconnection

d)

Control Unit component

17.

Which pair correctly matches a control unit sub-function with its purpose in the control unit diagram?

a)

Control Memory: performs arithmetic operations

b)

Registers: predict branch outcomes

c)

Sequencing: orders micro-operations

d)

Decoders: store control signals persistently

18.

Which statements are true about branch prediction as a performance feature?

a)

It selects likely instruction paths to process next

b)

It guarantees zero mispredictions for all workloads

c)

It is unrelated to memory access behavior

d)

It looks ahead in fetched code to anticipate branches

19.

What is a primary role of data flow analysis in optimizing instruction scheduling?

a)

Detect independent instructions to avoid stalls

b)

Convert all branches into sequential code

c)

Replace caches with larger register files

d)

Increase clock frequency beyond thermal limits

20.

Which combination best supports microprocessor speed by reducing average memory access latency?

a)

On-board L1 and L2 cache

b)

Sequencing and decoders

c)

Arithmetic and Logic Unit

d)

Control memory arrays

21.

Which statement best describes speculative execution in modern processors?

a)

Reordering completed instructions after commit

b)

Executing predicted branches ahead of time

c)

Delaying loads until cache miss resolves

d)

Prefetching entire pages into main memory

22.

Which factor primarily causes the processor–memory performance mismatch highlighted in the figures?

a)

Processor speed grows faster than memory speed

b)

Memory speed grows faster than processor speed

c)

Cache capacity shrinks over generations

d)

I/O bandwidth increases faster than CPU speed

23.

From the evolution graph, which pair both increased substantially over time?

a)

Processor speed

b)

Dynamic RAM density

c)

Bus count

d)

Instruction width

e)

Dynamic RAM speed

24.

What is a direct consequence of DRAM density increasing faster than required main memory?

a)

Fewer DRAM chips per system over time

b)

More DRAM chips per system over time

c)

Unchanged DRAM chips per system count

d)

DRAM chips per system peak then stay flat

25.

Which trend is shown by the DRAM speed line relative to processor speed in the first figure?

a)

DRAM speed surpasses CPU speed steadily

b)

DRAM speed lags significantly behind CPU speed

c)

DRAM speed oscillates around CPU speed

d)

DRAM speed matches CPU speed closely

26.

Why do servers and supercomputers in the second figure move to larger DRAM sizes over the years?

a)

Processor sockets require more DIMMs physically

b)

Workloads demand higher memory capacity

c)

DRAM density reduces reliability of small modules

d)

Operating systems forbid using smaller modules

27.

Which approach increases memory throughput by widening the data path of DRAM?

a)

Use deeper DRAM banks for tall stacks

b)

Partition DRAM into isolated narrow lanes

c)

Make DRAM wider to use wide bus paths

d)

Add more refresh cycles to DRAM timing

28.

What is the primary role of cache in improving memory performance?

a)

Increase DRAM row activation energy

b)

Change DRAM interface to reduce latency

c)

Buffer I/O modules for external devices

d)

Encrypt data stored in main memory

29.

Which solutions specifically reduce the frequency of memory access?

a)

More complex cache hierarchies

b)

Cache on chip near the CPU

c)

High speed external buses

d)

Deeper DRAM arrays with tall stacks

30.

Increasing interconnection bandwidth can be achieved by which methods?

a)

Hierarchy of buses for segmented traffic

b)

Larger caches to store entire programs

c)

Wider DRAM banks for broad rows

d)

High speed buses with faster signaling

31.

Which components together constitute the Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

a)

Control Unit and Arithmetic Logic Unit

b)

Main Memory and I/O Module

c)

Instruction Interpreter and Cache

d)

General-purpose arithmetic functions

32.

Which module handles data and instructions entering and leaving the system?

a)

Cache module for temporal locality

b)

ALU performing arithmetic operations

c)

I/O module interfacing external devices

d)

Main memory module for volatile storage

33.

In the hardware approach diagram, how are results produced from data?

a)

Data pass through an instruction interpreter

b)

Data feed a sequence of arithmetic and logic functions

c)

Data are stored in RAM then executed by software

d)

Control signals rewire general-purpose units dynamically

34.

In the software approach, what component translates instruction codes into control signals?

a)

Arithmetic Logic Unit within CPU

b)

Main memory managing program storage

c)

Hierarchy of buses coordinating devices

d)

Instruction interpreter for program control

35.

What is the primary function a computer performs during normal operation?

a)

Executing a program of stored instructions

b)

Rendering graphics for the display

c)

Encrypting all user data by default

d)

Managing I/O devices continuously

36.

