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ACN - SRWE - Modules 1-9 25-26 FinalExam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Put the router boot sequence in order:


A. Locate and load the Cisco IOS

B. POST and load bootstrap

C. Locate and load config file or enter setup mode

a)

A-B-C

b)

C-B-A

c)

B-C-A

d)

B-A-C

2.

Which command sets the environment variable on where to find the IOS image file on a switch?

a)

boot system

b)

boot loader

c)

boot enable

d)

boot select

3.

Which light combination of the system LED means the system has power but is not functioning properly?

a)

amber light

b)

no light

c)

green light

d)

flashing green light

4.

If you see the switch: prompt, what has happened in the switch?

a)

The OS is missing.

b)

The switch cannot find the boot loader.

c)

Someone left the switch while they were logged in.

d)

The switch has a virus.

5.

Which command will assign an IPv4 address to the SVI?

a)

S1(config-if)# ip address 172.17.99.11 255.255.255.0

b)

S1(config)# ip address 172.17.99.11 255.255.255.0

c)

S1> ip address 172.17.99.11

d)

S1# ip address 172.17.99.11 255.255.255.0

6.

All ports on a switch are assigned to which VLAN by default?

a)

VLAN 1

b)

VLAN 0

c)

VLAN 99

d)

VLAN 10

7.

If the mdix auto command is not configured on the interfaces, what type of cable would be needed to connect a switch to another switch?

a)

crossover

b)

rollover

c)

straight-through

d)

doesn't matter

8.

Frames will be tagged as runt frames if they are less than what?

a)

64 bytes

b)

128 bytes

c)

512 bytes

d)

1518 bytes

9.

Why would someone want to use SSH over Telnet?

a)

SSH provides an encrypted connection.

b)

SSH is faster than Telnet.

c)

Port 22 is lower than Port 23 and therefore it connects first.

d)

Telnet won't allow connection of a remote device.

10.

The configure terminal command enters which mode?

a)

global configuration

b)

Privileged EXEC

c)

User EXEC

d)

interface configuration

11.

What will entering the enable command do at the > prompt?

a)

Enter global configuration mode.

b)

Enter Privileged EXEC mode.

c)

Enter User EXEC mode.

d)

Enter interface configuration mode.

12.

What will entering the command shutdown do to an interface?

a)

disable it

b)

enable it

c)

reboot it

d)

lock it

13.

What are two features of STP? (Choose two)

a)

enabled by default on Cisco switches

b)

removes single points of failure

c)

creates loops in Layer 2 topologies

d)

disabled by default on Cisco switches

14.

What is the term for a high number of transmissions which overwhelm a network during a specific amount of time?

a)

Broadcast Storm

b)

Multicast Storm

c)

Unicast Storm

d)

Frame Storm

15.

What will happen if a switch is overwhelmed with traffic and cannot operate normally?

a)

New traffic will not be processed and is discarded.

b)

New traffic is buffered for extended periods of time.

c)

The switch will endlessly reboot.

d)

The switch will turn off overwhelmed ports.

16.

Which is not part of the BID?

a)

Priority value

b)

MAC address

c)

Extended System ID

d)

Root ID

17.

What is the default priority for all Cisco switches?

a)

32768

b)

61440

c)

28762

d)

4096

18.

If three switches have the same priority and the same extended ID, what would be used next to determine the root bridge?

a)

Lowest MAC Address

b)

Highest MAC Address

c)

Lowest Interface ID

d)

Highest Interface ID

19.

What value is used to determine the root port?

a)

Lowest Overall Cost

b)

Lowest Cumulative Bandwidth

c)

Lowest MAC Address

d)

Lowest Bridge ID

20.

What is a switch looking for if it is going through the process of analyzing the sum of all port costs to reach the root bridge?

a)

Root Port

b)

Designated Port

c)

Alternate Port

d)

Backup Port

21.

If a switch has multiple equal-cost paths to the root bridge, what will it use second to determine which port will become the root port?

a)

Lowest sender BID

b)

Lowest sender port priority

c)

Lowest sender port ID

d)

Lowest sender MAC address

22.

Which state is a port in if it is receiving BPDUs to determine the location and root ID of the root bridge?

a)

Blocking

b)

Listening

c)

Learning

d)

Forwarding

23.

In which two port states is the switch not learning MAC addresses? (Choose two)

a)

Blocking

b)

Listening

c)

Learning

d)

Forwarding

24.

What feature will put a switch port into an errdisabled state upon receipt of a Bridge Protocol Data Unit?

a)

PortFast

b)

BPDU Guard

c)

RSTP

d)

Spanning-Tree

25.

Which command would you use to verify a root bridge?

a)

show spanning-tree

b)

show stp

c)

show running-config

d)

show startup-config

26.

