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Exam 2: Dr. Mo

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to reach therapeutic concentrations in the bones?

a)

Ceclor

b)

Zinacef

c)

Cefobid

d)

Fortaz

e)

Cefizox

2.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which bacteria become resistant to Erythromycin?

a)

Mutation at the 50s ribosomal subunit

b)

Active efflux

c)

Hydrolysis by esterases

d)

Modification of the ribosomal target by a methylase

e)

Decreased influx

3.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY indication of Mupirocin?

a)

Rosacea

b)

Acne

c)

Dermatitis

d)

Impetigo

e)

Furunculosis

4.

Which of the following is administered systematically for the treatment of Impetigo caused by Staphylococcus aureus? SATA

a)

Mupirocin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Dicloxacillin

d)

Cephalexin

e)

Clindamycin

5.

The mechanism of action of Mupirocin involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

Folic acid synthase

b)

DNA gyrase

c)

Isoleucyl-tRNA synthase

d)

Topoisomerase

e)

Glucuronyl transferase

6.

Which of the following is a parenterally administered Pleuromutilin?

a)

Retapamulin (Altaba, Altargo)

b)

Mupirocin (Bactroban, Centanyl)

c)

Chloromycetin (Chloramphenicol)

d)

Lefamulin (Xenleta)

e)

Meclan (Melocycline Sulfosalicylate)

7.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting Isoleucyl-tRNA synthase?

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Sivextro

c)

Sisomicin

d)

Bactroban

e)

Xtoro

8.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a pleuromutilin antibiotic? SATA

a)

Zemdria

b)

Xenleta

c)

Altabax

d)

Gantanol

e)

Renoquid

9.

Which of the following inhibits peptidyl transfer by binding to ribosomal protein L3?

a)

Altabax

b)

Bactroban

c)

Sivextro

d)

Sulamyd

e)

Baymycin

10.

Which of the following Ciprofloxacin preparations can be administered through the otic (ear) pathway? SATA

a)

Otovel

b)

Ciloxan

c)

Cipro HC Otic

d)

CiproDex

e)

Cipro Cystitis Pack

11.

A pharmacist should NOT question a prescription that calls for the ophthalmic administration of which of the following?

a)

Cipro-HC

b)

Otovel

c)

CiproDex

d)

Ciloxan

e)

Cipro Cystitis Pack

12.

Which of the following about Ciprofloxacin is FALSE?

a)

It can be administered intravenously

b)

It is primarily metabolized by Cytochrome P450 3A4

c)

Its half-life is about 4-6 hours

d)

Food delays its absorption

e)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 20-40%

13.

Which of the following statements about Ciprofloxacin is FALSE?

a)

It is an inducer of Cytochrome P450 1A2

b)

It gets distributed into the CSF

c)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 20-40%

d)

It has a half-life of 4-6 hr

e)

It is primarily excreted through the renal system

14.

Which of the following statements about Cipro is FALSE?

a)

It is distributed into the CSF and the prostatic fluid

b)

It is mostly excreted unchanged through the renal system

c)

Its half-life is 4-6 hours

d)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 20-40%

e)

It stimulates Cytochrome P450 1A2

15.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its CORRECT mechanism of action? SATA

a)

Cinobac → Conversion to bacteriocidal Formaldehyde

b)

Sulfisoxazole → Inhibition of Dihydropteroate synthase

c)

Levaquin → Inhibition of DNA gyrase

d)

Pyrimethamine → Inhibition of Dihydrofolate reductase

e)

Sulfamethoxazole → Inhibition of Folic Acid Synthase

16.

Which of the following about Ciprofloxacin is TRUE? SATA

a)

It can worsen muscle weakness in patients with Myasthenia Gravis and it can elevate plasma glucose

b)

It should be avoided in patients with pre-existing angina pectoris

c)

It should be avoided in patients who are younger than 12 years old because it can cause cataracts in that population

d)

It should be taken with plenty of water in order to prevent the arthropathy that it can cause

e)

It must be taken on an empty stomach because food decreases its overall GI absorption

17.

Considering its antibacterial spectrum, Cipro should NOT be used to treat which of the following infections?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Tularemia

c)

CAP

d)

Infectious Diarrhea

e)

Typhus

18.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication for Cipro?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Arthropathy

c)

Anthrax

d)

Sinusitis

e)

Chancroid

19.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Cipro?

a)

Dizziness and Seizures

b)

Crystalluria and Cataract

c)

Photosensitivity and Hypersensitivity

d)

Arthropathy and Tendinopathy

e)

CNS Stimulation and Hypoglycemia

20.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to decrease the GI absorption of Cipro?

a)

Probenecid

b)

Ferrous Sulfate

c)

Calcium Gluconate

d)

Pepto-Bismol

e)

Zinc Sulfate

21.

Which of the following products is a combination of Ciprofloxacin and a Glucocorticoid? SATA

a)
Teq-Paq
b)

Ciloxan

c)

CiproDex

d)

Otovel

e)

ABC Pack

22.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be employed in treating Buruli ulcer?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Capreomycin

c)

Sitafloxacin

d)

Tigecycline

e)

Cefaclor

23.

