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Imag II: Fall Final Review 2

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of filtration in diagnostic X-ray beams?

a)

Remove high-energy photons from the beam

b)

Remove low-energy photons that increase skin dose

c)

Increase beam quantity reaching the receptor

d)

Create uniform patient exposure across all tissues

2.

Which components contribute to inherent filtration in an X-ray tube assembly?

a)

Glass envelope, oil, exit window

b)

Collimator mirror, aluminum sheets

c)

Wedge filter, trough filter

d)

Lead aprons, grid lines

3.

Which items are examples of added filtration?

a)

Collimator mirror and aluminum sheets

b)

Glass envelope and tube oil

c)

Anode target and exit window

d)

Grid strips and bucky tray

4.

Total filtration of an X-ray beam is calculated as:

a)

Inherent filtration plus added filtration

b)

Inherent filtration multiplied by mAs

c)

Added filtration minus inherent filtration

d)

kVp divided by HVL value

5.

How does filtration affect beam quality?

a)

Decreases quality by softening the beam

b)

Increases quality by hardening the beam

c)

Does not change beam quality

d)

Randomly changes quality depending on mAs

6.

How does filtration influence beam quantity at the image receptor?

a)

Doubles quantity when kVp is constant

b)

Leaves quantity unchanged

c)

Decreases quantity reaching the detector

d)

Increases quantity reaching the detector

7.

What is the typical effect of filtration on patient skin dose?

a)

Decreases skin dose by removing soft photons

b)

Increases skin dose slightly

c)

Increases dose to internal organs only

d)

Leaves skin dose unchanged

8.

Which statement correctly defines Half-Value Layer (HVL)?

a)

Thickness that removes all photons from a beam

b)

Thickness of material that halves beam intensity

c)

Measure of the number of photons produced

d)

Ratio of added to inherent filtration

9.

What does HVL primarily indicate about an X-ray beam?

a)

Beam quantity at the detector

b)

Beam quality and penetration ability

c)

Anode heat capacity during exposure

d)

Filtration thickness in millimeters

10.

A higher HVL corresponds to which change in the X-ray beam?

a)

Less penetrating, softer beam

b)

More penetrating, harder beam

c)

Unchanged penetration with higher mAs

d)

Lower quality due to added filtration

11.

How does adding filtration generally affect the HVL of the beam?

a)

Randomly changes HVL independent of filtration

b)

Leaves HVL constant regardless of kVp

c)

Increases HVL by hardening the spectrum

d)

Decreases HVL by softening the spectrum

12.

When are compensating filters most appropriately used in radiography?

a)

To protect the tube from overheating

b)

To lower kVp for thin patients

c)

To equalize exposure across uneven tissue densities

d)

To increase beam quantity without changing mAs

13.

Which are common types of compensating filters?

a)

Wedge and trough filters

b)

Mirror and window filters

c)

Lead and grid filters

d)

Anode and cathode filters

14.

Which interaction primarily produces scatter in soft tissue during diagnostic radiography?

a)

Compton interaction in soft tissue

b)

Photoelectric absorption in bone

c)

Pair production at high energies

d)

Thomson emission from the tube

15.

What is the main effect of scatter radiation on a radiographic image?

a)

Boosts exposure latitude

b)

Increases spatial resolution

c)

Sharpens edges and detail

d)

Adds fog and lowers contrast

16.

Which factor most increases scatter production during an exposure?

a)

Lower mA settings

b)

Higher kVp settings

c)

Longer SID values

d)

Shorter exposure time

17.

Expanding the field size during an exam typically leads to which outcome?

a)

Less patient dose, less scatter

b)

Improved contrast, less fog

c)

Higher resolution, fewer photons

d)

More tissue irradiated, more scatter

18.

Imaging a thicker anatomical part tends to cause what change in scatter?

a)

Reduces scatter formation

b)

Produces only primary photons

c)

Increases scatter production

d)

Eliminates scatter entirely

19.

Which method directly reduces scatter reaching the image receptor?

a)

Remove all filtration

b)

Widen the light field

c)

Increase kVp substantially

d)

Use an appropriate grid

20.

