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REVIEW FOR FUCKING POI

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines voluntary motion in radiography?

a)

Motion due to tremors only

b)

Movement the patient can control

c)

Movement caused by heartbeats

d)

Motion from peristalsis alone

2.

Which is an example of involuntary motion during imaging?

a)

Talking during exposure

b)

Heartbeat during exposure

c)

Following clear instructions

d)

Holding breath tightly

3.

What is the primary goal of limiting motion unsharpness?

a)

Reduce focal spot size

b)

Increase exposure time

c)

Lower patient dose only

d)

Make the image sharper

4.

Which method directly helps reduce motion blur by patient cooperation?

a)

Clear instructions and breath-hold

b)

Using poor film-screen contact

c)

Larger focal spot selection

d)

Increasing OFD slightly

5.

Suspended respiration is most useful to reduce blur in which scenario?

a)

Skull imaging with immobilizers

b)

Dental panoramic exposures

c)

Extremity imaging with casts

d)

Chest radiography with rib clarity

6.

Which item is an immobilization aid effect on image quality?

a)

Enlarges focal spot

b)

Increases OFD markedly

c)

Speeds screen conversion

d)

Reduces patient motion

7.

Which factor describes the space between the patient or object and the image receptor?

a)

Object–film distance

b)

Source–image distance

c)

Film–screen contact

d)

Intensifying screen speed

8.

What does focal spot size primarily influence?

a)

Geometric unsharpness

b)

OFD measurement errors

c)

Patient cooperation

d)

Screen light emission

9.

Which distance is measured from the x‑ray tube focal spot to the image receptor?

a)

Film–cassette gap distance

b)

Patient–tube distance

c)

Object–film distance

d)

Source–image distance

10.

Good film–screen contact produces what outcome for a mesh test image?

a)

Clear sharp wire mesh

b)

Blurry uneven wire mesh

c)

Overexposed grid pattern

d)

Magnified mesh spacing

11.

Poor film–screen contact most likely causes which artifact?

a)

Uniformly sharper detail

b)

Localized fuzzy mesh area

c)

Increased SID blur

d)

Reduced magnification only

12.

Which combination best limits motion unsharpness during routine studies?

a)

Fast exposure times

b)

Large OFD values

c)

Loose screen contact

d)

Big focal spot usage

13.

Why can slight breathing during a chest x‑ray sometimes be advantageous?

a)

Increases SID to reduce blur

b)

Sharpens ribs for bone detail

c)

Blurs ribs to show lung tissue

d)

Prevents heart motion entirely

14.

Intentional blur in tomography is achieved by which action?

a)

Moving the x‑ray tube during exposure

b)

Using a stationary large focal spot

c)

Reducing SID to increase magnification

d)

Increasing OFD for organ separation

15.

Functional studies like fluoroscopy rely on motion for what purpose?

a)

Reduce film–screen noise artifacts

b)

Measure OFD accurately each time

c)

Eliminate patient movement entirely

d)

Study organ dynamics in real time

16.

Which factor primarily controls the quantity of x‑ray photons produced during an exposure?

a)

SID chosen by technologist

b)

Grid ratio used

c)

mAs setting selected

d)

kVp of the generator

17.

Increasing mAs without changing other factors will most directly cause what effect on the image receptor exposure?

a)

Higher contrast only

b)

Higher overall exposure

c)

Lower overall exposure

d)

No change in exposure

18.

What does exposure to the image receptor determine for a digital image?

a)

Pixel matrix size

b)

Focal spot blur amount

c)

Displayed brightness level

d)

Detector quantum efficiency

19.

Raising kVp generally results in which combined effect?

a)

Same penetration, lower exposure

b)

More penetrating beam, higher exposure

c)

More scatter, lower exposure

d)

Less penetrating beam, lower exposure

20.

Which statement best describes the role of SID in exposure?

a)

Exposure decreases as distance increases

b)

Exposure peaks at midrange distance

c)

Exposure is independent of distance

d)

Exposure increases with greater distance

21.

