wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Prioritizing Traffic, Bandwidth, Congestion, Delay, and Jitter

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best explains why devices queue packets during high traffic volumes?

a)

To store packets until bandwidth becomes available

b)

To prevent headers from being encapsulated correctly

c)

To increase jitter for real‑time applications

d)

To ensure low priority traffic always transmits first

2.

What immediate effect does packet queuing have on new incoming packets?

a)

It causes additional delay before transmission

b)

It increases available bandwidth on the link

c)

It reduces serialization time on the wire

d)

It eliminates propagation delay across the path

3.

When a device's memory fills due to excessive queued packets, what occurs?

a)

Packets are dropped by the device

b)

Packets are re‑prioritized to high queue

c)

Bandwidth is automatically increased

d)

Jitter is removed from the stream

4.

Which QoS technique helps manage congestion by separating traffic types?

a)

Classification into multiple queues

b)

Random header compression

c)

Automatic speed matching

d)

Propagation path rerouting

5.

Network bandwidth is measured in what unit?

a)

Frames per minute on a port

b)

Bytes per day across networks

c)

Bits per second on a link

d)

Packets per hour through routers

6.

Which situation typically creates a congestion point requiring QoS?

a)

Absence of delay across the path

b)

Idle memory with no queued packets

c)

Use of identical speed on both ends

d)

Aggregation of many flows into one interface

7.

In a speed mismatch, which description fits the cause of delay?

a)

No traffic on either interface

b)

Equal speeds on both interfaces

c)

Slower interface sending to faster interface

d)

Faster interface sending to slower interface

8.

Which statement correctly defines jitter in networking?

a)

Fixed time to encapsulate headers

b)

Total time a bit stays on media

c)

Amount of data sent per second

d)

Variation in packet delay over time

9.

Which delay type is fixed and occurs when placing a frame onto the wire?

a)

De‑jitter delay at the buffer

b)

Queuing delay within a device

c)

Serialization delay on the interface

d)

Propagation delay across the path

10.

Which delay type varies because packets wait before transmission on a link?

a)

De‑jitter delay at evenly spaced send

b)

Packetization delay at encapsulation

c)

Code delay at compression

d)

Queuing delay during congestion

11.

A LAN to WAN connection often causes congestion because:

a)

WAN rate is always higher than LAN rate

b)

No aggregation occurs on the WAN

c)

Both sides operate at identical speeds

d)

Higher LAN rate feeds lower WAN rate

12.

Which process adds headers to create a transmittable packet and has fixed delay?

a)

Packetization at the source device

b)

Propagation across the medium

c)

Queuing within memory buffers

d)

Aggregation across multiple links

13.

Which statement best describes packet loss impact on time-sensitive traffic like VoIP?

a)

It improves throughput by reducing congestion

b)

It has minimal effect on perceived audio quality

c)

It causes dropouts and degraded real-time streams

d)

It only affects non–time-sensitive bulk data

14.

In VoIP using RTP, what role does a playout delay buffer primarily serve?

a)

Encrypts audio frames for secure transport

b)

Compensates for jitter by smoothing playback

c)

Reorders packets to prioritize data traffic

d)

Amplifies audio to counteract low volume

15.

Which component can interpolate missing audio when a small number of packets are lost?

a)

Simple Network Management Protocol

b)

Routing table processor

c)

Digital Signal Processor (DSP)

d)

Network Interface Controller

16.

A VoIP call experiences excessive jitter beyond buffer range. What outcome is most likely?

a)

DSP fully reconstructs perfect audio

b)

Out-of-range packets are discarded causing dropouts

c)

Packets are delayed but all still audible

d)

RTP retransmits all lost voice packets

17.

Which protocol carries the digital audio stream in typical VoIP implementations?

a)

Internet Control Message Protocol

b)

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

c)

Real-Time Protocol (RTP)

d)

Transmission Control Protocol

18.

Why should a properly designed network aim for near-zero packet loss for real-time traffic?

a)

Loss increases compression efficiency

b)

Loss undermines intelligibility and continuity

c)

Loss reduces jitter within buffers

d)

Loss improves DSP interpolation accuracy

19.