Buruli Ulcer is a distinguishing indication of which of the following?

a)

Moxifloxacin

b)

Sitafloxacin

c)

Finafloxacin

d)

Delafloxacin

e)

Besifloxacin

24.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Tetracycline?

a)

Seysara

b)

Ketek

c)

Cleocin

d)

Dificid

e)

Ilotycin

25.

Which of the following is the active ingredient in the product A/T/S that is used to manage Acne?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Biaxin

c)

Achromycin V

d)

Dificid

e)

Azamulin

26.

Erythromycin is recommended in the management of which of the following situations?

a)

Donovanosis

b)

Intestinal amebiasis

c)

Whooping cough

d)

Syphilis

e)

Legionnaires disease

27.

Which of the following statements is UNTRUE? Concurrent administration of Erythromycin and:

a)

Pimozide may result in sudden death

b)

Norpace may result in a shortening of the QT interval

c)

Coumadin may result in the potentiation of anticoagulation

d)

Lanoxin may result in an increased plasma levels of Lanoxin

e)

Pravachol may result in rhabdomyolysis

28.

Flagyl produces its pharmacological effects by interacting with which of the following enzymes?

a)

DNA gyrase

b)

Pyruvate-ferredoxin oxidoreductase

c)

Transpeptidase

d)

Isoleucyl-tRNA synthase

e)

5-Alpha reductase

29.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting DNA gyrase? SATA

a)

Baxdela

b)

Cinobac

c)

Vibramycin

d)

Zyvox

e)

Flagyl

30.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting DNA gyrase?

a)

Levaquin

b)

Renoquid

c)

Synercid

d)

Xenleta

e)

Solosec

31.

Which of the following is administered both orally and intravenously and is primarily used for the treatment of MRSA-induced acute bacterial skin and skin structure infection?

a)

Xepi

b)

Besivance

c)

Baxdela

d)

Zemdri

e)

Xerava

32.

For the treatment of MRSA-induced Acute Bacterial Skin Structure Infection, which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Baxdela? SATA

a)

150 mg PO QD

b)

300 mg IV Q12H

c)

300 mg PO Q12H

d)

400 mg PO Q6H

e)

450 mg PO Q12H

33.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its PRIMARY indication?

a)

Xtoro → Acute Otitis Externa

b)

Baxdela → MRSA-induced ABSSSI

c)

Xepi → Impetigo

d)

Moxeza → Bacterial Conjunctivitis

e)

Avelox → Swimmer’s Ear

34.

Which of the following Fluoroquinolone preparations is LEAST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis?

a)

Vigamox

b)

Tequin

c)

Besivance

d)

Quixin

e)

Ocuflox

35.

Which of the following inhibits Folic acid synthase and is employed in the treatment of Hansen disease?

a)

Sulfisoxazole

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Prroguanil

d)

Dapsone

e)

Isoniazid

36.

Which of the following is the Sulfonamide preparation of choice for managing Burns?

a)

Silver Sulfadiazine

b)

Sulfathalidine

c)

Sulfapyridine

d)

Sulfanilamide

e)

Sulfisoxazole

37.

Which of the following is BEST classified as an Intermediate-acting Sulfonamide?

a)

Sulfaturazole

b)

Sulfamethazine

c)

Sulfamerazine

d)

Sulfacetamide

e)

Sulfadiazine

38.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Long-acting Sulfonamide?

a)

Sulfisoxazole

b)

Sulfathiazole

c)

Sulfamethizole

d)

Sulfafurazole

e)

Sulfamerazine

39.

Which of the following Fluoroquinolones should a Pharmacist suggest for the treatment of Pneumonic plague?

a)

Finafloxacin

b)

Gatifloxacin

c)

Moxifloxacin

d)

Ozenoxacin

e)

Ofloxacin

40.

Which of the following is the primary indication of Finafloxacin?

a)

Sinusitis

b)

Impetigo

c)

UTI

d)

Acute Otitis Externa

e)

Gonorrhea

41.

Which of the following is an indication of Flagyl? SATA

a)

Peptic Ulcer

b)

Bacterial Vaginosis

c)

Pseudomembranous Colitis

d)

Dracunculus Medinesis

e)

Trichomoniaisis

42.

When dispensing Metronidazole, the Pharmacist should advise the patient to: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Take the drug with food

b)

Avoid concurrent ingestion of alcohol

c)

Avoid operating a dangerous machinery

d)

Expect to experience a metallic taste

e)

Expect a lighter coloration of the urine

43.

Which of the following is a 2nd-generation Cephalosporin which can reach therapeutic concentrations in the CSF?

a)

Claforan

b)

Rocephin

c)

Moxam

d)

Maxipime

e)

Zinacef

44.

Which of the following is BEST classified as an Aminoglycoside?

a)

Zinplava

b)

Zemdri

c)

Benzamycin

d)

Biaxin

e)

Retapamulin

45.