A thicker body part typically leads to what outcome if technique is unchanged?

a)

More absorption, less receptor exposure

b)

Less absorption, more receptor exposure

c)

Same absorption, same exposure

d)

More scatter, more receptor exposure

22.

What is the main factor used to adjust image brightness/density when exposure is incorrect?

a)

Change SID only

b)

Change kVp slightly

c)

Change grid ratio

d)

Change mAs primarily

23.

Which grid effect on exposure is most accurate?

a)

Grids decrease contrast but increase exposure

b)

Grids add exposure by emitting radiation

c)

Grids remove scatter and require more mAs

d)

Grids reduce absorption in thick parts

24.

If SID is increased from 40 inches to 50 inches and mAs is not changed, what happens to receptor exposure?

a)

Exposure increases noticeably

b)

Exposure doubles exactly

c)

Exposure decreases noticeably

d)

Exposure remains identical

25.

Which formula represents the inverse square law for intensity change with distance?

a)

I2 = I1 × d2

b)

I2 / I1 = d1 × d2

c)

I1 / I2 = d2² / d1²

d)

I1 × I2 = d1 / d2

26.

A radiograph appears lighter after moving the tube farther from the detector without technique change. What adjustment best restores proper exposure?

a)

Decrease mAs appropriately

b)

Reduce kVp minimally

c)

Increase SID further

d)

Lower grid ratio slightly

27.

Which pair correctly matches factor and its primary influence?

a)

mAs—beam energy

b)

Grid—source distance

c)

kVp—quantity only

d)

SID—intensity at receptor

28.

Two exams differ only by patient thickness: Exam A is thicker. If technique is unchanged, which image outcome is expected for Exam A?

a)

Darker image due to more exposure

b)

Lighter image due to less exposure

c)

Same brightness due to AEC

d)

Higher spatial resolution automatically

29.

Which scenario most likely increases film darkness if no adjustments are made?

a)

Closer SID with same mAs

b)

Higher grid ratio installed

c)

Lower kVp with same mAs

d)

Thicker part with same mAs

30.

Given: original distance d1 = 40 inches, new distance d2 = 45 inches, original intensity I1 = 5 R. Using the inverse square law, what is the new intensity I2?

a)

4.94 R approximately

b)

2.22 R approximately

c)

3.95 R approximately

d)

5.62 R approximately

31.

A radiograph is taken at 10 mAs without a grid. To add an 8:1 grid (GCF ≈ 4), what mAs is required to maintain receptor exposure?

a)

40 mAs

b)

30 mAs

c)

20 mAs

d)

10 mAs

32.

An exposure used 40 mAs with an 8:1 grid (GCF ≈ 4). If the grid is changed to 12:1 (GCF ≈ 5), what is the new mAs to keep the same exposure?

a)

32 mAs

b)

45 mAs

c)

50 mAs

d)

60 mAs

33.

Using the inverse square law, an exposure at distance d1 = 36 in gives intensity I1 = 8.0 R. If the distance is doubled to d2 = 72 in, what is the new intensity I2?

a)

8.0 R

b)

6.0 R

c)

2.0 R

d)

4.0 R

34.

Using the inverse square law, at d1 = 40 in the intensity is I1 = 5.0 R. If the distance is reduced to d2 = 30 in, what is the new intensity I2?

a)

3.8 R

b)

8.9 R

c)

6.7 R

d)

10.5 R

35.

Using the inverse square law, at d1 = 50 in the intensity is I1 = 10.0 R. What distance d2 is needed to reach I2 = 15.0 R?

a)

48 in

b)

44 in

c)

41 in

d)

52 in

36.

Which statement best defines film speed in radiography?

a)

How sharp edges appear

b)

How fast the x-ray tube spins

c)

How much scatter is produced

d)

How sensitive the film is

37.

