WorksheetsPRC-NOTES_3MT_P3
Total questions: 174
Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
It is part of the normal intestinal flora; UTI, and occasionally other infections. They are also often RESISTANT to antimicrobial therapy.
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
2.
Formerly belongs to Escherichia family; associated with Food and fish/water contamination
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
3.
May present gastroenteritis and myonecrosis on wound infections
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
4.
LDC positive Non-lactose fermenter Same IMViC to E. coli: (+,+,-,-) TSI: K/A g+ H2S(+)
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
5.
Which of the following is associated with Shigella-like diarrhea?
a)
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
b)
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
c)
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
6.
Which of the following is associated with Shigella-like toxin?
a)
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
b)
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
c)
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
7.
Which of the following is associated with Cholera-like toxin?
a)
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
b)
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
c)
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
8.
It is typically isolated from the environment and many cold-blooded and warm blooded animals including reptiles, freshwater and aquarium fish, frogs, and turtles.
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
9.
Edwardsiella spp.
a)
Lactose fermenters
b)
Non-lactose fermenter
10.
Escherichia coli
a)
Lactose fermenters
b)
Non-lactose fermenter
11.
Escherichia coli
a)
H2S Positive
b)
H2S Negative
12.
pH indicator of XLD (Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate) agar
a)
Phenol red
b)
Neutral red
c)
Bromcresol purple
d)
Bromothymol blue
13.
Which of the following medium is a SELECTIVE medium for Salmonella spp.?
a)
Selenite F, tetrathionate broth
b)
Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate agar (XLD)
c)
Hektoen Enteric Agar (HEA)
d)
Bismuth Sulfite Agar (BSA)
e)
Salmonella-Shigella Agar
14.
Which of the following medium is a SELECTIVE/DIFFERENTIAL medium for Salmonella spp.that yields BLACK colonies on the aforementioned organism?
a)
Selenite F, tetrathionate broth
b)
Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate agar (XLD)
c)
Hektoen Enteric Agar (HEA)
d)
Bismuth Sulfite Agar (BSA)
e)
Salmonella-Shigella Agar
15.
Edwardsiella spp.
a)
H2S Positive
b)
H2S Negative
16.
Sources of infection of this microorganism include water, milk, dairy products, shellfish from contaminated water, dried or frozen eggs, meat and meat products and household pets.
a)
Providencia spp.
b)
Morganella spp.
c)
Shigella spp.
d)
Salmonella spp.
e)
Edwardsiella spp.
17.
Shigella produces this disease on the intestinal tract of humans and other primates.
a)
Enteritis, systemic infection, and enteric fever
b)
Bacilliary dysentery
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Enterocolitis and/or gastroenteritis
18.
Salmonella cholerasuis is associated with which gastrointestinal disease?
a)
Enteritis, systemic infection, and enteric fever
b)
Bacilliary dysentery
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Enterocolitis and/or gastroenteritis
19.
Most common disease associated with Salmonella spp.
a)
Enteritis, systemic infection, and enteric fever
b)
Bacilliary dysentery
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Enterocolitis and/or gastroenteritis
20.
Typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi is characterized by..
a)
Enteritis, systemic infection, and enteric fever
b)
Bacilliary dysentery
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Enterocolitis and/or gastroenteritis
21.
most important cause
a)
Salmonella paratyphi A
b)
Salmonella paratyphi B
c)
Salmonella cholerasuis
d)
Salmonella typhi
e)
Salmonella typhimurium
22.
Most common manifestation of salmonella infection is caused by.. (outbreak associated with contaminated peanut butter cracker and cereals)
a)
Salmonella paratyphi A
b)
Salmonella paratyphi B
c)
Salmonella cholerasuis
d)
Salmonella typhi
e)
Salmonella typhimurium
23.
Specimen of choice for Salmonella infection in the 1st week
a)
Blood
b)
Stool
c)
Urine
24.
Specimen of choice for Salmonella infection in the 2nd week and third week
a)
Blood
b)
Stool
c)
Urine
25.
Specimen of choice for Salmonella infection in the 3rd week
a)
Blood
b)
Stool
c)
Urine
26.