Which of the following is BEST classified as an Aminoglycoside?

a)

Neomycin

b)

Nuzyra

c)

Macrodantin

d)

Xepi

e)

Levaquin

46.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a mechanism by which a bacterium can become resistant to Aminoglycosides?

a)

Alteration of bacterial cell wall

b)

Growth in an oxygen-deficient environment

c)

Inactivation by a phosphorylase

d)

A one-step mutation of the 30s ribosomal subunit

e)

Inactivation by a lactonase

47.

Which of the following is an Aminoglycoside that is used to treat Tuberculosis? SATA

a)

Amikacin

b)

Streptomycin

c)

Capreomycin

d)

Kanamycin

e)

Neomycin

48.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Paromycin?

a)

Leishmaniasis

b)

Amoebiasis

c)

Cyclosporiasis

d)

Cryptosporidiosis

e)

Cestode Infection

49.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a common property of the Aminoglycosides?

a)

Poot oral absorption

b)

Good activity against gram-negative bacteria

c)

Inactivity against anaerobic bacterial

d)

Residual bactericidal activity

e)

Primary excretion through the feces

50.

Which of the following is a derivative of Sisomicin that is administered intravenously for the treatment of complicated UTI caused by Enterobacteriaceae?

a)

Baymicin (Amikacin)

b)

Septopal

c)

Zemdril (Plazomicin)

d)

Zinplava (Bezlotoxumab)

e)

Zylet (Tobramycin)

51.

Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody that is used to treat Clostridium difficile infections?

a)

Anthim

b)

Abthrax

c)

Zinplava

d)

Dificid

e)

Biaxin

52.

Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of which of the following?

a)

Jail fever

b)

Q fever

c)

Murine fever

d)

Nine-mile fever

e)

Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

53.

Which of the following is NOT matched with the infectious disease that it produces?

a)

Rickettsia akaria → Rickettsiapox

b)

Rickettsia quintana → Q fever

c)

Rickettsia rickettsii → Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

d)

Borrelia recurrentis → Relapsing Fever

e)

Borrelia burgdoferi → Lyme Disease

54.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be transmitted by the Lone Star Tick?

a)

Anthrax

b)

Seborrhea Sicca

c)

Granuloma Inguinale

d)

Lyme Disease

e)

Human Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis

55.

Which of the following is the causative agent of Q-Fever?

a)

Rickettsia quintana

b)

Chlamydia psittaci

c)

Ureaplasma urealyticum

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Coxiella burnetii

56.

During treatment for Meningeal plague, Mr. Bhash presented with severe diarrhea, abdominal distention, cyanosis, and cardiovascular collapse. Which of the following as Mr. Bhash MOST LIKELY being treated with?

a)

Omadacycline

b)

Tedizolid

c)

Colistin

d)

Tobramycin

e)

Chloramphenicol

57.

The pharmacological actions of Chloramphenicol include the inhibition of which of the following ribosomal subunits? SATA

a)

23s

b)

30s

c)

40s

d)

50s

e)

70s

58.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Chloramphenicol?

a)

A delayed-onset Aplastic Anemia

b)

Pancytopenia

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Leukocytosis

e)

Aplastic anemia that is not dose-determined

59.

Which of the following does NOT inhibit the 30s ribosomal subunit?

a)

Tobramycin

b)

Streptomycin

c)

Clarithromycin

d)

Kanamycin

e)

Amikacin

60.

Select the CORRECT STATEMENT: _____ is less likely than ____ to cause ototoxicity.

a)

Neomycin; Amikacin

b)

Tobramycin; Streptomycin

c)

Gentamicin; Amikacin

d)

Tobramycin; Gentamicin

e)

Amikacin; Streptomycin

61.

Which of the following statements about Linezolid is FALSE?

a)

It is available in the oral tablet and oral suspension forms

b)

Its half-life is about 4.5-5.5 hr

c)

It undergoes a non-enzymatic biotransformation to active carboxylic acid metabolites

d)

About 30% of the administered dose is excreted through the urinary system

e)

Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 31%

62.

Which of the following about Linezolid (Zyvox) is FALSE?

a)

A complete blood count should be done weekly while the patient is taking the drug

b)

The patient should avoid concurrent ingestion of red wine

c)

The drug should be used with caution in a patient who has PKU

d)

The patient should avoid concurrent ingestion of beef jerky

e)

It causes suprainfection because it is a broad-spectrum antibacterial agent

63.

When dispensing Zyvox, the Pharmacist should advise the patient to: (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Avoid ingestion of fermented meat and red wines

b)

Get a Complete Blood Count done weekly

c)

Avoid excessive exposure to sunlight

d)

Take the drug with plenty of water

e)

Avoid operating a dangerous machinery

64.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Zyvox (Linezolid)?

a)

Lactic acidosis

b)

Exacerbation of hyperglycemia

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Headache

e)

Nausea and Vomiting

65.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Linezolid (Zyvox) for the treatment of VRE?

a)

400 mg PO QD x 10 days

b)

600 mg PO QD x 14 days

c)

400 mg IV Q12H x 10 days

d)

600 mg IV Q12H x 28 days

e)

600 mg PO Q12H x 5 days

66.

Which drug prevents the formation of the larger ribosomal fMet-tRNA 70S initiation complex?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Pyrazinamide

c)

Dalfopristin

d)

Linezolid

e)

Tobramycin

67.