You are tuning a playout delay buffer for a VoIP gateway. Which change is most appropriate to mitigate moderate jitter without increasing latency excessively?

a)

Disable buffering entirely for immediate playback

b)

Set a small, fixed buffer to smooth timing

c)

Increase packet retransmission attempts

d)

Use very large buffer to hold many seconds

20.

A user reports brief audio glitches during calls. Network metrics show occasional single-packet losses with normal jitter. What is the most plausible reason audio remains mostly clear?

a)

RTP automatically fills missing data

b)

DSP interpolation masks tiny losses

c)

TCP retransmits voice frames instantly

d)

QoS drops voice in favor of data

21.

Which statement best describes early 2000s IP traffic behavior for data versus voice?

a)

Voice had predictable bandwidth and arrival times

b)

Voice was non–real-time and bursty downloads

c)

Data had predictable bandwidth and arrival times

d)

Data always consumed constant link bandwidth

22.

Which protocol range is commonly used to carry prioritized voice streams?

a)

RTP UDP ports 16384 to 32767

b)

TCP ports 80 to 443 for RTP

c)

RTP UDP ports 1024 to 2048

d)

SIP TCP ports 5060 to 5070

23.

What is the maximum one-way latency generally tolerable for voice without noticeable effects?

a)

150 milliseconds maximum latency

b)

300 milliseconds maximum latency

c)

50 milliseconds maximum latency

d)

200 milliseconds maximum latency

24.

Voice jitter tolerance is typically set to which threshold?

a)

No more than 10 milliseconds jitter

b)

No more than 90 milliseconds jitter

c)

No more than 30 milliseconds jitter

d)

No more than 60 milliseconds jitter

25.

What packet loss rate is generally acceptable for voice traffic?

a)

Up to 10 percent loss

b)

Exactly 0 percent loss

c)

No more than 5 percent loss

d)

No more than 1 percent loss

26.

Which statement about data traffic is accurate for QoS planning?

a)

It is not real-time and bandwidth is unpredictable

b)

It always has known packet arrival times

c)

It never bursts during large file transfers

d)

It is real-time with fixed bandwidth needs

27.

A network link is congested when a large video file download bursts. Which QoS implication is most relevant?

a)

RTP port range automatically limits throughput

b)

Bursty data can consume entire link bandwidth

c)

Voice calls will increase predictable bandwidth

d)

Packet loss tolerance for voice increases

28.

What minimum bandwidth should be provisioned per voice call under typical codecs?

a)

At least 256 Kbps one way

b)

At least 5 Kbps one way

c)

At least 10 Kbps one way

d)

At least 30 Kbps one way

29.

Which protocol and port are commonly used for real-time video streaming and should be prioritized?

a)

FTP over TCP port 21

b)

RTP over TCP port 23

c)

HTTP over TCP port 80

d)

RTSP over UDP port 554

30.

What is an acceptable one-way latency range for video traffic?

a)

200 to 400 ms

b)

10 to 20 ms

c)

600 to 800 ms

d)

1 to 2 seconds

31.

Which statement best describes video traffic behavior?

a)

Predictable and smooth

b)

Stable and lossless

c)

Unpredictable and bursty

d)

Constant and uniform

32.

What is the recommended maximum jitter for video traffic?

a)

5 ms

b)

150 ms

c)

250 ms

d)

50 ms

33.

What is the recommended maximum packet loss for video traffic?

a)

Up to 1 percent

b)

Zero percent exactly

c)

Up to 10 percent

d)

Around 5 percent

34.

What minimum bandwidth might video traffic require?

a)

At least 384 Kbps

b)

At least 10 Kbps

c)

At least 64 Kbps

d)

At least 1 Mbps

35.

Which transport protocol helps data applications recover from packet loss by retransmitting?

a)

ICMP echo replies

b)

SCTP heartbeat

c)

UDP with multicast

d)

TCP with retransmits

36.

Which description fits typical network control data traffic?

a)

Greedy and lossy

b)

Random and jittery

c)

Highly bursty always

d)

Smooth and predictable

37.

Why can FTP downloads impact QoS for other traffic?

a)

They consume as much bandwidth as available

b)

They disable TCP congestion control

c)

They convert UDP to TCP midstream

d)

They reduce packet sizes significantly

38.