If film sensitivity increases, what change occurs to achieve the same image density?

a)

Grid ratio must be lower

b)

Less radiation is needed

c)

Exposure time must be longer

d)

More radiation is needed

38.

Greater film sensitivity generally affects patient dose in what way?

a)

Increases patient dose

b)

Does not change dose

c)

Decreases patient dose

d)

Depends only on kVp

39.

When changing from one grid to another, which relation correctly calculates new mAs?

a)

mAs2 = mAs1 × (GCF1/GCF2)

b)

mAs2 = mAs1 ÷ (GCF2/GCF1)

c)

mAs2 = mAs1 × (GCF2/GCF1)

d)

mAs2 = mAs1 + (GCF2−GCF1)

40.

What is the approximate Grid Conversion Factor (GCF) for a 12:1 grid?

a)

6

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

41.

Spectral matching requires the film’s sensitivity to match what property of the intensifying screen?

a)

Screen thickness

b)

Color of emitted light

c)

Grid ratio used

d)

Focal spot size

42.

Which statement best describes the Reciprocity Law in radiographic imaging?

a)

Density depends on kVp only and not time

b)

Density depends on distance only from the source

c)

Density depends on intensity multiplied by exposure time

d)

Density depends on patient thickness primarily

43.

You keep total exposure (intensity × time) constant but use a shorter exposure time. According to the Reciprocity Law, what happens to optical density (OD)?

a)

OD increases significantly with shorter time

b)

OD remains the same if intensity is adjusted

c)

OD decreases regardless of intensity

d)

OD fluctuates unpredictably with time

44.

The 15% Rule states that increasing kVp by 15% will do what to optical density when mAs is unchanged?

a)

Reduce OD by half making image lighter

b)

Increase OD slightly by about 5%

c)

Double OD making image twice as dark

d)

Leave OD unchanged across all distances

45.

To maintain the same OD after increasing kVp by 15%, what adjustment to mAs is required?

a)

Increase mAs by thirty percent

b)

Decrease mAs by thirty percent

c)

Decrease mAs by a factor of two

d)

Increase mAs by a factor of two

46.

If kVp is decreased by 15% and you want the same OD, how should mAs be changed?

a)

Double the mAs to compensate for lower kVp

b)

Halve the mAs to reduce patient dose

c)

Increase mAs by about five percent

d)

Keep mAs unchanged because OD is constant

47.

A 5% change in kVp typically causes what approximate change in optical density when mAs is constant?

a)

Exactly fifty percent change in OD

b)

No noticeable change in OD

c)

About thirty percent change in OD

d)

About ten percent change in OD

48.

Which factor does not directly affect optical density aside from distance?

a)

Exposure time used for the film

b)

Intensifying screen (IS) speed

c)

Ambient room lighting during exposure

d)

kVp setting of the x-ray tube

49.

As source-to-image distance (SID) increases, what happens to x-ray intensity at the film?

a)

Intensity decreases following the inverse square law

b)

Intensity fluctuates randomly with SID

c)

Intensity remains constant regardless of SID

d)

Intensity increases proportionally with SID

50.

To keep the same OD when increasing SID from 40 inches to 80 inches, how should mAs change?

a)

Increase mAs to four times original

b)

Increase mAs to twice the original

c)

Decrease mAs to one quarter of original

d)

Keep mAs the same for constant OD

51.

Use the mAs-distance formula mAs1=mAs2×(d12/d22)mAs1 = mAs2 \times (d1^2 / d2^2) . Original setup: mAs1=3mAsatd1=72inchesmAs1 = 3 mAs at d1 = 72 inches . New distance d2=54inchesd2 = 54 inches . What mAs2mAs2 is needed to keep the same OD?

a)

mAs2 equals 2.25 mAs at 54 inches

b)

mAs2 equals 4.00 mAs at 54 inches

c)

mAs2 equals 1.50 mAs at 54 inches

d)

mAs2 equals 3.00 mAs at 54 inches

52.