Which spanning tree protocol is a Cisco enhancement of RSTP that uses PVST+ and provides a separate instance of 802.1w for each VLAN.

a)

RSTP

b)

PVST+

c)

MSTP

d)

Rapid PVST+

27.

Which technology groups physical links together into one logical link?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

VLAN

c)

VPN

d)

STP

28.

What is the name for a virtual interface created by grouping multiple physical links into one logical link?

a)

port channel

b)

EtherChannel

c)

channel interface

d)

EtherInterface

29.

Which two items below are advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two)

a)

Most configuration tasks can be done on the EtherChannel interface.

b)

Loss of one physical link within the channel does not change the topology.

c)

Loops are prevented from occuring in the topology.

d)

Multiple access links can be combined into one trunk link.

30.

If two physical links are combined into an EtherChannel and one of the two physical links fails, what happens to the EtherChannel?

a)

It remains functional and is able to carry the same amount of traffic.

b)

It remains functional but can only carry a reduced amount of traffic.

c)

It fails and shuts down the remaining link.

d)

It fails but the remaining link is still operational.

31.

What are the maximum number of links that can be combined into an EtherChannel?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

24

32.

What are two protocols used to form EtherChannels? (Choose two)

a)

PAgP

b)

802.3ad

c)

LAPD

d)

PSP

e)

NYPD

33.

Which EtherChannel protocol is not proprietary?

a)

PAgP

b)

LACP

c)

LAPD

d)

STP

34.

Which mode will force the interface to channel but will not exchange packets?

a)

On

b)

Desirable

c)

Auto

d)

Active

e)

Passive

35.

Which PAgP modes will result in a channel establishment?

a)

On - Auto

b)

Desirable - Desirable

c)

Auto - Auto

d)

Active - Active

36.

Which LACP mode will result in channel establishment?

a)

Passive - Active

b)

On - Auto

c)

On - Active

d)

Desirable - Auto

37.

If SW1 has a trunk port with a speed of 1Gbps, full duplex, VLANs 1,2,3,4,5, and native VLAN 99 and SW2 has a trunk port with a speed of 1Gbps, full duplex, VLANs 1,2,3,4,5 and native VLAN 1; will an EtherChannel be created?

a)

Yes

b)

No

38.

Which PAgP mode will respond to PAgP packets but does not initiate PAgP negotiation?

a)

Auto

b)

Desirable

c)

Active

d)

Passive

39.

Which are LACP modes?

a)

Auto

b)

Desirable

c)

Active

d)

Passive

e)

On

40.

What is the main purpose of inter-VLAN routing?

a)

To allow communication between devices on the same VLAN

b)

To allow communication between different VLANs

c)

To assign IP addresses to VLANs

d)

To separate traffic on the same VLAN

41.

When using router-on-a-stick, which interface type is configured on the router to connect multiple VLANs?

a)

Physical interface only

b)

Subinterface for each VLAN

c)

Access interface per VLAN

d)

Management interface

42.

Which type of inter-VLAN routing requires no external router hardware?

a)

Router-on-a-stick

b)

Layer 3 switch

c)

Legacy method

d)

VLAN trunking protocol

43.

What is one advantage of using a Layer 3 switch over router-on-a-stick?

a)

Lower latency and faster internal routing

b)

Easier setup for small networks

c)

Uses fewer VLANs

d)

Does not require IP addressing

44.

What is the function of the encapsulation dot1Q command on a router?

a)

Enables routing protocols

b)

Assigns the VLAN ID to a subinterface

c)

Converts a port into a trunk

d)

Disables switching on a port

45.

Which command would convert a switch port into a Layer 3 routed interface?

a)

switchport mode trunk

b)

switchport access vlan 10

c)

no switchport

d)

ip routing

46.

A switch port must be configured with which setting to carry multiple VLANs to a router?

a)

Trunk mode

b)

Access mode

c)

Port security

d)

Spanning-tree

47.

On a Layer 3 switch, what is an SVI primarily used for?

a)

To connect two physical switches

b)

To route between VLANs internally

c)

To increase bandwidth between VLANs

d)

To disable switching on an interface

48.

Which command displays the active VLANs and their assigned interfaces?

a)

show ip route

b)

show vlan brief

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show interfaces trunk

49.

A network engineer removes VLAN 40 using the no vlan 40 command. What happens to the ports that were assigned to VLAN 40?

a)

They remain active with their IP addresses

b)

They are reassigned to the default VLAN

c)

They become part of the management VLAN

d)

They are shut down automatically

50.

What is the name for implanting a virtual router where multiple routers are configured to work together while appearing as a single router to the host?

a)

FHRP

b)

STP

c)

DTP

d)

DHCP

51.

What two things are shared with the virtual router and physical routers?

a)

IP

b)

MAC

c)

NIC

d)

Gateway

e)

Name

52.