Which pair correctly names the two major phases of the basic instruction cycle?

a)

Branch and Commit

b)

Fetch and Execute

c)

Load and Halt

d)

Decode and Store

37.

During the fetch cycle, which register holds the address of the next instruction to be fetched?

a)

Instruction Register (IR)

b)

Program Counter (PC)

c)

Memory Buffer Register (MBR)

d)

Input/Output Buffer Register (I/O BR)

38.

After an instruction is fetched, where is the instruction value placed before execution begins?

a)

Program Counter (PC)

b)

Execution unit cache

c)

Memory Address Register (MAR)

d)

Instruction Register (IR)

39.

Which statement best describes what typically happens to the Program Counter (PC) during the fetch cycle?

a)

It increments to point to the following instruction

b)

It resets to zero after every instruction

c)

It loads the fetched instruction data

d)

It decrements to point to previous instruction

40.

Select all components that directly participate in fetching an instruction from memory.

a)

Program Counter (PC)

b)

Memory Address Register (MAR)

c)

Memory Buffer Register (MBR)

d)

Instruction Register (IR)

e)

Input/Output Address Register (I/O AR)

41.

In the state diagram of the instruction cycle, which state immediately follows 'Fetch Next Instruction' under normal operation?

a)

Execute Instruction

b)

Halt state

c)

Start state

d)

Interrupt service

42.

Which action belongs to the processor–memory category in the execute cycle?

a)

Transfer data between CPU and I/O module

b)

Perform arithmetic or logical on data

c)

Alter sequence of operations via jump

d)

Transfer data between CPU and main memory

43.

During the execute cycle, which set correctly pairs category with example?

a)

Control: jump altering operation sequence

b)

Processor–memory: change program counter only

c)

Processor–I/O: data transfer with I/O module

d)

Data processing: arithmetic or logical on data

44.

In the program execution example, the PC initially contains which value and why?

a)

300, address of the first instruction

b)

940, address holding operand data

c)

5941, next instruction to be fetched

d)

1940, first instruction loaded in IR

45.

What does the first hexadecimal digit in the IR indicate in the example?

a)

Branch condition to evaluate

b)

I/O device to be accessed

c)

Memory address for operand data

d)

Operation code specifying AC load

46.

In the example, the remaining three hexadecimal digits in IR specify what?

a)

Address 940 from which data are loaded

b)

I/O module port number used

c)

ALU function for addition

d)

Next PC value after increment

47.

Which registers are involved when the instruction is fetched and PC is incremented?

a)

AC for arithmetic accumulation

b)

MBR for data transfer buffering

c)

MAR for memory addressing

d)

IR to hold fetched instruction

48.

After executing the first instruction (1940), which outcome occurs?

a)

AC is loaded from memory address 940

b)

PC jumps directly to address 940

c)

ALU performs addition of two registers

d)

I/O transfer writes to an external port

49.

What happens immediately after fetching the next instruction 5941 in the example?

a)

IR is pushed onto the stack for return

b)

MBR sends data to an I/O module

c)

AC is cleared to zero before decode

d)

PC is incremented to point to the following instruction

50.

Which stage typically follows instruction fetch in the instruction cycle state diagram for most architectures?

a)

Data operation execution

b)

Instruction address calculation

c)

Operand store stage

d)

I/O interrupt handling

51.

In the instruction cycle, operand fetch is most directly required when an instruction involves which scenario?

a)

Multiple operands from memory

b)

Single immediate constant only

c)

No operands, control transfer only

d)

Operands already in program counter

52.

Which interrupt type is commonly generated by the processor’s internal timer and used for pre-emptive multitasking?

a)

I/O interrupt from controller

b)

Timer interrupt for scheduling

c)

Program interrupt from overflow

d)

Hardware failure parity interrupt

53.

Select all events that would raise a program interrupt.

a)

Division by zero operation

b)

Integer overflow during add

c)

Memory parity hardware error

d)

DMA controller completion

54.

During data operation, the state diagram may return results to which destination in vector or string processing?

a)

Operand address calculator

b)

Return path for vector data

c)

Program counter register

d)

Instruction decode buffer

55.

Which statements about I/O interrupts are accurate?

a)

They are generated only by the internal timer

b)

They can signal device completion or readiness

c)

They are used exclusively for hardware failures

d)

They originate from I/O controllers

56.

Which step occurs first when an interrupt is detected during program execution?

a)

Restore saved processor context

b)

Set PC to handler address

c)

Save current processor context

d)

Process the interrupt routine

57.