A patient’s tissue thickness increases by 2 cm compared to your baseline setup. To maintain image density without changing SID, what kVp adjustment should you make?

a)

Double the baseline kVp value

b)

Subtract 4 kVp from baseline

c)

Add 4 kVp to the baseline

d)

Add 2 kVp to the baseline

53.

You angle the central ray 10 degrees caudad while keeping the detector stationary. According to the rule of thumb, what change to SID compensates for the angle?

a)

Decrease SID by 1 inch total

b)

Decrease SID by 2 inches total

c)

Increase SID by 1 inch total

d)

No SID change is required

54.

A radiograph appears underexposed. What minimum mAs change is typically needed to produce a visible change in density?

a)

Double the mAs value

b)

Exactly 50% increase

c)

At least 20–30% change

d)

About 10% mAs increase

55.

Tissue thickness increases by 5 cm. To hold density constant without altering kVp or SID, which mAs adjustment is recommended?

a)

Increase mAs by 10%

b)

Increase mAs by 25%

c)

Either double or half the mAs

d)

Double the mAs value

56.

You must increase SID by 8 inches from 40 inches. Using the maintaining density rule, how should mAs be adjusted?

a)

Increase mAs by 10% total

b)

Increase mAs by 5% per inch

c)

Increase mAs by 20% per inch

d)

Increase mAs by 8% total

57.

A lateral knee protocol calls for a 5-degree tube tilt. What is the practical SID adjustment to preserve exposure geometry?

a)

Decrease SID by 0.5 inch

b)

Decrease SID by 1 inch

c)

Maintain original SID

d)

Increase SID by 1 inch

58.

Which change in kVp most increases subject contrast in a radiographic image?

a)

Increase kVp to produce longer grayscale

b)

Decrease kVp to produce shorter grayscale

c)

Increase kVp with added filtration only

d)

Maintain kVp and decrease mAs slightly

59.

Raising mAs primarily affects which image quality factor?

a)

Subject contrast increase

b)

Optical density increase

c)

Geometric magnification

d)

Spatial resolution increase

60.

What is the expected effect on magnification when SID is increased while OID remains constant?

a)

Magnification decreases

b)

Magnification increases

c)

Magnification unchanged

d)

Edge blur increases

61.

Which combination best reduces motion blur during exposure?

a)

Shorter exposure time with larger focal spot

b)

Longer exposure time with larger focal spot

c)

Shorter exposure time with small focal spot

d)

Longer exposure time with small focal spot

62.

Increasing OID while keeping SID constant will most likely produce which outcome?

a)

Higher contrast with less magnification

b)

Smaller image and sharper edges

c)

Unchanged size and reduced blur

d)

Larger image and increased blur

63.

Compared to a large focal spot, a small focal spot primarily yields which result?

a)

Greater edge blur and lower detail

b)

Sharper image and better detail

c)

Higher patient dose and lower noise

d)

Lower spatial resolution and more magnification

64.

Fast screens in the image receptor system generally cause which change?

a)

Lower noise and higher spatial resolution

b)

Higher detail and more noise

c)

Lower mAs and less detail

d)

Higher mAs and more detail

65.

Which statement correctly describes the grid ratio?

a)

Height of lead strips divided by interspace width

b)

Width of lead strips divided by strip height

c)

Interspace width divided by strip height

d)

Product of strip height and interspace width

66.

Which kVp setting most likely produces a long-scale contrast image?

a)

Lower kVp with shorter grayscale

b)

Lower kVp with longer grayscale

c)

Higher kVp with shorter grayscale

d)

Higher kVp with longer grayscale

67.

During exposure, which factor most directly increases motion blur when the patient moves?

a)

Small focal spot

b)

Long exposure time

c)

Short exposure time

d)

Large SID

68.

Which change in SID tends to improve image sharpness if other factors are held constant?

a)

Shorter SID reduces magnification

b)

Longer SID reduces beam divergence

c)

Longer SID increases magnification

d)

Shorter SID increases beam divergence

69.