What two routers are used by HSRP?

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Standby

d)

Primary

e)

Priority

53.

Place the steps below in order:

1. The standby router assumes the role of the forwarding router.

2. The standby router stops seeing Hello messages from the forwarding router.

3. Because the new forwarding router assumes both the IPv4 and MAC addresses of the virtual router, the host devices see no disruption in service.

a)

2-1-3

b)

3-1-2

c)

1-2-3

d)

2-3-1

54.

Which is an ICMP solution?

a)

HSRP

b)

VRRPv2

c)

GLBP

d)

IRDP

e)

DHCP

55.

Which protocols are for router redundancy?

a)

HSRP

b)

VRRPv2

c)

GLBP

d)

STP

e)

DHCP

56.

Which protocol will handle load balancing?

a)

HSRP

b)

VRRPv2

c)

GLBP

d)

IRDP

e)

DHCP

57.

If all HSRP priorities are equal, what will be used to determine the active router?

a)

lowest IPv4 address

b)

highest IPv4 address

c)

lowest MAC

d)

highest MAC

58.

What is the name of the process where a new election of active router is forced to take place upon another router coming online?

a)

Preemption

b)

Preelection

c)

Preelevation

d)

Preevolution

59.

Active and standby HSRP routers send hello packets to the HSRP multicast group every ____ seconds.

a)

5

b)

3

c)

10

d)

8

60.

If a broadcast packet is sent from a PC on VLAN 9, where will the packets be sent to when it reaches a switch with VLANs properly configured?

a)

All active ports on the switch configured as VLAN 9.

b)

To all ports on the switch

c)

To the first hop router

d)

To all ports on the default VLAN attached to the switch

61.

Which are benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three)

a)

Larger Broadcast Domains

b)

Improved Security

c)

Reduced Cost

d)

Increased Management Tasks

e)

Reduced Traffic

62.

Where does the 802.1Q trunk place untagged traffic?

a)

On the Native VLAN

b)

On the Default VLAN

c)

On the Management VLAN

d)

On VLAN 99

63.

Where can a VLAN trunk be utilized?

a)

Between a switch and a host

b)

Between a host and a server

c)

Between a switch and a server with an 802.1Q NIC

d)

Between a host and a server with an 802.1Q NIC

64.

In which case can a port be assigned two VLANs?

a)

When supporting VOIP

b)

When using VLAN names

c)

When using extended VLANs

d)

When combining with the default VLAN

65.

What range is VLAN 706 in?

a)

Extended

b)

Normal

c)

VOIP

d)

Automatic

66.

What is the file that stores normal range VLANs?

a)

vlan.dat

b)

flash.dat

c)

vlan.db

d)

flash.txt

67.

Where are normal range VLANs stored?

a)

Flash

b)

NVRAM

c)

Running-config

d)

RAM

68.

Where are extended range VLANs stored?

a)

Flash

b)

NVRAM

c)

Running-config

d)

ROM

69.

If a technician entered the command vlan 10 into the global configuration prompt and then noticed it was supposed to be VLAN 100, how would he fix the error?

a)

Enter vlan 100 in the global configuration prompt.

b)

Enter no vlan and then vlan 100 in the global configuration prompt.

c)

Enter no vlan 10 and then vlan 100 in the global configuration prompt.

d)

Enter delete vlan 10 and then vlan 100 in the global configuration prompt.

70.

If a technician removes port g0/4 from a vlan with the no switchport access vlan 10 command without entering any other commands, what happens to port g0/4?

a)

It gets placed on the default VLAN.

b)

It gets placed in a disabled state.

c)

It remains on VLAN 10 until it is assigned to another VLAN.

d)

The switch will give an error message and not change the VLAN.

71.

If a switch is configured for VLAN 100, 101, 102 & 103 and has 6 ports of the switch set to each VLAN, what would happen to the 6 ports set to VLAN 102 if no vlan 102 was entered at the global configuration prompt?

a)

The 6 ports would return to the default VLAN.

b)

The 6 ports would no longer be able to communicate with any other hosts.

c)

The 6 ports would become administratively down.

d)

The 6 ports would move to the next available VLAN of 101.

72.

If a technician entered this command: S1(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 99-103, and then right after entered the command: S1(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 104-110, what VLANs would be allowed on the trunk?

a)

99-103

b)

104-110

c)

99-110

d)

None, it's not an interface command.

73.

Which DTP mode will make the interface actively attempt to convert a link to a trunk link?

a)

access

b)

dynamic auto

c)

dynamic desirable

d)

trunk

74.

Which DTP combination will result in a trunk link between two Cisco 2960 switches?

a)

Dynamic Auto - Dynamic Auto

b)

Dynamic Auto - Access

c)

Dynamic Desirable - Dynamic Auto

d)

Dynamic Desirable - Access

75.