Which of the following statements about Linezolid is TRUE? SATA

a)

Its oral suspension should be avoided in a PKU patient

b)

A complete blood count should be done weekly while the patient is taking this drug

c)

It should be avoided in a patient with high blood glucose levels

d)

It should not be taken concomitantly with sauerkraut or fermented, dried meats

e)

It can be administered both orally and intravenously

68.

Which of the following statements about Chloromycetin is FALSE?

a)

It is a protein synthesis inhibitor

b)

It works at the 50s ribosomal subunit level in the cytoplasm

c)

It stimulates protein synthesis within the mitochondria

d)

It causes Aplastic anemia

e)

It causes Pancytopenia

69.

Which of the following is a protozoan that Tetracycline HCl is effective against? SATA

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Dientamoeba fragilis

c)

Balantidium colii

d)

Plasmodium Falciparum

e)

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

70.

Which of the following is a protozoal infection that is responsive to the treatment with Tetracycline? SATA

a)

Lyme Disease

b)

Intestinal amoebiasis

c)

Balantidiasis

d)

Donovanosis

e)

Dientamoebiasis

71.

The antibacterial spectrum of Tetracycline HCl includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Dientamoeba fragilis

b)

Neisseria gonorrhea

c)

Lymphogranuloma venereum

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

e)

Hemophilus ducreyi

72.

Which of the following drugs could lead to these adverse effects if used during pregnancy → Poor tooth development of the fetus and discoloration, retardation of skeletal development, & reduced bone growth?

a)

Tigecycline

b)

Zithromax

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Synercid

e)

Clindamycin

73.

Which of the following falls within the antibacterial spectrum of Tetracycline HCl? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

b)

Chlamydia psittaci

c)

Hemophilus ducreyi

d)

Helicobacter pylori

e)

Propionibacterium acnes

74.

A Tetracycline is LEAST LIKELY to be effective in treating an infection that is caused by which of the following?

a)

Brucella abortus

b)

Bacteroides fragilis

c)

Francisella tularensis

d)

Vibrio cholerae

e)

Borrelia burgdoferi

75.

Which of the following is an indication of Tetracyclines? SATA

a)

Amoebiasis and Dientamoebiasis

b)

Balantidiasis and Ornithosis

c)

Typhus and Tularemia

d)

Brucellosis and Human Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis

e)

Lyme Disease & Traveler's Diarrhea

76.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Tigecycline?

a)

Initial dose of 100 mg PO once

b)

Initial dose of 100 mg IV BID

c)

Maintenance dose of 100 mg PO BID

d)

Maintenance dose of 50 mg IV Q12H

e)

Maintenance dose of 50 mg PO QD

77.

In order to prevent the incidence of a Disulfiram-like reaction, a patient should avoid the concurrent ingestion of alcohol and which of the following? SATA

a)

Keflex

b)

Cefotan

c)

Moxam

d)

Cefobid

e)

Zefazone

78.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce the Disulfiram-like effect when administered concomitantly with Alcohol?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Cefotetan

c)

Cefoperazone

d)

Cefobid

e)

Keflin

79.

Which of the following contains Doxycycline hyclate? SATA

a)

Monodox

b)

Periostat

c)

Doryx

d)

Vibramycin suspension

e)

Acticlate

80.

Which of the following is NOT a Doxycycline hyclate preparation?

a)

Doryx

b)

Vibramycin capsule

c)

Periostat

d)

Acticlate

e)

Monodox

81.

Which of the following Tetracycline preparations is NOT matched with its correct indication?

a)

Periostat → Periodontitis

b)

Topicycline → Seborrhea

c)

Oracea → Rosacea

d)

Declomycin → SIADH

e)

Meclan → Amebiasis

82.

At a dosage of 40 mg PO QD, which of the following is MOST LIKELY used to treat Rosacea?

a)

Periostat

b)

Dynacin

c)

Oracea

d)

Doryx

e)

Vibratab

83.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be indicated in Seborrheic Dermatitis?

a)

Meclan

b)

Topicycline

c)

Tygacil

d)

Achromycin

e)

Aureomycin

84.

Which of the following is a hyclate salt of Doxycycline?

a)

Periostat

b)

Vibramycin Capsule

c)

Doryx

d)

Monodox

e)

Dynancin

85.

Select the INCORRECT statement. When dispensing Doxycycline, the Pharmacist should advise the patient to:

a)

Take the medication as directed on the prescription label

b)

Avoid concurrent ingestion of milk

c)

Complete the course of therapy

d)

Avoid excessive exposure to sunlight while taking the drug

e)

Take the drug with or without food

86.

Which of the following preparations is a monohydrate salt of Doxycycline?

a)

Doryx

b)

Vibramycin capsules

c)

Oracea

d)

Monodox

e)

Vibramycin Oral Suspension

87.

When Nuzyra is employed orally in the treatment of ABSSSI, which of the following is the appropriate maintenance dose?

a)

450 mg QD

b)

200 mg QD

c)

50 mg QD

d)

300 mg QD

e)

100 mg QD

88.