Which region of the H&D curve corresponds to underexposure with faint densities?

a)

Shoulder region

b)

Toe region

c)

Straight-line region

d)

Heel region

70.

What does the shoulder region of the H&D characteristic curve indicate?

a)

Linear response with constant gradient

b)

Overexposure with poor contrast

c)

Underexposure with high contrast

d)

Optimal exposures with best detail

71.

The H&H contrast curve re-plots which relationship to visualize contrast changes?

a)

Density versus time

b)

Gradient versus exposure

c)

Exposure versus SID

d)

mAs versus screen speed

72.

Best sharpness is achieved with which combination of geometry and focal spot?

a)

Small OID, long SID, small focal spot

b)

Large OID, short SID, small focal spot

c)

Large OID, long SID, small focal spot

d)

Small OID, short SID, large focal spot

73.

Increasing mAs while keeping kVp constant will most likely produce which visual result on film?

a)

Shorter grayscale with high contrast

b)

More dark or black areas

c)

Longer grayscale with low contrast

d)

Less dark or black areas

74.

Switching from a slow screen to a fast screen typically requires which adjustment to maintain density?

a)

Increase mAs moderately

b)

Decrease mAs moderately

c)

Increase kVp slightly

d)

Decrease SID slightly

75.

Which property is most compromised when a radiograph appears sharp but vessel outlines are obscured by excessive optical density?

a)

Recorded detail

b)

Spatial resolution

c)

Visibility of detail

d)

Geometric sharpness

76.

Which factor would most likely increase base plus fog density, thereby reducing film contrast?

a)

Fresh, properly stored film

b)

Decreased processing temperature

c)

Low developer activity

d)

Excessive safelight exposure

77.

A technologist increases SID from 100 cm to 180 cm while keeping mAs constant. Which effect is expected?

a)

Increased magnification and unsharpness

b)

Decreased magnification and improved sharpness

c)

No effect on geometric detail

d)

Higher density and contrast

78.

A radiograph shows uneven density and localized blurring due to poor physical contact inside the cassette. Which imaging factor was compromised?

a)

Focal spot size

b)

Grid ratio selection

c)

Film–screen contact

d)

Safelight exposure

79.

Using a large focal spot during an extremity x‑ray causes mild image blur. What is the most accurate explanation?

a)

Reduced beam divergence

b)

Decreased subject contrast

c)

Enhanced image magnification

d)

Increased geometric unsharpness

80.

A radiograph made with a fast intensifying screen appears slightly blurred compared to a slow screen. What is the primary cause of this difference?

a)

Fast screens have thicker phosphor layers, increasing light spread

b)

Slow screens convert x‑rays to UV light

c)

Slow screens produce less quantum mottle

d)

Fast screens emit less light per photon

81.

True or False: Increasing kVp always increases radiographic contrast.

a)

Only with grid use

b)

True

c)

False

d)

Only with high mAs

82.

True or False: If kVp increases by 15%, you typically must double the mAs to maintain the same receptor exposure.

a)

Only with slow screens

b)

Only for non‑grid exams

c)

False

d)

True

83.

True or False: Grid ratio is calculated by dividing the height of the lead strips by the width of the interspace material.

a)

Only for focused grids

b)

False

c)

Only for parallel grids

d)

True

84.

True or False: A larger focal spot reduces image detail more than a smaller focal spot.

a)

Only with slow screens

b)

Only at short SID

c)

False

d)

True

85.

If exposure falls in the shoulder region, the image has too much density and low contrast.

a)

Depends on SID

b)

Only with high grid ratio

c)

False

d)

True

86.

Fast screens inherently reduce patient dose because they require more exposure.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only with low mAs

d)

Only at high kVp

87.

Increasing the SID results in increased magnification.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only with OID zero

d)

Only with focused grid

88.

