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Regional anesthesia complications

Total questions: 21

Worksheet time: 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the recommended first-line treatment for severe cardiovascular collapse due to LAST?

a)

Initiate ACLS and give 1mg epinephrine bolus

b)

Initiate ACLS and start 20% lipid emulsion

c)

Initiate ACLS and give Calcium carbonate to stabilize myocardium

d)

Initiate ACLS and treat ventriculate arrhythmia with Class I antiarrhythmics

2.

Which of the following is typically the earliest sign of local anesthetic systemic toxicity?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Grand-mal seizure

c)

Perioral numbness

d)

New onset leg weakness

3.

When administering lipid emulsion therapy for LAST, which of the following dosing strategies is correct?

a)

1.5 mL/kg bolus followed by 0.25 mL/kg/min infusion

b)

0.5 mL/kg bolus followed by 1 mL/kg/min infusion

c)

3 mL/kg bolus only, no infusion

d)

Continuous infusion at 2 mL/kg/min for 30 minutes, no bolus

4.

Which of the following is the most common early clinical sign of a spinal epidural abscess?

a)

Localized back pain

b)

Fever, back pain, and neurologic deficits

c)

New onset leg weakness

d)

Acute urinary retention

5.

What is the imaging modality of choice when an epidural hematoma is suspected following neuraxial anesthesia?

a)

CT scan of the spine without contrast

b)

CT scan of the spine with contrast

c)

MRI spine

d)

X-ray thoracolumbar spine

6.

Urgent surgical decompression for an epidural hematoma is most effective when performed within what time window after the onset of symptoms?

a)

6 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

48 hours

7.

Which local anesthetic is most strongly associated with the development of transient neurologic symptoms after spinal anesthesia?

a)

Bupivacaine

b)

Ropivacaine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Tetracaine

8.

Which of the following best describes the typical presentation of transient neurologic symptoms?

a)

Persistent lower-extremity weakness beginning within 24 hours after neuraxial block

b)

Urinary retention and saddle anesthesia beginning within 24 hours after neuraxial block

c)

Sharp radicular pain with motor deficits beginning within 24 hours after neuraxial block

d)

Severe back and leg pain beginning within 24 hours after neuraxial block

9.

Which factor increases the risk of developing transient neurologic symptoms following spinal anesthesia?

a)

Combined spinal-epidural technique

b)

The use of intrathecal opioids

c)

The use of intrathecal clonidine

d)

Lithotomy positioning after spinal anesthesia

10.

Which of the following is the earliest sign of high spinal anesthesia?

a)

Severe hypotension with bradycardia

b)

Difficulty breathing or a sense of dyspnea

c)

Loss of consciousness

d)

Arm weakness or numbness

11.

What is the correct equation for Mean Arterial Pressure, which can help to explain the hemodynamic compromise seen following spinal anesthesia?

a)

MAP = CO x SV x SBP

b)

MAP = SVR x HR x AoDP

c)

MAP = SV x HR x SVR

d)

MAP = CO x SVR x AoDP

12.

Which of the following is the initial step in management for a patient with suspected total spinal anesthesia?

a)

Prepare for emergent intubation and vasoactive support

b)

Administer high-dose intralipid infusion

c)

Place the patient upright to reduce cephalad spread

d)

Inject sterile saline into the intrathecal space

13.

Which factor is most strongly associated with an increased risk of peripheral nerve injury after a regional block?

a)

Using peripheral nerve stimulator instead of ultrasound guidance

b)

Performing the block under sedation with fentanyl and versed

c)

Using epinephrine-containing local anesthetic solutions

d)

Using high pressure injection in the absence of paresthesia

14.

Which of the following is the recommended initial management for a patient with suspected nerve injury after a peripheral nerve block?

a)

Neurology consultation and nerve conduction study

b)

High dose perineural dexamethasone injection

c)

Reassurance and proper documentation

d)

Prescribe oral gabapentin

15.

Which of the following is the best initial management for a patient with symptomatic postoperative urinary retention?

a)

Encourage oral hydration

b)

Perform bladder scan and catheterization

c)

Prescribe oral tamsulosin

d)

Observe for 6–8 hours without intervention

16.

Which of the following patient factors is most strongly associated with an increased risk of post–dural puncture headache?

a)

Obesity

b)

Male Sex

c)

Pregnancy

d)

Older age

17.

What is the characteristic feature of a post–dural puncture headache?

a)

Unilateral throbbing pain that worsens with brushing teeth

b)

Bilateral headache relieved when sitting up

c)

Bilateral headache relieved when lying flat

d)

Unilateral headache worsened with bright light

18.

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for PDPH?

a)

IV hydration

b)

IV Ketorolac

c)

Epidural blood patch

d)

Sphenopalentine ganglion block

19.

Tie breaker 1: Andrew's son recently turned 1 year old. His name is...

a)

Henry

b)

William

c)

Graham

d)

Oliver

20.

Tie breaker 2: Andrew's wife, Chloe, recently started as an attending with which NCH group?

a)

Pediatric nephrology

b)

Pediatric critical care

c)

Pediatric emergency medicine

d)

Pediatric cardiology

21.

Tie breaker 3: Andrew is originally from which Kentucky town?

a)

Lexington

b)

Owensboro

c)

Bowling Green

d)

Louisville