Shigella dysenteriae
a)
Ornithine decarboxylase positive
b)
Ornithine decarboxylase negative
27.
Shigella flexneri
a)
Ornithine decarboxylase positive
b)
Ornithine decarboxylase negative
28.
Shigella boydii
a)
Ornithine decarboxylase positive
b)
Ornithine decarboxylase negative
29.
Shigella sonnei
a)
Ornithine decarboxylase positive
b)
Ornithine decarboxylase negative
30.
In Widal's test, which antibody that depicts >= 1:160 is indicative that the patient has past infection or immunization?
a)
O
b)
H
31.
Widal's test is characterized as a tube dilution agglutination test wherein at least ___ serum specimens obtained within 7 to 10 days are collected to prove a rise in an antibody titer
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
32.
In Widal's test, which antibody that depicts >= 1:160 is indicative that the patient has active infection in the present?
a)
O
b)
H
33.
Which of the following tests would best differentiate Morganella spp. and Providencia spp.?
a)
Urease
b)
TSI
c)
Ornithine
d)
Indole
34.
Which of the following tests would best differentiate Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris?
a)
Urease
b)
TSI
c)
Ornithine
d)
Indole
35.
Morganella spp.
a)
Urease positive
b)
Urease negative
36.
Providencia spp.
a)
Urease positive
b)
Urease negative
37.
Proteus vulgaris
a)
Urease positive
b)
Urease negative
38.
Proteus mirabilis
a)
Urease positive
b)
Urease negative
39.
Morganella spp.
a)
K/A G H2S (+)
b)
K/A G H2S (-)
c)
A/A G H2S (+)
d)
K/K H2S (-)
40.
Providencia spp.
a)
K/A G H2S (+)
b)
K/A G H2S (-)
c)
A/A G H2S (+)
d)
K/K H2S (-)
41.
Proteus mirabilis
a)
K/A G H2S (+)
b)
K/A G H2S (-)
c)
A/A G H2S (+)
d)
K/K H2S (-)
42.
Proteus vulgaris
a)
K/A G H2S (+)
b)
K/A G H2S (-)
c)
A/A G H2S (+)
d)
K/K H2S (-)
43.
Morganella spp.
a)
Ornithine positive
b)
Ornithine negative
44.
Providencia spp.
a)
Ornithine positive
b)
Ornithine negative
45.
Proteus mirabilis
a)
Ornithine positive
b)
Ornithine negative
46.
Proteus vulgaris
a)
Ornithine positive
b)
Ornithine negative
47.
Morganella spp.
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
48.
Providencia spp.
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
49.
Proteus mirabilis
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
50.
Proteus vulgaris
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
51.
Which of the following shows VARIABLE result in H2S test?
a)
S. chlorerasuis
b)
S. paratyphi
c)
S. typhi
52.
Which of the following shows VARIABLE result in H2S test?
a)
S. chlorerasuis
b)
S. paratyphi
c)
S. typhi
53.
Which of the following shows POSITIVE result in ODC test?
a)
S. chlorerasuis
b)
S. paratyphi
c)
S. typhi
54.
Which test would differentiate S. cholerasuis from S. paratyphi?
a)
H2S
b)
ODC
c)
LDC
55.
Which test would BEST differentiate S. cholerasuis from S. typhi?
a)
H2S
b)
ODC
c)
LDC
56.
Which of the following shows POSITIVE result in LDC test?
a)
S. chlorerasuis
b)
S. paratyphi
c)
S. typhi
57.
S. cholerasuis
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S negative
c)
H2S variable
58.
S. paratyphi
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S negative
c)
H2S variable
59.
S. typhi
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S negative
c)
H2S variable
60.
S. cholerasuis
a)
ODC positive
b)
ODC negative
61.
S. paratyphi
a)
ODC positive
b)
ODC negative
62.
S. typhi
a)
ODC positive
b)
ODC negative
63.
S. cholerasuis
a)
LDC positive
b)
LDC negative
64.
S. paratyphi
a)
LDC positive
b)
LDC negative
65.
S. typhi
a)
LDC positive
b)
LDC negative
66.
Group type is A
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
67.
