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Worksheet Questions - PBN Review

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many methods of navigation are there?

a)

2: Radio navigation, Area navigation

b)

3: Dead reckoning, Radio navigation, Area navigation

c)

4: Pilotage (Piloting), Dead reckoning, Radio navigation, Area navigation

d)

None of the above

2.

In the dead reckoning method, the difference of time between estimated point and actual point above how many minutes that the estimated time has to be recalculated?

a)

2 minutes

b)

3 minutes

c)

4 minutes

d)

5 minutes

3.

What is B-RNAV?

a)

The airplane’s navigation equipment is capable of delivering a navigation accuracy to stay within 1 NM, left and right of track for 95% of the flight time, over a distance of 100 NM between 2 stations.

b)

The airplane’s navigation equipment is capable of delivering a navigation accuracy to stay within 5 NM, left and right of track for 95% of the flight time, over a distance of 90 NM between 2 stations.

c)

The airplane’s navigation equipment is capable of delivering a navigation accuracy to stay within 5 NM, left and right of track for 95% of the flight time, over a distance of 100 NM between 2 stations.

d)

The airplane’s navigation equipment is capable of delivering a navigation accuracy to stay within 5 NM, left and right of track for 95% of the flight time.

4.

What is P-RNAV?

a)

The airplane’s navigation equipment is capable of delivering a navigation accuracy to stay within 1 NM, left and right of track for 95% of the flight time.

b)

The airplane’s navigation equipment is capable of delivering a navigation accuracy to stay within 2 NM, left and right of track for 95% of the flight time.

c)

The airplane’s navigation equipment is capable of delivering a navigation accuracy to stay within 1 NM, left and right of track for 90% of the flight time.

d)

The airplane’s navigation equipment is capable of delivering a navigation accuracy to stay within 2 NM, left and right of track for 90% of the flight time.

5.

What is FMS stands for?

a)

Flight monitoring system

b)

Flight management system

c)

Flight managing system

d)

Flight monitor system

6.

What are the ground sources signal of the FMS?

a)

NDB, VOR, DME, ILS

b)

NDB, DME, ILS

c)

VOR, DME, ILS

d)

NDB, DME, VOR

7.

What are the letters that signify domestic routes?

a)

H, M, Q, T, V, Y, X, R

b)

H, J, Q, T, V, Y, Z, W

c)

A, B, G, R, L, M, N, P

d)

H, J, Q, T, V, Y, Z, X

8.

What are the letters that signify international routes?

a)

H, M, Q, T, V, Y, X, R

b)

H, J, Q, T, V, Y, Z, W

c)

A, B, G, R, L, M, N, P

d)

H, J, Q, T, V, Y, Z, X

9.

What are the letters that signify domestic RNAV routes?

a)

H, J, Q, T

b)

V, Y, Z, W

c)

Q, T, Y, Z

d)

J, Q, T, W

10.

What are the letters that signify international RNAV routes?

a)

A, B, G, R

b)

L, M, N, P

c)

B, G, R, L

d)

A, B, N, O

11.

How many letters indicate NDB?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

12.

How many letters indicate VOR?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

13.

How many letters indicate FIX?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

14.

Which time was the RNP introduced?

a)

1980s

b)

1970s

c)

1960s

d)

1990s

15.

What are the requirements for PBN?

a)

Accuracy, Integrity, Availability

b)

Accuracy, Continuity, Availability

c)

Accuracy, Integrity, Continuity, Availability

d)

Accuracy, Integrity,

16.

PBN is?

a)

RNAV

b)

RNP

c)

Combination of RNAV and RNP

d)

None

17.

RNP using?

a)

Ground navigation equipment

b)

On board navigation equipment

c)

Satellite navigation equipment

d)

Sea navigation

18.

RNAV using?

a)

Ground navigation equipment

b)

On board navigation equipment

c)

Satellite navigation equipment

d)

Sea navigation

19.

RNP using which signal?

a)

Ground signal

b)

GNSS signal

c)

Both

d)

None

20.

What is the PBN manual document?

a)

Doc 9631

b)

Doc 9613

c)

Doc 4444

d)

Doc 8400

21.

What is the main difference between RNAV and RNP:

a)

RNAV has no on-board performance and monitoring alerting

b)

RNAV has on-board performance and monitoring alerting

c)

RNP has no on-board performance and monitoring alerting

d)

None

22.