Which of the following statements about Doxycycline is INCORRECT?

a)

Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 80-95%

b)

It does not penetrate the CSF

c)

It should be taken with food or milk

d)

Its pharmacokinetics is not altered by renal dysfunction

e)

Its half-life is about 15-25 hr

89.

Which of the following statements about Doxycycline is FALSE?

a)

It must not be taken concurrently with dairy products since it is a type of Tetracycline

b)

It has a half-life of 15-25 hours

c)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 80-95%

d)

It can be administered intravenously

e)

It is excreted through the feces

90.

Which of the following statements about Doxycycline is FALSE?

a)

It is primarily excreted through the kidneys

b)

Its half-life is about 15-25 hours

c)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 80-95%

d)

It can be taken with food or milk

e)

It penetrates the CSF

91.

Which of the following statements about Doxycycline is FALSE?

a)

It penetrates the CSF and Synovial Fluid

b)

It is excreted entirely via the urine

c)

It can be administered with food

d)

It has a low affinity for Calcium

e)

It has a half-life of about 15-25 hours

92.

Which of the following is included in the antibacterial spectrum of Doxycycline? (Select all that apply)

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Ehrlichia canis

c)

Ureaplasma urealyticum

d)

Francisella tularensis

e)

Vibrio cholera

93.

Which of the following is a Tetracycline-containing product that is used to manage peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Meclan

b)

Pylera

c)

Dynacin

d)

Helidac

e)

Periostat

94.

Which of the following is contained in each dose of Helidac? SATA

a)

Bismuth subsalicylate 524 mg

b)

Metronidazole 125 mg

c)

Biskalcitrate 140 mg

d)

Tetracycline 500 mg

e)

Metronidazole 500 mg

95.

Which of the following is NOT matched with the syndrome it produces?

a)

Demeclocycline → SIADH

b)

Tetracycline HCl → Fanconi Syndrome

c)

Chloramphenicol → Grey Baby Syndrome

d)

Vancomycin → Red Man Syndrome

e)

Neomycin → Malabsorption Syndrome

96.

Baby Dut was diagnosed with Chloramphenicol-induced Grey Baby Syndrome; Which of the following is baby Dut LEAST LIKELY to experience or exhibit?

a)

Cardiovascular Collapse

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Hyperthermia

d)

Torrential Diarrhea

e)

Abdominal Distension

97.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting bacterial topoisomerase II?

a)

Xerava

b)

Amzeeq

c)

Xtorro

d)

Tobi

e)

Zithromax

98.

Considering its clinical indications, which of the following falls within the Antibacterial spectrum of Azithromycin? SATA

a)

Mycobacterium avium

b)

Mycobacterium intracellulare

c)

Babesia microti

d)

Haemophilus influenzae

e)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

99.

Which of the following is used topically to treat Inclusion Conjunctivitis caused by Chlamophenicol Trachomatis?

a)

Z-PAK

b)

TRI-PAK

c)

ZMAX

d)

Azasite

e)

Azithromycin 1g packets

100.

Which of the following is a topical foam preparation of Minocycline that is used to treat Rosacea?

a)

Oracea

b)

Periostat (Doxycycline Hyclate)

c)

Xerava (Eravacycline)

d)

Amzeeq (Minocycline)

e)

Meclan (Meclizine)

101.

For the treatment of complicated Intra-abdominal infections caused by susceptible bacteria, which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Eravacycline (Xeneva)?

a)

100 mg PO BID

b)

40 mg PO QD

c)

1 mg/kg IV Q12H

d)

10 mg/kg IV Q12H

e)

100 mg IV QD

102.

A Medical Team wants to use Minocycline Topical Foam for the management of the bumps and redness that are associated with Rosacea; Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE product for the Pharmacist to recommend?

a)

Oracea

b)

Amzeeq

c)

Meclan

d)

Aureomycin

e)

Topicycline

103.

Which of the following statements about Maxipime is FALSE?

a)

It is administered IV and IM

b)

Its usual dosage is 1-2 g given every 8-12 hr

c)

It can produce glomerular and vascular changes

d)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 20%

e)

Its half-life is about 23 hours

104.

Which of the following is an indication of Cephalosporins? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Nosocomial secondary peritonitis caused by CAPES organisms

b)

Diabetic foot infection caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis

c)

Cellulitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Flesh-eating bacterial infection caused by Vibrio vulnificus

e)

Endocarditis caused by HACEK organisms

105.

Which of the following is the Cephalosporin of first choice in the management of secondary peritonitis caused by CAPES bacteria?

a)

Ancef (Cefazolin)

b)

Maxipime (Cefepime)

c)

Zinacef (Cefuroxime)

d)

Keflin (Cefalotin)

e)

Fortaz (Ceftazidime)

106.

Mr. Qua’s endocarditis was caused by a HACEK organism. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be implicated in Mr. Qua’s endocarditis?

a)

Haemophilus aphrophilus

b)

Acinetobacter baumannii

c)

Cardiobacterium hominis

d)

  1. Eikenella corrodens 

e)

Kingella kingae

107.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Polymyxin B? SATA

a)

  1. Muscle weakness and numbness

b)

Oliguria and decreased BUN 

c)

  1. Neuromuscular blockade

d)

  1. Circumoral paresthesia 

e)

  1. Albuminuria and cellular casts

108.