A 15% increase in kVp results in the receptor exposure being halved.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only with mAs raised

d)

Only with filtration

89.

Using a focused grid upside-down causes greater density in the center than the periphery.

a)

Only with high kVp

b)

Only at long SID

c)

False

d)

True

90.

Poor film-screen contact degrades detail even if density and exposure are otherwise correct.

a)

Only with slow screens

b)

Only with high mAs

c)

True

d)

False

91.

Switching from a slower screen to a faster screen always requires reducing mAs.

a)

Only at low kVp

b)

Only for grid exams

c)

False

d)

True

92.

Subject contrast increases when tissues have greater variation in atomic number.

a)

Only with lower SID

b)

Only with added filtration

c)

False

d)

True

93.

If the part is angled relative to the IR while the CR remains perpendicular, shape distortion results.

a)

Only with magnification

b)

False

c)

Only with stationary grid

d)

True

94.

Rare-earth phosphor screens typically emit light that matches film sensitivity better than calcium-tungstate.

a)

Only with fast films

b)

True

c)

False

d)

Only at low temperature

95.

Higher kVp increases the number of low-energy photons in the beam.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only with added grid

d)

Only with long exposure

96.

Grid frequency is unrelated to how thin the lead strips are.

a)

Only with moving grids

b)

Only with high-ratio grids

c)

False

d)

True

97.

Increasing OID reduces unsharpness because the beam diverges less.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only with small focal spot

d)

Only with long SID

98.

The mirror in a collimator adds no filtration to the beam.

a)

False

b)

Only at high kVp

c)

True

d)

Only with old units

99.

A steeper slope in the straight-line portion means lower contrast.

a)

Only with long processing

b)

False

c)

Only with low speed

d)

True

100.

For diagnostic consistency, applying the 15% rule always keeps contrast constant.

a)

Only with grid in use

b)

True

c)

Only with small focal spot

d)

False

101.

Patient motion reduces recorded detail even with an optimal focal spot and exposure.

a)

Only with long SID

b)

Only with high mAs

c)

True

d)

False

102.

Using a grid always doubles contrast improvement, regardless of grid ratio.

a)

Only with slow screens

b)

Only for chest exams

c)

False

d)

True

103.

There is an inverse relationship between screen speed and recorded detail.

a)

Only above 80 kVp

b)

Only with daylight loading

c)

False

d)

True

104.

Rectangular collimation always eliminates the need for a grid because scatter is fully prevented.

a)

Only for extremities

b)

Only at low kVp

c)

False

d)

True

105.

To artificially design an image where soft-tissue attenuation resembles the diffuse opacity of ARDS, which factor would contribute least toward elevating image density?

a)

Raising kVp

b)

Lowering filtration

c)

Increasing mAs

d)

Decreasing SID

106.

Which manipulation would produce the least degradation of recorded detail when attempting to mimic the irregular architecture of Paget’s disease?

a)

Slightly increased OID

b)

Large focal spot

c)

Fast screen speed

d)

Use of high grid ratio

107.

Which factor would be least effective in engineering a high-density radiograph meant to obscure signs of small pneumothorax?

a)

Increasing kVp

b)

Increasing mAs

c)

Reducing SID

d)

Increasing collimation

108.

To intentionally simulate motion patterns similar to myoclonic jerks, which factor is least likely to increase motion blur?

a)

Increased SID

b)

Respiratory drift

c)

Involuntary motion

d)

Longer exposure time

109.

When designing an exposure meant to minimize contrast for a fluid-filled abdomen, which strategy is the least appropriate?

a)

Using large field size

b)

Removing the grid

c)

Raising kVp

d)

Lowering kVp

110.

To construct an image with apparent cortical thinning resembling severe osteopenia, which variable contributes least?

a)

Large focal spot

b)

Lower kVp

c)

Increased OID

d)

Fast IR system

111.

Which factor would be least effective in engineering a high-density radiograph meant to obscure signs of small pneumothorax?

a)

Increasing mAs

b)

Increasing kVp

c)

Reducing SID

d)

Increasing collimation

112.

