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Imaging I: Scatter Radiation Review

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which interaction is the primary source of scatter radiation in diagnostic imaging?

a)

Photoelectric absorption in soft tissue

b)

Pair production in dense bone

c)

Compton interaction with outer-shell electrons

d)

Coherent scattering at low photon energy

2.

Increasing kVp typically has what effect on scatter production?

a)

Lower kVp greatly reduces scatter

b)

Higher kVp generally increases scatter

c)

kVp has no impact on scatter

d)

Higher kVp eliminates Compton events

3.

Why does thicker or denser tissue produce more scatter?

a)

Electrons are tightly bound preventing scatter

b)

More atoms provide more interaction opportunities

c)

Fewer atoms create fewer interactions

d)

Shorter path length limits collisions

4.

How does scatter radiation affect image contrast on the receptor?

a)

Has no noticeable effect on contrast

b)

Reduces contrast making images look gray

c)

Creates high-contrast black-and-white appearance

d)

Improves edge visibility and sharpness

5.

What consequence can scatter have on patient dose during imaging?

a)

Eliminates dose by absorbing all photons

b)

Increases dose if technique is raised to compensate

c)

Decreases dose due to fewer photons

d)

Keeps dose unchanged regardless of technique

6.

At higher photon energies, why do Compton interactions become more likely than photoelectric absorption?

a)

Tissue density drops at high energy

b)

Receptor sensitivity masks photoelectric

c)

Outer-shell electrons bind more tightly

d)

Photon energy favors Compton over photoelectric

7.

Which statement best describes how longer photon path lengths influence scatter?

a)

They convert scatter into primary radiation

b)

They have no effect on scatter production

c)

They increase scatter by enabling more interactions

d)

They reduce scatter by shortening travel

8.

Which method primarily narrows the x‑ray beam to reduce scatter by decreasing field size?

a)

Air‑gap technique increasing distance

b)

Aperture diaphragms with fixed opening

c)

Lead shielding around sensitive tissues

d)

Collimation using adjustable shutters

9.

Cones or cylinders are used mainly to accomplish which outcome?

a)

Prevent scatter from reaching sensitive tissues

b)

Remove low‑energy photons from the beam

c)

Reduce off‑focus radiation and scatter

d)

Limit beam size to reduce total scatter

10.

What best describes the function of an aperture diaphragm?

a)

Increased distance between patient and IR

b)

Adjustable shutters narrowing field size

c)

Lead shield blocking scatter to organs

d)

Metal plate with fixed opening limiting beam

11.

Filtration primarily reduces which component to lower dose and scatter?

a)

Backscatter from the image receptor

b)

Off‑focus radiation outside light field

c)

Low‑energy photons contributing to dose

d)

High‑energy photons increasing penetration

12.

Shielding helps reduce patient risk by doing what?

a)

Restricting the beam to area of interest

b)

Preventing scatter from reaching tissues

c)

Allowing scatter to diverge from IR

d)

Hardening the beam to reduce scatter

13.

The air‑gap technique improves image contrast mainly because it:

a)

Blocks scatter using lead shielding

b)

Increases distance so scatter misses IR

c)

Removes low‑energy photons via filtration

d)

Narrows the beam with adjustable shutters

14.

Decreasing field size during collimation generally leads to:

a)

Less tissue exposed and less scatter

b)

More tissue exposed and more scatter

c)

Higher kVp and increased Compton

d)

Harder beam with more penetration

15.

Which pair correctly matches method to primary effect on scatter?

a)

Cones—remove low‑energy photons from the beam

b)

Air‑gap—increases distance so scatter diverges

c)

Shielding—narrows field to the anatomy of interest

d)

Filtration—blocks scatter at the patient surface

16.

Which statement best defines collimation in radiography?

a)

Filtering low-energy photons from the beam

b)

Increasing kVp to penetrate thicker anatomy

c)

Restricting the x-ray beam using shutters

d)

Expanding field size for full body imaging

17.

What is the effect of decreasing field size on image contrast?

a)

Contrast fluctuates with patient position

b)

Contrast remains unchanged overall

c)

Contrast increases due to less scatter

d)

Contrast decreases due to more scatter

18.

How does increasing field size influence patient dose?

a)

Dose decreases because fewer interactions

b)

Dose decreases when filtration is added

c)

Dose increases because more tissue exposed

d)

Dose stays the same with proper shielding

19.