  1. Polymyxin B has an antibacterial effect against all of the following EXCEPT: 

a)

  1. Acinetobacter baumannii

b)

  1. Bordetella pertussis 

c)

  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 

d)

  1. Pasteurella maltocida 

e)

  1. Serratia marcescens

109.

  1. Mr. Muke, who weighs 154 lbs, has Bacteremia that is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following should be the total daily amount of Aerosporin (Polymyxin B) that should be administered parenterally to treat that infection?

a)

  1. 300 mg 

b)

  1. 1.5 g  

c)

  1. 20,000 units

d)

  1. 700,000 units

e)

  1. 1.4 million units

110.

  1. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Cefiderocol (Fetroja)? 

a)

  1. Atrial fibrillation 

b)

  1. Seizures

c)

  1. Asterixis

d)

  1. Status epilepticus 

e)

  1. Hyperkalemia

111.

  1. Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Cefiderocol (Fetroja)?

a)

  1. 200 mg PO Q8H 

b)

  1. 500 mg IV infusion Q3H 

c)

  1. 1 g IV infusion Q12H 

d)

  1. 2 g IV infusion over 30 min Q6H

e)

  1. 2 g IV infusion over 3 hrs Q8H 

112.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Cefiderocol (Fetroja)?

a)

  1. Atrial Fibrillation 

b)

  1. Status Epilepticus 

c)

  1. Hypermagnesemia 

d)

  1. Asterixis 

e)

  1. Hypersensitivity Reaction

113.

  1. Which of the following statements about Cefiderocol (Fetroja) is FALSE? 

a)

  1. It is administered Intravenously (IV) ONLY 

b)

  1. It has a half-life of about 23 hours

c)

  1. It undergoes renal excretion (~90% unchanged)

d)

  1. It is a Cephalosporin-siderophore conjugate 

e)

  1. Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 40-45%

114.

  1. Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by first using its siderophore properties to traverse the outer cell membrane of the susceptible bacterium?

a)

  1. Cefdinir

b)

  1. Cefpirome 

c)

  1. Cefsulodin

d)

  1. Cefozopram 

e)

  1. Cefiderocol

115.

  1. Which of the following is NOT an indication of Gentamicin?

a)

  1. Chronic osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis 

b)

  1. Mycobacterium-avium intracellulare complex infection 

c)

  1. Impetigo and folliculitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus 

d)

  1. Brucellosis caused by Brucella melitensis 

e)

  1. Cellulitis caused by Bacteroides melaninogenicus

116.

  1. Mr. Zum’s respiratory tract infection was determined to be caused by Eaton’s agent. Which of the following was responsible for Mr. Zum’s infection?

a)

  1. TWAR

b)

  1. Chlamydia psittacci 

c)

  1. Chlamydia pneumoniae

d)

  1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

e)

  1. Yersina pestis

117.

  1. Which of the following is an indication of Gentamicin? SATA

a)

  1. Brucellosis 

b)

  1. Donovanosis 

c)

  1. Chronic Osteomyelitis

d)

  1. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex infection 

e)

  1. Gram-negative aerobic meningitis

118.

  1. Which of the following statements about Gentamicin is FALSE? SATA

a)

  1. It can be administered through impregnated polymethylmetacrytic microspheres on a surgical wire

b)

  1. It is available as a liposomal preparation for injection 

c)

  1. It has a half-life of 8 hours 

d)

  1. It penetrates the placenta barrier since it is highly lipid soluble 

e)

  1. It has a high albumin-binding capability

119.

  1. Which of the following about the use of Clindamycin is INCORRECT?

a)

  1. It is used to treat Lemierre disease

b)

  1. When combined with Primaquine, it is very effective for the treatment of PCP 

c)

  1. For the best treatment of Toxoplasmosis, it is combined with Quinine 

d)

  1. It is effective in the treatment of Babesiosis 

e)

  1. In the absence of Flagyl, it can be used to treat Bacterial vaginosis

120.

  1. A combination of Primaquine and Clindamycin is BEST used to treat which of the following?

a)

  1. Babesiosis

b)

  1. Pelvic abscess 

c)

  1. PCP

d)

  1. Malaria

e)

  1. Lemierre disease

121.

  1. Which of the following products that are used for the management of Malaria consists of an inhibitor of Dihydrofolate reductase? SATA

a)

  1. Sulfadooxine 

b)

  1. Dapsone 

c)

  1. Daraprim

d)

  1. Maloprim

e)

Malarone  

122.

  1. Which of the following statements about Clindamycin is FALSE? 

a)

  1. Its phosphate salt can be administered IM or IV 

b)

Its vaginally administered formulations are commercially available in ovules and cream

c)

ts phosphate salt is contained in Clindet and Clindagel 

d)

  1. Its half-life is 2-4 hours and its highly plasma protein bound 

e)

  1. Its palmitate salt is contained in Clindamycin pledgets

123.

