Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Review Questions - Hematology

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Evidence shows that the primary genetic defect in thalassemia leads to:

a)

Qualitative defect resulting from structurally abnormal globin chains production

b)

Altered binding affinity of alpha- or beta-globin chains

c)

Structural and quantitative abnormalities of the heme portion of hemoglobin

d)

A decreased globin chain production resulting from a quantitative deficiency in RNA

2.

A patient with severe anemia shows red cells with elongated, crescent-shaped forms and occasional target cells. Which condition is most consistent with these findings?

a)

Hereditary spherocytosis

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Thalassemia minor

3.

Which of the following findings is characteristic of alpha-thalassemia major (hydrops fetalis)?

a)

Deletion of two alpha globin genes resulting in Hb Bart’s (γ4)

b)

Production of normal HbA with mild hemolysis

c)

Deletion of all four alpha globin genes resulting in Hb Bart’s (γ4)

d)

Excess beta chains forming HbH (β4) in newborns

4.

Which of the following is transfusion dependent?

a)

Beta-thalassemia silent carrier

b)

Beta-thalassemia intermedia

c)

Beta-thalassemia minor

d)

Beta-thalassemia major

5.

Which of the following is the most common screening test for Hb S?

a)

Hemoglobin solubility test

b)

Hemoglobin electrophoresis at alkaline pH

c)

Osmotic fragility test

d)

Hemoglobin electrophoresis at acid pH

6.

In patients with SS hemoglobin, a cause of erythropoietic suppression can be:

a)

Megaloblastic erythropoiesis

b)

Lack of oxygen

c)

Splenic sequestration of RBCs

d)

Increased ingestion of supplementary folic acid

7.

Thalassemias that show increased levels of fetal hemoglobin (HbF) include:

a)

HPFH

b)

Delta-beta thalassemia

c)

Alpha thalassemia

d)

Both A and B

8.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for sickle cell anemia?

a)

Hyperbaric oxygen

b)

Supportive therapy

c)

Hydroxyurea

d)

None of the choices

9.

Which statement about hemoglobin C disease is FALSE?

a)

Electrophoresis shows ~60% HbA and 40% HbC

b)

Target cells are frequently seen

c)

RBCs may contain bar-shaped crystals

d)

The disorder is less severe than sickle cell disease

10.

In which anomaly do granulocytes fail to divide beyond the band or two-lobed stage?

a)

Pelger–Huët anomaly

b)

May–Hegglin anomaly

c)

Alder–Reilly anomaly

d)

Chediak–Higashi syndrome

11.

Which bone marrow finding is characteristic of Niemann–Pick disease?

a)

Sea-blue histiocytes

b)

Foam cells

c)

Gaucher cells

d)

Both A and B

12.

Which morphologic leukocyte abnormality is common in mucopolysaccharidoses?

a)

Pelger–Huët anomaly

b)

Chediak–Higashi disease

c)

Alder–Reilly anomaly

d)

May–Hegglin anomaly

13.

Which lysosomal storage disease shows striated macrophages with glucocerebroside?

a)

Sanfilippo syndrome

b)

Gaucher disease

c)

Fabry disease

d)

Niemann–Pick disease

14.

Which morphological characteristic is associated with Chediak–Higashi syndrome?

a)

Pale blue cytoplasmic inclusions

b)

Giant lysosomal granules

c)

Small, dark-staining granules

d)

Nuclear hyposegmentation

15.

Leukocyte adhesion disorders primarily result from:

a)

Impaired generation of reactive oxygen species

b)

Impaired phagocyte adhesion and migration

c)

Deficiency of lysosomal enzymes

d)

Excessive neutrophil apoptosis

16.

Shwachman–Diamond syndrome is primarily associated with:

a)

Exocrine pancreatic sufficiency

b)

Bone marrow failure

c)

Decreased risk of leukemia

d)

Both A and B

17.

Absolute lymphocytosis with reactive lymphocytes suggests:

a)

DiGeorge syndrome

b)

Bacterial infection

c)

Parasitic infection

d)

Viral infection

18.

An M:E ratio of 10:1 is most often seen in:

a)

Thalassemia

b)

Leukemia

c)

Polycythemia vera

d)

Myelofibrosis

19.

A differential count with 50–90% myeloblasts is typical of:

a)

Chronic myelocytic leukemia

b)

Primary myelofibrosis

c)

Erythroleukemia

d)

Acute myelocytic leukemia

20.

The WHO classification of leukemias is based on:

a)

Morphology and cytochemistry

b)

Immunophenotype and genetics

c)

Clinical features

d)

All of the above

21.

Acute (pure) erythroid leukemia is characterized by:

a)

> 20%20\% myeloblasts

b)

< 20%20\% proerythroblasts

c)

> 30%30\% proerythroblasts

d)

< 90%90\% erythroid precursors

22.

The t(15;17) translocation with high DIC incidence is diagnostic of:

a)

AML without maturation

b)

AML with maturation

c)

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

d)

Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

23.

Blasts staining positive with SBB and MPO most likely indicate:

a)

AML

b)

ALL

c)

CLL

d)

Hairy cell leukemia

24.