For mission-critical interactive data applications, which QoS goal is most appropriate?

a)

Prioritize lowest delay, 1–2 second response

b)

Restrict retransmits, disable TCP ACKs

c)

Prioritize highest bandwidth, 10–20 Mbps

d)

Allow variable delay, 5–10 seconds

39.

How should non-mission-critical, non-interactive data be treated when allocating bandwidth?

a)

Requires fixed latency under 50 ms

b)

Demands jitter below 5 ms

c)

Gets leftover bandwidth after other needs

d)

Receives strict priority over voice and video

40.

Compared to voice and video, how is data traffic generally affected by drops and delays?

a)

Sensitive only to jitter

b)

Unable to tolerate any delay

c)

Extremely sensitive to both

d)

Relatively insensitive to both

41.

When does a QoS queuing policy typically become active on a network link?

a)

During normal low utilization periods

b)

After routing table convergence completes

c)

When congestion is detected on the link

d)

Only when packets are encrypted

42.

Which action is part of congestion management in QoS queuing?

a)

Disabling interface counters

b)

Increasing cable bandwidth

c)

Packet buffering and prioritization

d)

Random packet generation

43.

Which statement best describes the FIFO queuing algorithm?

a)

Packets leave based on assigned weights

b)

Packets are reordered by application type

c)

Packets depart in strict arrival order

d)

Packets are grouped by traffic classes

44.

In FIFO, how many queues are used for packet handling on an interface?

a)

Separate queues per protocol

b)

A single shared queue

c)

Multiple class-based queues

d)

Two priority queues

45.

A link using FIFO receives voice, video, and data packets simultaneously. Which outcome should you expect?

a)

All packets are treated exactly the same

b)

Traffic is split into per-class queues

c)

Voice bypasses others due to priority

d)

Video is weighted higher than data

46.

A network administrator wants delay-sensitive packets to be transmitted ahead of bulk data during congestion. Which approach aligns with this goal?

a)

Disable packet buffering entirely

b)

Rely on link-state routing updates

c)

Use a queuing method with priorities

d)

Enable FIFO queuing on the interface

47.

A burst of packets arrives at an ingress interface configured for FIFO, exceeding egress capacity. What will the device do next?

a)

Buffer packets in one queue then forward in order

b)

Reorder packets by application importance

c)

Drop all packets until congestion clears

d)

Allocate multiple priority queues for classes

48.

Which statement best describes Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) in routers?

a)

Automated scheduling providing fair bandwidth to flows

b)

Load-balancing across multiple physical interfaces

c)

Static priority queuing favoring highest priority only

d)

Simple FIFO forwarding without traffic classification

49.

WFQ classifies traffic into flows primarily using which set of identifiers?

a)

User login, application window, GUI theme

b)

Link speed, interface duplex, cable length, CRC

c)

Hostname, VLAN name, DNS record, NTP time

d)

IP addresses, MAC addresses, ports, protocol, ToS

50.

Which limitation prevents WFQ from operating when certain features are enabled?

a)

Fragmentation disables scheduler algorithms entirely

b)

NAT always removes port information completely

c)

QoS marking increases header size excessively

d)

Tunneling and encryption obscure packet fields

51.

In WFQ, what is the role of weights applied to identified traffic?

a)

Determine relative bandwidth each flow receives

b)

Select shortest-path routing metrics for packets

c)

Choose which packets are dropped during congestion

d)

Encrypt headers to protect classification data

52.

Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ) extends WFQ to support what capability?

a)

Automatic VLAN creation for different applications

b)

Hardware offload of all queuing operations

c)

User-defined traffic classes with reserved queues

d)

Real-time routing changes based on congestion

53.

In CBWFQ, which configuration element defines traffic membership in a class?

a)

Match criteria such as protocols and ACLs

b)

Interface clock rate and duplex settings

c)

User passwords and authentication tokens

d)

Routing protocol administrative distances

54.

What guarantee does the bandwidth assigned to a CBWFQ class provide during congestion?

a)

Highest priority over all other traffic

b)

Zero packet loss regardless of queue size

c)

Minimum assured bandwidth for that class

d)

Instant delivery bypassing the scheduler

55.