  1. A Pharmacist should question a Rx that calls for the per os administration of which of the following? SATA

a)

  1. Clindet 

b)

  1. Clindamycin palmitate

c)

  1. Clindamycin pledgets

d)

  1. Clindamycin phosphate

e)

  1. Clindamycin hydrochloride

124.

  1. Which of the following is an indication of Clindamycin? SATA

a)

  1. PCP

b)

  1. Toxoplasmosis 

c)

  1. Bacterial Vaginosis 

d)

  1. Impetigo 

e)

  1. Bebesiosis

125.

  1. Which of the following is a clinical use of Cleocin (Clindamycin)? SATA

a)

  1. Toxoplasmosis 

b)

  1. Acne 

c)

  1. Bacterial Vaginosis

d)

  1. Babesiosis

e)

  1. Cellulitis

126.

  1. Pyrimethamine is MOST LIKELY to be combined with Clindamycin for the treatment of which of the following?

a)

  1. PCP

b)

  1. Babesiosis 

c)

  1. Toxoplasmosis 

d)

  1. Impetigo 

e)

  1. Bacterial Vaginosis

127.

  1. Potential cause of pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile superinfection, which binds to a similar site as Biaxin on the 50S ribosomal subunit? 

a)

  1. Chloramphenicol 

b)

  1. Chloroquine 

c)

  1. Clindamycin 

d)

  1. Isoniazid

128.

  1. Mr. Zud presents with a severe oropharyngeal infection that is characterized by a septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and pulmonary embolism. A biological sample from Mr. Zud revealed the presence of a gram-negative anaerobic bacillus. Which of the following as MOST LIKELY the causative agent of Mr. Zud’s condition? 

a)

  1. Entamoeba histolytica

b)

  1. Fusobacterium necrophorum 

c)

  1. Bacteroides melaningenicus 

d)

  1. Propinobacterium acnes

e)

  1. Pneumocytis jiroveci

129.

  1. Mr. Zud presents with a severe oropharyngeal infection that is characterized by a septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and pulmonary embolism. A biological sample from Mr. Zud revealed the presence of a gram-negative anaerobic bacillus. Which of the following should be used to treat Mr. Zud’s infection? 

a)

  1. Gentamicin 

b)

  1. Netilmicin 

c)

  1. Clindamycin 

d)

  1. Tedizolid

e)

  1. Lefamulin

130.

  1. Mr. Zud presents with a severe oropharyngeal infection that is characterized by a septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and pulmonary embolism. A biological sample from Mr. Zud revealed the presence of a gram-negative anaerobic bacillus. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE diagnosis of Mr. Zud’s infection? 

a)

  1. Donovanosis

b)

  1. Bacterial pneumonitis

c)

  1. Community-acquired pneumonia

d)

  1. Lemierre’s disease

e)

  1. Babesiosis

131.

  1. Which of the following Sulfonamide preparations is NOT matched with the condition for which it is the Sulfonamide preparation of first choice?

a)

  1. Candida albicans-induced vaginitis → Sultrin 

b)

  1. Typhoid → Bactrim DS

c)

  1. Malaria → Sulfadoxine

d)

  1. Otitis Media → Sulfisoxazole 

e)

  1. Ulcerative Colitis → Azulfidine

132.

  1. Which of the following Sulfonamide preparations that are used to treat Seborrhea, Psoriasis, or Acne is devoid of Sulfur?

a)

  1. Sebzion 

b)

  1. Sulfacet-R

c)

  1. Rosula 

d)

  1. Plexion 

e)

  1. Sumaxin

133.

  1. A Sulfonamide is effective against which of the following organisms? SATA

a)

  1. Toxoplasma gondii

b)

  1. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare 

c)

  1. Plasmodium vivax

d)

  1. Flavobacterium meningosepticum

e)

  1. Cyclospora cayetanensis

134.

  1. The mechanism of action of Bactrim involves the inhibition of which of the following? SATA

a)

  1. Folic acid synthase

b)

  1. DNA gyrase

c)

  1. Dihydrofolate reductase

d)

  1. Topoisomerase

e)

  1. Tetrahydrofolate reductase

135.

  1. Which of the following is a Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor that is employed in the treatment of Cancer? 

a)

  1. Cycloguanil 

b)

  1. Methotrexate

c)

  1. Proguanil 

d)

  1. Aczone 

e)

  1. Fansidar

136.

  1. Which of the following is the Sulfonamide of choice for treating Plasmodium Infections? 

a)

  1. Sulfathalidine 

b)

  1. Sulfadiazine 

c)

  1. Sulfadoxine

d)

  1. Sulfamethoxazole

e)

  1. Sulfafurazole

137.

  1. A Sulfonamide is LEAST LIKELY to be used to treat which of the following STDs? 

a)

  1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae-induced urethritis 

b)

  1. Haemophilus vaginalis-induced vaginitis 

c)

  1. Haemophilus decreyi-induced chancroid 

d)

  1. Klebsiella granulomatis-induced granuloma inguinale 

e)

  1.  Chlamydia trachomatis-induced lymphogranuloma venereum

138.