Why does tighter collimation often require increasing mAs?

a)

It reduces beam intensity reaching the IR

b)

It raises kVp and reduces attenuation

c)

It widens field size to include more tissue

d)

It shortens exposure time automatically

20.

A technologist halves the field size for a knee exam. What change in mAs is typically needed to maintain receptor exposure?

a)

Double mAs and kVp together

b)

Increase mAs by 30–50 percent

c)

Keep mAs exactly the same

d)

Decrease mAs by 30–50 percent

21.

Which sequence correctly describes the chain when field size is increased?

a)

Less tissue exposed → less scatter → higher contrast

b)

More tissue exposed → more scatter → lower contrast

c)

Less tissue exposed → more scatter → higher contrast

d)

More tissue exposed → less scatter → higher contrast

22.

Which device primarily limits beam size to reduce off-focus radiation?

a)

Lead shielding placed on patient

b)

Filtration using aluminum inserts

c)

Cones or cylinders positioned at tube

d)

Aperture diaphragm with fixed opening

23.

What is the primary function of a radiographic grid?

a)

Amplify primary beam intensity reaching the IR

b)

Focus the x-ray beam to a smaller field size

c)

Convert scattered photons into useful signal

d)

Absorb scatter before it reaches the image receptor

24.

Which materials typically compose a radiographic grid?

a)

Aluminum plates with steel spacers

b)

Lead strips with radiolucent interspaces

c)

Lead and radiopaque copper spacers

d)

Tungsten plates with carbon fiber gaps

25.

How do grids remove scatter from the x-ray beam?

a)

By bending scattered photons back to the detector

b)

By only allowing straight-line photons to pass

c)

By amplifying low-energy scattered radiation

d)

By redirecting angled photons toward the IR

26.

A grid with a ratio of 12:1 compared to 5:1 will most likely:

a)

Provide less scatter cleanup with lower mAs needed

b)

Provide better scatter cleanup but require more technique

c)

Provide better cleanup with reduced patient dose

d)

Provide equal scatter cleanup with identical exposure

27.

What is the effect of higher grid frequency on image quality?

a)

More strips per inch yields markedly higher cleanup

b)

Fewer strips per inch yields more scatter removal

c)

More strips per inch yields a smoother image

d)

Higher frequency always decreases image contrast

28.

When should a grid be used during radiographic imaging?

a)

When magnification is desired over contrast

b)

When part thickness is under 5 cm

c)

When kVp is below 50 and scatter is minimal

d)

When body part exceeds 10 cm or kVp is 60–70

29.

Using a grid affects exposure settings by typically requiring:

a)

Unchanged mAs because only scatter is removed

b)

Higher mAs because grids absorb some primary beam

c)

Lower mAs due to increased beam intensity

d)

Lower kVp to compensate for grid frequency

30.

What is the trade-off when using a grid regarding patient dose and image contrast?

a)

Lower dose with slightly reduced contrast

b)

Higher dose with improved image contrast

c)

Lower dose with markedly improved contrast

d)

Equal dose with unchanged image contrast

31.

Which statement best describes linear grids?

a)

Lead strips run randomly to absorb more scatter

b)

Lead strips form a focused pattern disallowing angling

c)

Lead strips run in one direction allowing CR angling

d)

Lead strips run in two perpendicular directions

32.

Which feature best defines a linear grid in radiography?

a)

Lead strips run in one direction

b)

Lead strips intersect at right angles

c)

Lead strips angled to beam divergence

d)

Lead strips straight with no angling

33.

What is a key limitation of cross-hatched grids?

a)

Require higher kVp settings

b)

Do not allow tube angling

c)

Cannot be used at long SIDs

d)

Produce excessive blur of grid lines

34.

Focused grids are designed with lead strips that:

a)

Are stationary during exposure

b)

Intersect to increase scatter cleanup

c)

Are angled to match beam divergence

d)

Run parallel to the IR edges

35.

Non-focused (parallel) grids are most likely to cause grid cutoff when:

a)

Using a moving bucky during exposure

b)

Angling the tube within the SID range

c)

Using high grid ratios and low kVp

d)

Using short SIDs or large field sizes

36.