How does tight collimation affect image quality?

a)

Reduces scatter, improves contrast

b)

Raises noise, lowers resolution

c)

Increases fog, reduces detail

d)

Creates motion blur artifacts

21.

What is a key characteristic of coherent scatter in diagnostic ranges?

a)

No energy transfer to the electron

b)

Complete absorption of the photon

c)

Creation of characteristic radiation

d)

Production of secondary electrons

22.

Which statement best distinguishes Compton from photoelectric interactions?

a)

Compton absorbs; photoelectric scatters

b)

Compton scatters; photoelectric absorbs

c)

Both fully absorb the photon

d)

Neither changes photon direction

23.

Using an air-gap technique primarily achieves which effect?

a)

Raises image contrast noise

b)

Lowers patient dose significantly

c)

Increases geometric magnification

d)

Reduces scatter reaching the receptor

24.

What is an overall benefit of beam restriction in patient care?

a)

Elevates image fog level

b)

Decreases patient exposure

c)

Increases tube heat load

d)

Extends exposure time

25.

Collimation is expected to have what impact on image contrast?

a)

Only affects spatial resolution

b)

Has no measurable effect

c)

Decreases subject contrast

d)

Improves subject contrast

26.

What is the primary purpose of a radiographic grid?

a)

Increase image sharpness at detector

b)

Lower inherent filtration from the tube

c)

Remove scatter before reaching the IR

d)

Reduce patient motion during exposure

27.

When is using a grid most appropriate?

a)

For pediatric chest radiographs routinely

b)

For thin parts under 5 cm thickness

c)

For exams with minimal scatter risk

d)

For anatomy ≥10 cm or high scatter exams

28.

How does increasing grid ratio generally affect scatter cleanup and patient dose?

a)

No change in cleanup or dose

b)

Worse cleanup and lower dose

c)

Better cleanup and lower dose

d)

Better cleanup and higher dose

29.

Which error produces one-sided cutoff due to misalignment?

a)

Upside-down grid orientation error

b)

Off-focus incorrect SID error

c)

Off-center grid alignment error

d)

Off-level tube angulation error

30.

What characterizes off-focus grid cutoff?

a)

Detector tilted relative to grid

b)

SID outside grid’s focal range

c)

Tube angled toward cephalad

d)

Grid placed backward on cassette

31.

What image appearance is typical with an upside-down focused grid?

a)

Mottled pattern across the field

b)

Uniformly light center region

c)

One side dark and the other light

d)

Severe cutoff along image edges

32.

Which change is required when moving to a higher grid ratio to maintain exposure at the IR?

a)

Decrease mAs to limit dose

b)

Increase mAs to compensate attenuation

c)

Decrease kVp to reduce scatter

d)

Increase SID to widen focal range

33.

What is the main effect of the air gap technique?

a)

Decreases OID to improve detail

b)

Increases OID to reduce scatter

c)

Increases SID to reduce magnification

d)

Decreases kVp to limit scatter

34.

A radiograph shows both lateral borders underexposed after angling the X-ray tube. Which grid error is most likely?

a)

Upside-down grid orientation

b)

Off-focus due to long SID

c)

Off-center due to lateral shift

d)

Off-level due to tube angulation

35.

What is the primary function of Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) in radiography?

a)

Terminate exposure when detector receives set dose

b)

Start exposure when detector is covered

c)

Adjust kVp automatically for patient size

d)

Increase tube current during patient motion

36.

Why is accurate patient positioning critical when using AEC?

a)

It reduces needed collimation margins

b)

It ensures anatomy aligns with the active detector cell

c)

It prevents the backup timer from activating

d)

It lowers minimum response time of the system

37.

Selecting the wrong AEC cell most likely results in which outcome?

a)

Shorter exposure with adequate density

b)

Improved contrast with lower noise

c)

Overexposure or underexposure of the image

d)

Consistent exposure across all regions

38.

What is a common consequence of incorrect centering over the AEC detector?

a)

Uniform image brightness throughout

b)

Premature exposure termination consistently

c)

Unpredictable image density due to wrong sampling

d)

Guaranteed activation of backup timer every time

39.