  1. Which of the following is NOT matched with the Sulfonamide of 1st choice for managing it?

a)

  1. Typhoid → Sulfamethoxazole 

b)

  1. Psoriasis → Sulfadiazine 

c)

Fungal Vaginitis → Sulfanilamide 

d)

  1. Otitis Media → Sulfisoxazole 

e)

  1. Ulcerative Colitis → Sulfasalazine

139.

  1. Which of the following conditions is NOT matched with the Sulfonamide of first choice for treating it? 

a)

  1. Psoriasis → Sulfacetamide 

b)

  1. Candida albicans-induced vaginitis → Sulfanilamide 

c)

  1. Chlamydia trachomatis-induced inclusion conjunctivitis → Sulfamethoxazole 

d)

  1. Malaria → Sulfadoxine 

e)

  1. Toxoplasmosis → Sulfadiazine

140.

  1. Considering the indication of Sulfonamides, which of the following falls within the antimicrobial spectrum of Sulfonamides? SATA

a)

  1. Chlamydia trachomatis

b)

  1. Shigella dysenteriae

c)

  1. Nocardia asteroides

d)

  1. Plasmodium ovale

e)

  1. Cyclospora cayetanensis

141.

  1. Which of the following is the Sulfonamide of first choice for treating Inclusion Conjunctivitis? 

a)

  1. Sulfacetamide

b)

  1. Sulfasalazine 

c)

  1. Sulfisoxazole

d)

  1. Sulfacetin

e)

  1. Sulfamethoxazole

142.

  1. Sulfamethoxazole Sulfonamide preparations?

a)

  1. Sulamyd

b)

  1. Bactrim DS

c)

  1. Sultrin 

d)

  1. Azulfidine 

e)

  1. Gantrisin 

143.

  1. Which of the following conditions is NOT matched with the Sulfonamide of first choice for treating it?

a)

  1. Legionnaire’s disease → Sulfamethoxazole

b)

  1. Inclusion conjunctivitis → Sulfacetamide 

c)

  1. Candida albicans-induced vaginitis → Sulfanilamide

d)

  1. Otitis media → Sulfisoxazole

e)

  1. Nocardiosis → Sulfadiazine 

144.

  1. Which of the following is NOT matched with the condition for which it is the Sulfonamide of first choice?

a)

  1. Silver Sulfadiazine → Burns 

b)

  1. Sulfisoxazole → Nocardiosis 

c)

  1. Sulfasalazine → Ulcerative Colitis

d)

  1. Sulfanilamide → Gardnerella vaginalis-induced vaginitis

e)

  1. Sulfacetamidine → Rosacea 

145.

  1. In which of the following conditions is a Sulfonamide contraindicated? SATA

a)

  1. Hyperbilirubinemia

b)

  1. Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency 

c)

  1. Sulfa Hypersensitivity

d)

  1. Pregnancy at Term 

e)

  1. Toxoplasmosis

146.

  1. Which of the following statements about Sulfamethoxazole is FALSE? 

a)

  1. It can be displaced from plasma protein binding sites by Aspirin and Indomethacin 

b)

  1. It can potentiate the effects of Sulfonylureas

c)

  1. It should be avoided in a patient who has hyperbilirubinemia in order to avoid kernicterus 

d)

  1. It should be avoided in a patient who has glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency in order to prevent crystalluria 

e)

  1. It can be synergized by Trimethoprim

147.

  1. Which of the following will displace a Sulfonamide from plasma protein binding sites? SATA

a)

  1. Local Anesthetics 

b)

  1. Coumadin 

c)

  1. Probenecid 

d)

Aspirin 

e)

  1. Indomethacin

148.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Sulfonamides?

a)

  1. Toxic epidermal necrolysis

b)

  1. Granulocytosis 

c)

  1. Positive Coombs test

d)

  1. Photosensitivity 

e)

  1. Lupus flare

149.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Sulfonamides?

a)

  1. SJS, TEN, Pruritis 

b)

  1. Negative Coombs Test and Aplastic Anemia

c)

  1. Drug-Induced Lupus and Lupus Flare 

d)

  1. Hallucination, Peripheral Neuropathy, Optic Neuritis 

e)

  1. Kernicterus, Photosensitivity, Hypersensitivity

150.

  1. The adverse effects of Sulfonamides include which of the following? SATA

a)

Positive Coombs Test

b)

Peripheral and Optic Neuritis 

c)

  1. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis 

d)

  1. Aplastic Anemia 

e)

  1. Photosensitivity

151.

  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Hemolytic Anemia is LIKELY to result: SATA

a)

  1. During therapy with Sulfonamides

b)

  1. From the administration of Nitrofurantoin to a patient who is deficient in Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

c)

  1. When an individual contracts Babesiosis 

d)

  1. During therapy with Streptomycin

e)

  1. From the administration of Sulfadiazine to a patient who is deficient in Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

152.

  1. Which of the following pharmacological drug classes binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit of bacteria? SATA

a)

  1. Macrolides

b)

  1. Ketolides

c)

  1. Oxazolidinones

d)

  1. Aminoglycosides

e)

  1. Lincosamides

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