In the instruction cycle with interrupts, when are interrupts typically enabled for checking?

a)

Before fetch next instruction

b)

During execute instruction

c)

Only at program start

d)

After execute instruction stage

58.

What is the immediate action taken by the CPU on an interrupt signal to transfer control?

a)

Disable all I/O devices

b)

Flush all pipeline stages

c)

Set PC to interrupt handler

d)

Jump to user program start

59.

Which statements describe the 'disable interrupts' approach for handling multiple interrupts?

a)

Pending interrupts are checked after current interrupt

b)

Interrupts handled sequentially after processing

c)

Higher priorities preempt lower priorities immediately

d)

Processor ignores new interrupts while handling one

60.

In a priority-based multiple interrupt system, what happens when a higher priority interrupt arrives?

a)

It triggers a system halt for safety

b)

It is discarded to avoid starvation

c)

It immediately preempts the lower priority interrupt

d)

It is queued until current interrupt finishes

61.

Which sequence correctly outlines the control transfer via interrupts?

a)

Set PC, restore context, execute user program

b)

Process interrupt, save context, resume program

c)

Save context, set PC, process, restore context

d)

Suspend, process, save, restore context

62.

What best defines an interconnection structure in a computer system?

a)

A single bus connecting memory only

b)

The paths connecting all system modules

c)

A cache hierarchy within the CPU

d)

A software API for device drivers

63.

Which units require appropriate interconnections for system operation?

a)

Central Processing Unit

b)

Arithmetic software

c)

Input/Output devices

d)

Memory modules

64.

Which signal types must a memory module handle to function within a computer system?

a)

Instructions, cache tags, parity bits

b)

Power, cooling, mechanical mounts

c)

Interrupts, DMA requests, device IDs

d)

Data, addresses, control signals

65.

In an I/O module, what is a typical output operation from the computer’s viewpoint?

a)

Broadcast interrupts to all devices

b)

Generate timing for memory reads

c)

Receive addresses from peripheral

d)

Send data to the peripheral

66.

Which item is explicitly listed as a control signal for memory operations?

a)

Read and write

b)

Parity and ECC

c)

Refresh and precharge

d)

Enable and chip-select

67.

What additional role does an I/O module have beyond data transfer?

a)

Caching instructions

b)

Executing arithmetic

c)

Sending interrupt signals

d)

Allocating virtual memory

68.

Which actions are part of a CPU module’s connection responsibilities?

a)

Maintains peripheral firmware

b)

Receives and acts on interrupts

c)

Writes out processed data

d)

Reads instructions and data

69.

What best describes a computer bus in this context?

a)

Communication pathway connecting devices

b)

Power distribution rail for modules

c)

Processor cache for temporary storage

d)

Dedicated I/O controller for disks

70.

Why are bus lines often described as grouped?

a)

They are multiplexed with power rails

b)

They exist only inside the CPU core

c)

They share a single interrupt vector

d)

They combine many single-bit channels

71.

What challenge arises when many devices share one bus?

a)

Guaranteed real-time throughput

b)

Automatic priority inversion prevention

c)

Increased static power dissipation only

d)

Propagation delays and coordination issues

72.

Which statement best characterizes the data bus at the processor-memory interface?

a)

Carries instructions only between components

b)

Carries data and instructions without distinction

c)

Identifies memory source or destination addresses

d)

Provides timing and arbitration control signals

73.

For a system with an 8-bit, 16-bit, 32-bit, or 64-bit data bus, what primary performance factor does the width influence?

a)

Maximum memory address capacity

b)

Clock synchronization latency

c)

Interrupt vector priority levels

d)

Aggregate data transfer per cycle

74.

What is the role of the address bus during a CPU memory access?

a)

Buffers system bus traffic to expansion I/O

b)

Transfers data payloads to peripherals

c)

Indicates the memory location for read or write

d)

Sequences DMA acknowledgments and requests

75.

A system with a 16-bit address bus can directly address how much memory space?

a)

64 kilobytes of addressable space

b)

32 kilobytes of addressable space

c)

16 kilobytes of addressable space

d)

128 kilobytes of addressable space

76.

Which signals are typically carried on the control bus?

a)

I/O read and I/O write

b)

Interrupt request and interrupt ACK

c)

Graphic and video pixel data

d)

Memory read and memory write

e)

Clock and reset

77.

When many devices share a bus, why can performance suffer?

a)

Propagation delay for coordination increases

b)

Cache removes all CPU-memory accesses

c)

Aggregate transfer demand approaches bus capacity

d)

Control signals become strictly unidirectional

e)

Address bus width decreases automatically

78.