Which statement about queues in CBWFQ is accurate?

a)

Each class has a reserved FIFO queue

b)

All classes share one global priority queue

c)

Queues only exist on ingress interfaces

d)

Queue limits are ignored during congestion

56.

In Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing, what happens when a class queue reaches its configured limit?

a)

Traffic is rate-limited across all classes

b)

Oldest packets are moved to a priority queue

c)

New packets at the tail are dropped from that queue

d)

Packets at the head are requeued to other classes

57.

Which statement best describes tail drop in queuing systems?

a)

Drops packets after a time-to-live expires

b)

Drops packets arriving at the full queue tail

c)

Drops only low-priority class packets

d)

Drops random packets across all queues

58.

What is the default queuing response to congestion in CBWFQ without additional features?

a)

Random Early Detection behavior

b)

Tail drop treating all traffic equally

c)

Weighted round robin with shaping

d)

Strict priority scheduling for voice

59.

Low Latency Queuing introduces which capability to CBWFQ?

a)

Automatic voice codec optimization

b)

Strict priority queuing for delay-sensitive traffic

c)

Per-class bandwidth guarantees only

d)

Packet reordering to minimize jitter

60.

Under LLQ, how are delay-sensitive packets like voice handled relative to other queues?

a)

Sent first before packets in other queues

b)

Sent only when the network is idle

c)

Sent with lower weight to reduce latency

d)

Sent after best-effort traffic by default

61.

Why does Cisco recommend directing only voice traffic to the priority queue in LLQ?

a)

To avoid exceeding interface MTU

b)

To prevent starvation of CBWFQ classes

c)

To increase packetization interval for data

d)

To maintain equal treatment of all traffic

62.

A link uses CBWFQ with LLQ for voice and three data classes. During congestion, which outcome is most accurate?

a)

Voice packets depart ahead of data packets

b)

WFQ merges priority and data into one queue

c)

Tail drop never occurs on full queues

d)

Data class 1 always starves other classes

63.

You observe rising drops on a specific CBWFQ class during peak hours. Which action aligns with queuing principles before enabling LLQ?

a)

Decrease interface MTU to shrink packet size

b)

Increase the class queue limit to reduce tail drop

c)

Enable strict PQ for all application classes

d)

Disable WFQ to prioritize that class

64.

Which statement best distinguishes IntServ from DiffServ in QoS design?

a)

IntServ offers highest guarantees but poor scalability

b)

IntServ uses traffic classes for flexible scalability

c)

DiffServ guarantees delivery with strict resource reservations

d)

DiffServ requires per-flow signaling and bandwidth reservation

65.

In the best-effort model, how are different packet types treated?

a)

Video packets are reordered to arrive sequentially

b)

Voice packets receive strict priority over email

c)

All packets are treated the same without preference

d)

Critical data is guaranteed fastest delivery path

66.

Which situation most appropriately uses the best-effort model?

a)

When QoS is not required for general internet traffic

b)

When per-flow reservations are needed for SLA compliance

c)

When guaranteed delivery is essential for telemedicine

d)

When network devices must enforce multiple traffic classes

67.

What is a key drawback of the best-effort model?

a)

Limits scalability due to reservations

b)

Requires complex QoS mechanisms

c)

Creates preferential queues for critical traffic

d)

No guarantees of delivery or order

68.

Which benefit is associated with the best-effort model?

a)

Ensures preferential treatment for voice

b)

Offers per-flow bandwidth reservation

c)

Provides guaranteed packet delivery

d)

Most scalable and quick to deploy

69.

Why can IntServ severely limit network scalability?

a)

It defines per-flow signaling and bandwidth reservations

b)

It treats all traffic equally without QoS mechanisms

c)

It relies on traffic classes with flexible policies

d)

It removes delivery guarantees during congestion

70.

A company wants different QoS levels for voice, video, and data without per-flow reservations. Which model fits?

a)

Circuit switching with fixed paths

b)

DiffServ using traffic classes

c)

IntServ with strict guarantees

d)

Best-effort without configuration

71.