If anatomy does not cover the AEC detector area, what can happen?

a)

Exposure stops immediately regardless of coverage

b)

System automatically switches to manual mode

c)

Exposure continues too long causing overexposure

d)

AEC increases kVp to compensate

40.

Tight collimation directly over the AEC chamber typically leads to what effect?

a)

AEC shuts off too early due to reduced scatter

b)

AEC increases mA to maintain detector signal

c)

Image contrast decreases from added scatter

d)

Exposure time lengthens to reach detector dose

41.

What is the purpose of the backup timer when using AEC?

a)

To control penetration by changing kVp

b)

To reduce image noise by adding filtration

c)

To automatically choose the correct AEC cell

d)

To prevent excessive exposure if AEC fails

42.

Minimum response time in AEC systems refers to the shortest time the system can expose. On thin patients, this may cause:

a)

Improved contrast with reduced scatter

b)

Equal exposure regardless of patient size

c)

Underexposure due to early termination

d)

Overexposure because time cannot be shorter

43.

When using AEC, how does manual mA selection primarily affect the exposure?

a)

It changes penetration and contrast

b)

It disables the backup timer function

c)

It determines exposure time to reach detector dose

d)

It activates additional AEC cells automatically

44.

With AEC, what does changing kVp primarily influence?

a)

Backup timer threshold setting

b)

Number of active detector chambers

c)

Exposure time calculation only

d)

Image penetration and contrast

45.

Density or exposure adjustment settings such as −1, −2, +1, +2 are used to:

a)

Change tube filtration automatically

b)

Modify minimum response time in hardware

c)

Shift the target detector dose up or down

d)

Select which AEC cells are active

46.

Which parameter primarily controls the quantity of x‑ray photons reaching the image receptor?

a)

mAs setting on the console

b)

kVp setting on the console

c)

SID chosen for the exam

d)

OID between part and detector

47.

Increasing kVp mainly affects beam quality in what way?

a)

Lowers photon quantity without energy change

b)

Lowers photon energy and penetration

c)

Raises photon quantity without energy change

d)

Raises photon energy and penetration

48.

Which factor directly increases patient dose when raised, assuming all else is constant?

a)

Lower kVp setting chosen

b)

Higher mAs value selected

c)

Lower OID gap maintained

d)

Higher SID distance used

49.

The 15% rule states that increasing kVp by 15% will have what effect on IR exposure?

a)

Reduces IR exposure by one third

b)

Approximately doubles IR exposure

c)

Approximately halves IR exposure

d)

Leaves IR exposure unchanged

50.

Which change most increases image magnification?

a)

Increase OID while keeping SID constant

b)

Decrease SID while keeping OID constant

c)

Decrease OID while keeping SID constant

d)

Increase SID while keeping OID constant

51.

Spatial resolution at the detector is most improved by which adjustment?

a)

Decrease SID and increase OID

b)

Increase SID and minimize OID

c)

Increase OID and keep SID constant

d)

Decrease kVp and increase mAs

52.

Higher kVp generally produces what change in radiographic contrast?

a)

Higher contrast with shorter scale

b)

Higher contrast with more scatter

c)

No change in image contrast

d)

Lower contrast with longer scale

53.

Which statement about SID and beam intensity follows the inverse square law?

a)

Halving SID doubles intensity

b)

Doubling SID quarters intensity

c)

Doubling SID doubles intensity

d)

Halving SID quarters intensity

54.

Increasing OID typically affects sharpness at the detector in what way?

a)

Improves sharpness by reducing scatter

b)

Leaves sharpness unchanged overall

c)

Increases sharpness due to focus

d)

Decreases sharpness due to blur

55.

If kVp is decreased by 15% without changing mAs, what happens to IR exposure?

a)

Exposure is slightly increased

b)

Exposure remains approximately unchanged

c)

Exposure is approximately doubled

d)

Exposure is approximately halved

56.

A radiographer wants to maintain IR exposure after increasing SID from 100 cm to 150 cm. Which adjustment is most appropriate?

a)

Increase mAs according to inverse square

b)

Decrease kVp by fifteen percent

c)

Decrease mAs according to inverse square

d)

Increase kVp by fifteen percent

57.