Which statement best distinguishes stationary from moving (bucky) grids?

a)

Moving grids cannot be used in tables

b)

Moving grids show visible grid lines

c)

Stationary grids blur grid lines

d)

Stationary grids do not move during exposure

37.

In a moving/bucky grid, the primary purpose of movement during exposure is to:

a)

Allow tube angling

b)

Match beam divergence

c)

Increase scatter production

d)

Blur visible grid lines

38.

Which orientation describes a long-dimension grid relative to the image receptor?

a)

Strips run across the short axis

b)

Strips run along the long axis

c)

Strips intersect at ninety degrees

d)

Strips angled to match divergence

39.

Short-dimension grids are particularly helpful for which scenario?

a)

Cross-table lateral projections

b)

Mobile AP abdomen studies

c)

High kVp chest imaging

d)

Long SID extremity imaging

40.

Which visual sign best indicates an off-level grid error during an exposure?

a)

Severe cutoff on both edges only

b)

Uniform grid cutoff across the image

c)

Cutoff more pronounced on one side

d)

Loss of exposure at image edges

41.

A radiograph shows more cutoff on the left side while the right side appears relatively normal. What grid error is most likely?

a)

Off-center alignment to the grid

b)

Off-level tilt of the grid

c)

Moiré interference pattern

d)

Upside-down focused grid

42.

Using a focused grid at the wrong SID most commonly produces which appearance?

a)

Loss of exposure on edges, center okay

b)

Uniform cutoff across the image

c)

Severe cutoff on both edges, center exposed

d)

Wavy zebra-like banding pattern

43.

Placing a focused grid backwards during imaging typically results in what outcome?

a)

Loss of exposure limited to edges

b)

Uniform grid cutoff across the image

c)

Subtle one-sided cutoff gradient

d)

Severe cutoff on both edges, center exposed

44.

A wavy, zebra-like pattern appears when using a stationary grid with digital image receptors. What is the underlying issue?

a)

Grid or tube is tilted relative

b)

Wrong SID for a focused grid

c)

Tube not centered to the grid

d)

Grid frequency is too low for sampling

45.

Which scenario best distinguishes off-level from off-center grid errors?

a)

Off-level shows edge loss; off-center shows uniform cutoff

b)

Off-level shows wavy bands; off-center shows edge loss

c)

Off-level shows uniform cutoff; off-center shows one-sided cutoff

d)

Off-level shows severe edge cutoff; off-center shows center-only exposure

46.

Which scenario most clearly indicates using a grid to improve image contrast?

a)

Portable chest at sixty kVp with small field

b)

Part thickness greater than ten centimeters

c)

Extremity imaging at low kVp settings

d)

Pediatric abdomen using minimal exposure

47.

A technologist observes uniform grid cutoff across the entire image. Which grid error best matches this presentation?

a)

Off-center with tube not aligned

b)

Off-level due to tilted grid or tube

c)

Off-focus with wrong SID used

d)

Upside-down focused grid placed

48.

What is the most appropriate action to avoid off-center grid cutoff during imaging?

a)

Use compression to reduce thickness

b)

Open the collimation widely

c)

Increase kVp to penetrate the grid

d)

Center the tube to the grid lines

49.

Which method reduces scatter when a grid is not available and maintains image contrast?

a)

Place the grid upside-down intentionally

b)

Raise kVp beyond acceptable range

c)

Remove collimation to increase field

d)

Use air gap technique to separate patient

50.

A focused grid is used at the wrong SID. What image effect should be expected?

a)

Loss of exposure at the image edges

b)

Uniform cutoff across the entire field

c)

Wavy zebra-like interference pattern

d)

Pronounced cutoff on only one side

51.

How does increasing field size typically affect patient dose and image contrast?

a)

Increases contrast and decreases dose

b)

Decreases scatter and decreases dose

c)

Increases scatter and increases dose

d)

Decreases scatter and increases contrast

52.

After tightening collimation for a study, what adjustment to mAs is generally recommended?

a)

Double mAs and reduce kVp substantially

b)

Increase mAs by roughly thirty to fifty percent

c)

Hold mAs constant regardless of field size

d)

Decrease mAs to compensate for added scatter

53.

Which condition is most associated with the moiré pattern on a digital image?

a)

Stationary grid with low grid frequency

b)

High kVp with focused grid at correct SID

c)

Angling the tube across the grid lines

d)

Small field size producing high contrast