Which stain demonstrates strong positivity in AML-M3?

a)

Sudan Black B

b)

LAP

c)

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

d)

Esterase (NSE)

25.

Auer rods may be seen in all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

b)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

c)

AML without maturation

d)

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

26.

Naegeli type monocytic leukemia corresponds to:

a)

AML M2

b)

AML M3

c)

AML M4

d)

AML M6

27.

A common laboratory finding in both AML and ALL is:

a)

Decreased WBC count

b)

Presence of smudge cells

c)

Elevated blasts in peripheral blood

d)

Both A and B

28.

According to FAB, the bone marrow blast percentage required for acute leukemia is:

a)

>=10%

b)

>=20%

c)

>=30%

d)

>=50%

29.

Most probable diagnosis for a 6-year-old with 93% blasts:

a)

ALL

b)

AML

c)

CML

d)

Myelodysplastic syndrome

30.

Cytochemical stain most likely positive in this child's blasts:

a)

Myeloperoxidase

b)

Sudan Black B

c)

PAS

d)

Nonspecific esterase

31.

The Philadelphia chromosome is formed by translocation between:

a)

Chromosome 22 and 9

b)

Chromosome 21 and 9

c)

Chromosome 21 and 6

d)

Chromosome 22 and 6

32.

Which mutation is most closely associated with CML?

a)

JAK2 V617F

b)

PML–RARα fusion

c)

BRAF V600E

d)

BCR-ABL1 fusion

33.

Frequent smudge cells in CLL are due to:

a)

Apoptosis-related changes

b)

Fragile cells causing smear artifact

c)

Heparin effect

d)

Increased in vivo cell lysis

34.

All stages of neutrophils are most likely to be seen in the peripheral blood of a patient with:

a)

Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia

b)

Acute Myelocytic Leukemia

c)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

d)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

35.

Which combination of findings is most characteristic of CML?

a)

High WBC, high LAP, Philadelphia-positive

b)

High WBC, low LAP, Philadelphia-positive

c)

High WBC, high LAP, rare blasts

d)

Normal WBC, low LAP, Philadelphia-negative

36.

Repeated phlebotomy in patients with polycythemia vera (PV) may lead to development of:

a)

Folic acid deficiency

b)

Sideroblastic anemia

c)

Iron deficiency anemia

d)

Hemolytic anemia

37.

Which stain is most frequently used to differentiate AML from ALL?

a)

Alkaline phosphatase

b)

Nonspecific esterase

c)

Acid phosphatase

d)

Myeloperoxidase

38.

The cell series most readily identified by a positive Sudan Black B stain is:

a)

Erythrocytic

b)

Myelocytic

c)

Plasmacytic

d)

Lymphocytic

39.

Which of the following may be used to stain neutral fats, phospholipids, and sterols?

a)

Peroxidase

b)

Sudan Black B

c)

Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)

d)

Prussian blue

40.

A bone marrow sample shows blasts that are MPO/SB negative, PAS positive, and ORO negative. TdT is also positive. What is the most likely classification?

a)

ALL L3

b)

ALL L1

c)

AML M2

d)

AML M3

41.

Which is a common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

a)

Intolerance to alcohol

b)

Intolerance to lactose

c)

Nicotine addiction

d)

Alcohol addiction

42.

Reed–Sternberg cells are diagnostic of which disorder?

a)

Multiple myeloma

b)

Hodgkin lymphoma

c)

Follicular lymphoma

d)

Mantle cell lymphoma

43.

Which immunoglobulin is commonly overproduced in Multiple Myeloma?

a)

IgA and IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgE and IgG

d)

IgD and IgE

44.

Which condition commonly presents with rouleaux formation and an M-spike on serum protein electrophoresis?

a)

Hodgkin lymphoma

b)

Multiple myeloma

c)

Follicular lymphoma

d)

Waldenström macroglobulinemia

45.

The hallmark of Waldenström Macroglobulinemia is overproduction of:

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

46.

Which lymphoma is associated with the translocation t(14;18)?

a)

Burkitt lymphoma

b)

Mantle cell lymphoma

c)

Hodgkin lymphoma

d)

Follicular lymphoma

47.

In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red blood cell morphology is:

a)

Target cells

b)

Schistocytes

c)

Teardrop cells

d)

Ovalocytes

48.

Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia is a malignancy of:

a)

Adrenal medulla

b)

Myelodysplastic cell lines

c)

Erythroid cell precursors

d)

Lymphoplasmacytoid cells

49.

Cells that stain positive with acid phosphatase and are NOT inhibited by tartaric acid are characteristic of:

a)

Infectious mononucleosis

b)

Hodgkin lymphoma

c)

Hairy cell leukemia

d)

Polycythemia vera

50.

A 68-year-old man with lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and t(11;14)(q13;q32) most likely has:

a)

Follicular lymphoma

b)

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

c)

Mantle cell lymphoma

d)

Hairy cell leukemia

Similar Resources on Wayground

Pharm Final Practice

50 questions

Pharm Final Practice

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Oral Medicine & Radiology - 31.08.2020

50 questions

Oral Medicine & Radiology - 31.08.2020

quiz

Worksheet

•

University