Which combination best reduces magnification while improving resolution for a lateral skull?

a)

Use long SID and minimal OID

b)

Use short OID and lower kVp

c)

Use short SID and maximal OID

d)

Use long OID and moderate SID

58.

What is the correct formula for calculating mAs from tube current and exposure time?

a)

mAs equals mA multiplied by time

b)

mAs equals mA minus exposure time

c)

mAs equals mA plus exposure time

d)

mAs equals mA divided by time

59.

A radiograph uses 200 mA for 0.10 s. What is the mAs?

a)

10 mAs

b)

40 mAs

c)

30 mAs

d)

20 mAs

60.

Which best describes the Exposure Maintenance Formula when changing distance?

a)

mAs2 equals mAs1 times D2 over D1

b)

mAs2 equals mAs1 times D1 squared over D2 squared

c)

mAs2 equals mAs1 times D2 squared over D1 squared

d)

mAs2 equals mAs1 times D1 over D2

61.

If SID increases from 100 cm to 150 cm, what factor multiplies mAs to maintain exposure?

a)

Multiply by 1.5 squared over 1.0 squared

b)

Multiply by 1.0 squared over 1.5 squared

c)

Do not change mAs at all

d)

Multiply by 1.5 over 1.0 only

62.

Which statement correctly expresses the Inverse Square Law for beam intensity?

a)

Intensity varies inversely with distance squared

b)

Intensity equals distance divided by exposure

c)

Intensity doubles when distance halves linearly

d)

Intensity is proportional to distance squared

63.

Using the 15% rule, what do you do to mAs when increasing kVp by 15% to keep receptor exposure constant?

a)

Cut the mAs in half

b)

Double the mAs

c)

Increase mAs by 15%

d)

Do not change the mAs

64.

When kVp is decreased by 15%, how should mAs be adjusted to maintain exposure?

a)

Leave mAs unchanged

b)

Increase mAs by 15%

c)

Double the mAs

d)

Cut mAs in half

65.

Which process primarily produces X-rays at 70 kVp in diagnostic imaging?

a)

Compton scatter dominates the beam

b)

Bremsstrahlung radiation dominates the beam

c)

Characteristic radiation dominates the beam

d)

Photoelectric absorption dominates the beam

66.

Characteristic radiation from a tungsten target occurs only when incident electron energy exceeds which threshold?

a)

50 keV binding energy of k-shell

b)

80 keV binding energy of k-shell

c)

60 keV binding energy of l-shell

d)

69 keV binding energy of k-shell

67.

Which exposure setting best minimizes patient dose while maintaining image quality in radiography?

a)

Highest kVp and lowest mAs

b)

Highest kVp and highest mAs

c)

Lowest kVp and highest mAs

d)

Moderate kVp and moderate mAs

68.

What is the primary purpose of collimation during an x‑ray exam?

a)

Reduce scatter and patient dose

b)

Increase image contrast only

c)

Improve detector sensitivity

d)

Shorten exposure time only

69.

Why should field size be limited to the area of clinical interest?

a)

To reduce tube heat only

b)

To minimize dose and scatter

c)

To avoid grid cutoff artifacts

d)

To improve SID consistency

70.

Which action most effectively prevents repeat exposures?

a)

Reducing source‑to‑image distance

b)

Increasing filtration thickness

c)

Ensuring accurate patient positioning

d)

Using a higher grid ratio

71.

What is the role of added filtration in the x‑ray beam?

a)

Reduce beam hardness for soft tissue

b)

Remove low‑energy photons that increase dose

c)

Produce characteristic radiation in the patient

d)

Increase scatter reaching the detector

72.

When are grids appropriate from a dose‑management perspective?

a)

Always, regardless of body part

b)

Only when needed to control scatter

c)

Never, due to dose increase

d)

Only with pediatric patients

73.

Which combination best describes proper shielding practice?

a)

Place shields between tube and collimator

b)

Use lead aprons on all body surfaces

c)

Shield radiosensitive organs when feasible

d)

Avoid shielding to prevent artifacts

74.

A technologist increases kVp and proportionally decreases mAs. What is the typical effect on patient dose?

a)

Dose remains exactly unchanged

b)

Dose decreases overall

c)

Dose increases substantially

d)

Dose fluctuates unpredictably