When bandwidth is constrained under best-effort, what happens to traffic flows?

a)

All traffic is equally affected without preference

b)

Priority flows are protected by reserved bandwidth

c)

Critical traffic is queued ahead of casual emails

d)

Packets are dropped only from non-real-time flows

72.

Which statement best describes the goal of the Integrated Services (IntServ) model?

a)

Prioritize traffic using simple queuing

b)

Provide per-flow end-to-end QoS guarantees

c)

Aggregate flows for class-based treatment

d)

Offer best-effort service for all traffic

73.

What protocol IntServ relies on to signal QoS requirements along the path?

a)

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

b)

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

c)

Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)

d)

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

74.

In IntServ, what is the role of admission control at the edge router?

a)

Balance load across multiple links

b)

Encrypt data for secure transmission

c)

Translate private addresses to public

d)

Verify resources before allowing a flow

75.

Which feature reflects IntServ’s connection-oriented approach?

a)

Classes share bandwidth dynamically

b)

Applications send without prior signaling

c)

Routers forward packets statelessly

d)

Each flow specifies a traffic descriptor

76.

An application using IntServ shares its traffic profile before sending data. What is the immediate purpose of this step?

a)

Discover DNS server addresses

b)

Negotiate encryption algorithms

c)

Select a shortest routing path

d)

Request a specific kind of service

77.

Which is a documented benefit of IntServ?

a)

Minimal overhead in core routers

b)

Scales easily to the global internet

c)

No need for continuous signaling

d)

Per-request policy admission control

78.

Which is a known drawback of the IntServ model?

a)

Uses class-based treatment without microflows

b)

Lacks mechanisms for traffic reservation

c)

Resource intensive due to stateful signaling

d)

Requires only edge devices to be QoS-aware

79.

If any device along the path cannot reserve necessary bandwidth for IntServ, what should the originating application do?

a)

Switch to best-effort routing

b)

Send at reduced priority

c)

Do not send any data

d)

Retry with larger packet sizes

80.

Which statement best characterizes the DiffServ QoS model?

a)

Implements scalable hop-by-hop traffic treatment

b)

Uses per-flow signaling like RSVP for each session

c)

Provides strict end-to-end guarantees across paths

d)

Relies on hosts to enforce packet scheduling policies

81.

In DiffServ, how is traffic typically handled by network devices?

a)

Individually processed per unique flow identifier

b)

Aggregated into classes with class-based policies

c)

Queued randomly to avoid congestion globally

d)

Encrypted at each hop to maintain service quality

82.

Which is a primary benefit of DiffServ in large networks?

a)

Automatic end-host enforcement of QoS rules

b)

Absolute guarantees for packet delivery times

c)

Highly scalable class-based QoS mechanisms

d)

Elimination of all congestion under peak load

83.

Which drawback is inherent to DiffServ?

a)

Prohibits multiple service levels across classes

b)

Demands encryption for every traffic class

c)

No absolute guarantee of service quality end-to-end

d)

Requires centralized controller for all routers

84.

A company groups voice, video, and bulk data into traffic aggregates. Under DiffServ, what happens as packets traverse the network?

a)

Packets are tunneled to preserve original priorities

b)

Flows are split to ensure per-flow reservation

c)

Hosts reclassify packets at every hop for precision

d)

Each device identifies the class and services accordingly

85.

Which scenario best applies hop-by-hop QoS in DiffServ?

a)

An edge router sets DS fields, core routers apply PHB

b)

A controller assigns per-flow queues for every host

c)

Endpoints negotiate bandwidth with RSVP end-to-end

d)

Switches ignore classes and forward best-effort only

86.

To meet business requirements, DiffServ divides traffic into classes. What is the implication for service levels?

a)

Classes are temporary and change every packet hop

b)

Each class can be assigned a distinct level of service

c)

All classes receive identical treatment network-wide

d)

Service levels depend solely on end-host configuration

87.

You must choose a QoS model for a multi-domain network without tight coordination. Why might DiffServ be appropriate?

a)

It scales by applying class-based policies per hop

b)

It enforces strict end-to-end SLAs across domains

c)

It requires per-flow signaling between all routers

d)

It guarantees zero packet loss under congestion