Most virulent (shiga toxin)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
68.
Pathogenic, common isolate
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
69.
Pathogenic, less incidence
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
70.
Self-limiting, most common isolate
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
71.
Blood in stool
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
72.
Group type is B
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
73.
Group type is C
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
74.
Group type is D
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
75.
M2M sexual contact
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
76.
Dysentery
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
77.
Which of the following is the only CATALASE NEGATIVE (-) in Catalase, ONPG, and Mannitol test otherwise known as (COM)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
78.
Which of the following is the only ONPG POSITIVE (+) in Catalase, ONPG, and Mannitol test otherwise known as (COM)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
79.
Which of the following is the only MANNITOL NEGATIVE (-) in Catalase, ONPG, and Mannitol test otherwise known as (COM)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
80.
Which of the following is the only NEGATIVE (-) spp. in Catalase, ONPG, and Mannitol test otherwise known as (COM)
a)
Shigella dysenteriae
b)
Shigella flexneri
c)
Shigella boydii
d)
Shigella sonnei
81.
Shigella dysenteriae
a)
Catalase positive
b)
Catalase negative
82.
Shigella flexneri
a)
Catalase positive
b)
Catalase negative
83.
Shigella boydii
a)
Catalase positive
b)
Catalase negative
84.
Shigella sonnei
a)
Catalase positive
b)
Catalase negative
85.
Shigella dysenteriae
a)
ONPG positive
b)
ONPG negative
86.
Shigella flexneri
a)
ONPG positive
b)
ONPG negative
87.
Shigella boydii
a)
ONPG positive
b)
ONPG negative
88.
Shigella sonnei
a)
ONPG positive
b)
ONPG negative
89.
Shigella dysenteriae
a)
Mannitol positive
b)
Mannitol negative
90.
Shigella flexneri
a)
Mannitol positive
b)
Mannitol negative
91.
Shigella boydii
a)
Mannitol positive
b)
Mannitol negative
92.
Shigella sonnei
a)
Mannitol positive
b)
Mannitol negative
93.
Which of the following organism is motile?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
94.
Which of the following organism has necrotizing cholecystitis complication?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
95.
Hallmark: rose spots during the second week of fever
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
96.
Which of the following is tested using Widal's test?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
97.
Which of the following organism is H2S NEGATIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
98.
Which of the following organism is LOA NEGATIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
99.
Which of the following organism is Indole POSITIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
100.
Which of the following organism is INVASIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
101.
Which of the following organism is related to Escherichia coli (EHEC)?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
102.
Which of the following organism is nonmotile?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
103.
Which of the following organism is H2S VARIABLE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
104.
Which of the following organism is LOA POSITIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
105.
Which of the following organism is INDOLE NEGATIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
106.
Which of the following organism is NON-INVASIVE?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
107.
Which of the following organism is related to Citrobacter spp.?
a)
Salmonella spp.
b)
Shigella spp.
108.
Salmonella spp.
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S variable
c)
H2S negative
109.
Shigella spp.
a)
H2S positive
b)
H2S variable
c)
H2S negative
110.
Salmonella spp.
a)
K/A (LDC+)
b)
K/A (LDC-)
111.
Shigella spp.
a)
K/A (LDC+)
b)
K/A (LDC-)
112.
Salmonella spp.
a)
LOA positive
b)
LOA negative
113.
Shigella spp.
a)
LOA positive
b)
LOA negative
114.
Salmonella spp.
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
115.
Shigella spp.
a)
Indole positive
b)
Indole negative
116.
Salmonella spp.
a)
Invasive
b)
Non-invasive
117.
Shigella spp.
a)
Invasive
b)
Non-invasive
118.
Salmonella spp. is related to...
a)
Citrobacter spp.
b)
Escherichia coli
119.
Shigella spp. is related to...
a)
Citrobacter spp.
b)
Escherichia coli
120.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a)
Obligate aerobe
b)
Obligate anaerobe
c)
Aerotolerant
d)
Facultative anaerobe
e)
Capnophile
121.