What would the destination MAC address for a DHCPDISCOVER message be?

a)

FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

b)

AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA

c)

255.255.255.255

d)

192.168.0.1

76.

Which command is used to configure an interface as a DHCP client?

a)

ip address dhcp

b)

ip interface dhcp

c)

ip address dhcp-client

d)

interface dhcp client

77.

Which command is used to verify whether DHCP relay is configured on an interface?

a)

show ip interface

b)

show interface brief

c)

show dhcp interface

d)

show dhcp brief

78.

Which command is used to enable a router to relay DHCPv4 broadcasts?

a)

ip helper-address

b)

ip dhcp relay

c)

ip router relay

d)

ip router-relay

79.

Which configuration would assign addresses from network 192.168.10.0/24 and exclude the first five addresses and the last address from the pool?

a)
b)
c)
80.

Which command displays the list of all IPv4 address to MAC address pairings provided by the DHCPv4 service?

a)

show running-config | section dhcp

b)

show ip dhcp binding

c)

show ip dhcp server statistics

d)

show run | dhcp info

81.

If the packet header destination IP is 255.255.255.255, which two DHCP messages could the packet be from? (Choose two)

a)

DHCPDISCOVER

b)

DHCPOFFER

c)

DHCPREQUEST

d)

DHCPACK

e)

DHCPNACK

82.

If a host computer's DHCP lease is expiring, which two DHCP messages are sent to renew the lease? (Choose two)

a)

DHCPDISCOVER

b)

DHCPOFFER

c)

DHCPREQUEST

d)

DHCPACK

e)

DHCPNACK

83.

Which two steps of the DHCP process will be sent as unicast messages? (Choose two)

a)

DHCPDISCOVER

b)

DHCPOFFER

c)

DHCPREQUEST

d)

DHCPACK

e)

DHCPNACK

84.

If a host computer is set up for DHCPv4 and cannot reach a DHCP server what range will the IP address be in on the host computer?

a)

169.254.0.0/16

b)

196.128.0.0/24

c)

255.255.0.0/16

d)

172.254.0.0/16

85.

What two items does a switch look at when a packet first arrives?

a)

Source MAC address

b)

Destination MAC address

c)

Incoming port

d)

Destination port

86.

What will a switch do when an incoming frame's destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table?

a)

Add the destination to the MAC address table.

b)

Forward the frame out all ports except the one it arrived on.

c)

Drop the frame.

d)

Return the frame to the source MAC address.

87.

Which type of switching has an error-checking characteristic?

a)

Store-and-forward

b)

Cut-through

c)

Fragment-free

d)

Keep-and-check

88.

If the source port is 1Gbps and the destination port is 100Mbps, what will be used by the switch to prevent loss of data?

a)

Automatic Buffering

b)

Error Checking

c)

Cut-through switching

d)

CRC

89.

Which switching method may cause invalid frames to be forwarded?

a)

Store-and-Forward

b)

Cut-through

c)

Keep-and-check

d)

CRC

90.

Which device will divide a collision domain?

a)

Switch

b)

Hub

c)

Router

d)

Access Point

91.

Which device will increase the size of a collision domain?

a)

Switch

b)

Hub

c)

Router

d)

Access Point

92.

Which device will divide a broadcast domain?

a)

Switch

b)

Hub

c)

Router

d)

Access Point

93.

Which characteristic of a switch may cost more but will help reduce congestion?

a)

Fast port speeds

b)

Fast internal switching

c)

Large frame buffers

d)

High port density

94.

What is the term used to describe the port where a frame enters a switch?

a)

Ingress

b)

Egress

c)

Input

d)

Socket

95.

Which message will a host use to determine the method it will use to obtain an IPv6 address?

a)

Router Advertisement

b)

Router Solicitation

c)

Neighbor Advertisement

d)

Neighbor Solicitation

96.

Which flag tells the host that other information is available from a stateless DHCPv6 server?

a)

A

b)

O

c)

M

d)

S

97.

Which flag tells the host to use Stateless Address Autoconfiguration to create an IPv6 GUA?

a)

A

b)

O

c)

M

d)

S

98.

Which method does not require the services of a DHCPv6 Server?

a)

SLAAC only

b)

Stateless DHCP

c)

Stateful DHCPv6

d)

Static address

99.

When using SLAAC, the 64-bit interface identifier is generated by which two methods? (Choose two)

a)

Random generation by the OS

b)

EUI-64

c)

DAD

d)

Router Advertisement

100.

Which command will verify the name of the DHCP pool and its parameters?

a)

show ipv6 dhcp pool

b)

show ipv6 dhcp binding

c)

show ipv6 dhcp interface

d)

show ipv6 interface brief