Which factor would be least effective in engineering a high-density radiograph meant to obscure signs of small pneumothorax?

a)

Increasing kVp

b)

Increasing collimation

c)

Increasing mAs

d)

Reducing SID

113.

Which option contributes least to magnification effects used to exaggerate apparent size changes like splenomegaly?

a)

Elevating OID

b)

Reducing SID

c)

Tilting object relative to IR

d)

Increasing air gap

114.

To simulate physiologic blur resembling ventricular tachycardia, which factor plays the least role?

a)

Short exposure time

b)

Patient respiration

c)

Cardiac motion

d)

Voluntary oscillation

115.

Which manipulation is least consistent with lowering subject contrast to mimic the uniform radiopacity of generalized edema?

a)

Decreasing field size

b)

Removing the grid

c)

Increasing kVp

d)

Increasing scatter

116.

Which selection contributes least toward reducing resolution to imitate blurry trabeculae seen in osteomyelitis?

a)

Large focal spot

b)

Increased SID

c)

Fast screen

d)

Increased OID

117.

Regarding the effect of mAs on density, which is LEAST correct?

a)

mAs strongly alters subject contrast

b)

mAs doubles density when doubled

c)

mAs controls photon quantity

d)

mAs influences IR exposure

118.

With respect to shape distortion, which is LEAST correct?

a)

Tube angulation causes shape distortion

b)

IR-object misalignment causes shape distortion

c)

Object tilt causes shape distortion

d)

Focal spot size causes shape distortion

119.

Concerning involuntary motion, which statement is LEAST correct?

a)

It persists despite instructions

b)

It can be eliminated by immobilization

c)

It includes cardiac motion

d)

It cannot be voluntarily controlled

120.

On scatter radiation, which is LEAST correct?

a)

Grids increase scatter production

b)

Higher kVp increases scatter

c)

Scatter decreases image contrast

d)

Larger field size increases scatter

121.

Regarding recorded detail, which is LEAST correct?

a)

Recorded detail is influenced by kVp

b)

Focal spot size is a key component

c)

It depends on geometric factors

d)

SID influences recorded detail

122.

Which adjustment best increases density while minimizing contrast reduction?

a)

Increase kVp but compensate mAs

b)

Lower filtration

c)

Reduce SID

d)

Increase mAs

123.

Which factor most directly enhances fine detail of calcifications in sarcoidosis?

a)

Minimal OID

b)

Slow screen

c)

High SID

d)

Small focal spot

124.

Which method best minimizes blur from respiratory motion during a chest radiograph?

a)

Short exposure time

b)

Breath-hold instruction

c)

Patient immobilization

d)

Increasing mA to shorten time

125.

Which action can increase radiographic image contrast without changing anatomy or positioning?

a)

Tight collimation

b)

Decreasing kVp

c)

Using a grid

d)

Employing a slower IR system

126.

Why does adding a grid without altering other technical factors often cause the image to become lighter?

a)

Grid absorbs scatter and some primary

b)

Grid removes scatter only

c)

Grid increases SID inadvertently

d)

Higher grid ratio converts scatter

127.

When SID increases, which explanation most accurately describes why the IR receives less radiation if mAs is unchanged?

a)

Photons lose energy leaving tube

b)

Beam spreads over larger area

c)

Automatic exposure reduces mAs

d)

Grid absorbs more useful radiation

128.

Which explanation best describes why a 15% increase in kVp can drastically affect receptor exposure?

a)

More photons, shorter wavelength

b)

kVp increases beam penetration

c)

kVp mainly affects scatter only

d)

Exposure doubles only when mAs changes

129.

Which strategy most directly reduces motion blur from breathing during abdominal imaging?

a)

Use the shortest exposure

b)

Apply compression straps firmly

c)

Coach slow shallow breathing

d)

Raise mA to limit time modestly