Vibrio spp.
a)
Obligate aerobe
b)
Obligate anaerobe
c)
Aerotolerant
d)
Facultative anaerobe
e)
Capnophile
122.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a)
Motile
b)
Nonmotile
123.
green, sometimes a metallic sheen
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
124.
brick-red. especially at room temperature
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
125.
blue
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
126.
purple
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
127.
brown to black (anaerobic)
a)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Kluyvera spp.
d)
Chromobacterium violaceus
e)
Prevotella melanogenica
128.
OXIDASE POSITIVE
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
129.
Monotrichous
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
130.
Grows well at 37 to 42 degree Celsius
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
131.
Does not ferment carbohydrates
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
132.
Causes glanders disease, a diseases of horses and similar animals transmissible to humans
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
133.
Meliodosis
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
134.
Vietnamese timebomb
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
135.
endemic glander's like disease of animals and humans
a)
Burkholderia mallei
b)
Burkholderia pseudomallei
c)
Vibrio spp.
d)
Pseudomonas aeuginosa
136.
Caused by Burkholderia mallei
a)
Glander's disease
b)
Cholera
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Meliodosis
137.
Caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
a)
Glander's disease
b)
Cholera
c)
Bacteremia
d)
Meliodosis
138.
What pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa gives it a blue-green color?
a)
Pyocyanin
b)
Pyoverdin
c)
Prodigiosin
139.
What pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is responsible for its green fluorescence?
a)
Pyocyanin
b)
Pyoverdin
c)
Prodigiosin
140.
red pigment
a)
Pyocyanin
b)
Pyoverdin
c)
Prodigiosin
141.
Vibrio spp.
a)
Peritrichous
b)
Monotrichous
c)
Petrichous
d)
Atrichous
142.
rice watery stool
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
143.
cultured on APW and TCBS
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
144.
string test (+)
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
145.
reayemt ised is 0.5% sodium deoxycholate
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
146.
clinical significance include wound and ear infections
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
147.
Otitis, wound infection, gastroenteritis
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
148.
clinical significance include gastroenteritis, usually, assoicated with contaminated seafood
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
149.
Summer diarrhea, B-hemolysis in Wagatsuma agar
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
150.
sucrose fermentation negative
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
151.
Vibrio alginolyticus
a)
sucrose positive
b)
sucrose negative
152.
Vibrio vulnificus
a)
sucrose positive
b)
sucrose negative
153.
Vibrio mimicus
a)
sucrose positive
b)
sucrose negative
154.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
a)
sucrose positive
b)
sucrose negative
155.
gastroenteritis and ear infections associated with marine environment
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
156.
septicemia and wound infections involving marine environment, lactose +
a)
Vibrio cholerae
b)
Vibrio alginolyticus
c)
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
d)
Vibrio mimicus
e)
Vibrio vulnificus
157.
non-halophilic
a)
V. mimicus
b)
V. cholerae
c)
V. parahaemolyticus
d)
V. vulnificus
158.
Red cell hemolysis: classical
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
159.
VP: classical
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
160.
Agglutination with chicken RBCs: classical
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
161.
Agglutination with chicken RBCs: El tor
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
162.
VP: El tor
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
163.
Red cell hemolysis: El tor
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
164.
Classical: Polymyxin B
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
165.
El Tor: Polymyxin B
a)
Susceptible
b)
Resistant
166.
Common in india
a)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Ogawa
b)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Inaba
c)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Hikojima
167.
Common in Philippines
a)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Ogawa
b)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Inaba
c)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Hikojima
168.
Common in Japan
a)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Ogawa
b)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Inaba
c)
Vibrio cholerae serotype Hikojima
169.
S. enterica subsp. enterica
a)
I
b)
II
c)
IIIA
d)
IIIB
170.
S. enterica subsp. salamae
a)
I
b)
II
c)
IIIA
d)
IIIB
171.
S. enterica subsp. arizonae
a)
I
b)
II
c)
IIIA
d)
IIIB
172.
S. enterica subsp. diarizonae
a)
I
b)
II
c)
IIIA
d)
IIIB
173.
S. enterica subsp. houtenae
a)
IV
b)
VI
174.
S. enterica subsp. indica
a)
IV
b)
VI
100 %