In traditional hierarchical bus architecture, what is the purpose of using a cache structure connected to the local bus?

a)

Enable serial devices to bypass the system bus

b)

Insulate CPU from frequent main memory accesses

c)

Reduce expansion bus connector pin count

d)

Provide independent interrupt routing for I/O

79.

What function does the expansion bus interface serve in a hierarchical bus design?

a)

Arbitrates local cache transfers exclusively

b)

Buffers traffic between system bus and I/O controllers

c)

Generates processor clock and reset signals

d)

Transforms address bus width dynamically

80.

High-performance hierarchical bus architectures introduce what major enhancement?

a)

A unified bus to remove all hierarchies

b)

A high-speed bus for high-capacity I/O

c)

A wider address bus for the processor

d)

A slower bus to support legacy devices

81.

In a high-performance hierarchy, how is the high-speed bus related to processor changes?

a)

Disabled when cache sizes increase

b)

Tightly coupled and changes with CPU design

c)

Used only for serial peripheral connections

d)

Independent of the processor architecture

82.

Which description correctly contrasts dedicated versus multiplexed bus types?

a)

Dedicated uses separate data and address lines

b)

Dedicated requires a data-valid control signal

c)

Multiplexed reduces line count but adds complexity

d)

Multiplexed shares lines for address and data

e)

Multiplexed guarantees ultimate performance

83.

During bus arbitration, which statements are accurate?

a)

CPU and DMA can both request bus control

b)

Arbitration may be centralized or distributed

c)

An arbiter may be part of the CPU or separate

d)

Centralized arbitration uses multiple bus controllers

e)

Only one module may control the bus at a time

84.

Which statement best describes a key advantage of the PCI bus in modern computer systems?

a)

Asynchronous timing with distributed arbitration

b)

High-bandwidth, processor-independent peripheral interconnect

c)

Processor-dependent design for specific CPUs

d)

Limited to single-processor configurations only

85.

What timing and arbitration characteristics are standard for PCI?

a)

Asynchronous timing and shared arbitration lines

b)

Asynchronous timing and token arbitration

c)

Synchronous timing and centralized arbitration

d)

Synchronous timing and decentralized arbitration

86.

Which configuration widths are typical for PCI data paths?

a)

8-bit or 16-bit bus widths

b)

24-bit or 48-bit bus widths

c)

32-bit or 64-bit bus widths

d)

128-bit or 256-bit bus widths

87.

Which feature contributes to PCI delivering better performance for high-speed I/O subsystems?

a)

Support only for legacy ISA devices

b)

High-bandwidth architecture with efficient bus protocols

c)

Requirement of many chips to implement

d)

Use of very low clock frequencies

88.

Select all statements that correctly reflect the current PCI standard listed in the material.

a)

Up to 64 data lines at 33 MHz

b)

Requires few chips to implement

c)

Public domain specification initially developed by Intel

d)

Uses asynchronous timing and centralized arbitration

89.

In a typical desktop system diagram, what is the role of the bridge/memory controller relative to the PCI bus?

a)

Acts only as an interrupt concentrator

b)

Acts as a data buffer between processor and PCI

c)

Acts as a graphics-only accelerator

d)

Acts as a direct storage controller for disks

90.

In the typical server system diagram, how are multiple PCI configurations connected in a multiprocessor system?

a)

Connected via graphics accelerators

b)

Directly chained without any bridges

c)

Connected by bridges to the system bus

d)

Connected only through LAN controllers

91.

Which lines are included under PCI System lines?

a)

Interrupt request signals

b)

Address strobe only

c)

Error and parity signals

d)

Clock and reset signals

92.

What is the purpose of PCI arbitration lines according to the material?

a)

Used only during error recovery

b)

Time-multiplexed across address lines

c)

Not shared, direct connection to bus arbiter

d)

Shared among devices for fairness

93.

Which statements about the PCI 64-bit bus extension are accurate? Select all that apply.

a)

Adds additional 32 lines for data

b)

Uses time multiplexing for the extension

c)

Eliminates the need for address phases

d)

Requires two lines to negotiate 64-bit transfers

94.

Which sequence correctly captures major phases of a PCI transaction?

a)

Device reset, then error phase, then parity phase

b)

Arbiter sends interrupt, then data phase, then address phase

c)

Master claims bus, determine transaction type, address phase, data phases

d)

Target claims bus, then address phase, then idle

95.

Why is AGP referred to as a port rather than a bus in this context?

a)

It has more than four data lanes

b)

It connects only two devices directly

c)

It replaces PCI in all systems

d)

It uses asynchronous timing only