The accuracy requirement in RNP concept is:

a)

Aircraft must remain within accuracy limit 95% of flight time (The maximum TSE with 95% probability 1 x RNP).

b)

Aircraft must remain within accuracy limit 90% of flight time (The maximum TSE with 95% probability 1 x RNP).

c)

Aircraft must remain within accuracy limit 95% of flight time (The maximum TSE with 95% probability 2 x RNP).

d)

Aircraft must remain within accuracy limit 90% of flight time (The maximum TSE with 95% probability 2 x RNP).

23.

The integrity requirement in RNP concept is:

a)

Probability to transgress the containment limit set as 2 x RNP without alert must be < 10−510^{-5} /flight hour

b)

Probability to transgress the containment limit set as 1 x RNP without alert must be < 10−310^{-3} /flight hour

c)

Probability to transgress the containment limit set as 1 x RNP without alert must be < 10−210^{-2} /flight hour

d)

Probability to transgress the containment limit set as 2 x RNP without alert must be < 10−110^{-1} /flight hour

24.

The continuity requirement in RNP concept is:

a)

Probability of RNP capability loss with alert must be < 10−510^{-5} /Flight hour

b)

Probability of RNP capability loss with alert must be < 10−410^{-4} /Flight hour

c)

Probability of RNP capability loss with alert must be < 10−310^{-3} /Flight hour

d)

Probability of RNP capability loss with alert must be < 10−210^{-2} /Flight hour

25.

TSE equals?

a)

TSE = PDE + PSE + FTE

b)

TSE = PDE + PEE + NSE

c)

TSE = PDE + PSE + PEE

d)

TSE = PDE + FTE + PSE

26.

RNAV was introduced in?

a)

1960s

b)

1970s

c)

1980s

d)

1990s

27.

What is position accuracy?

a)

Difference between actual and estimated position

b)

Difference between actual and desired position

c)

Difference between desired and estimated position

d)

None above

28.

What is Track-keeping accuracy?

a)

Difference between actual and estimated position

b)

Difference between actual and desired position

c)

Difference between desired and estimated position

d)

None above

29.

A statement of accuracy, integrity, continuity and availability needed is defined in:

a)

Doc 9613

b)

Doc 9650

c)

Doc 8768

d)

Doc 4444

30.

Which RNP type(s) used for helicopters?

a)

RNP 1

b)

RNP 2

c)

RNP 0.3

d)

RNP APCH

31.

Which RNAV type(s) used for en route?

a)

RNAV 10

b)

RNAV 5

c)

RNAV 1

d)

RNAV 2

32.

Which RNAV type(s) used for terminal?

a)

RNAV 10, RNAV 5, RNAV 2

b)

RNAV 10, RNAV 5, RNAV 1

c)

RNAV 5, RNAV 2, RNAV 1

d)

RNAV 10, RNAV 2, RNAV 1

33.

Which RNP type(s) used for en route?

a)

RNP 4, RNP 2

b)

RNP 1

c)

RNP APCH, RNP AR APCH

d)

RNP 0.3

34.

Which RNAV type(s) used for terminal?

a)

RNP 4, RNP 2

b)

RNP 1

c)

RNP APCH, RNP AR APCH

d)

RNP 0.3

35.

Ground-based NAVAIDs for PBN concept are:

a)

VOR, DME, NDB

b)

VOR, DME

c)

GNSS

d)

INS/IRS, FMS

36.

Space-based NAVAIDs for PBN concept are:

a)

VOR, DME, NDB

b)

VOR, DME

c)

GNSS

d)

INS/IRS,FMS

37.

Aircraft-based NAVAIDs for PBN concept are:

a)

VOR, DME, NDB

b)

VOR, DME

c)

GNSS

d)

INS/IRS, FMS

38.

DME geometry solutions require 2 DMEs to be:

a)

30 × 150

b)

30 < X < 150

c)

40 × 160

d)

50 × 170

39.

In RAIM, 4 satellites can do:

a)

Position fix

b)

Faulty signal detected

c)

Faulty signal isolated

d)

None above

40.

In RAIM, 5 satellites can do:

a)

Position fix

b)

Faulty signal detected

c)

Faulty signal isolated

d)

None above

41.

In RAIM, 6 satellites can do:

a)

Position fix

b)

Faulty signal detected

c)

Faulty signal isolated

d)

None above

42.

Which NOTAM includes information about RAIM?

a)

NOTAMN

b)

NOTAMM

c)

NOTAMS

d)

NOTAMJ

43.

How many satellite signals does RAIM receive at least?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

44.

No safety is considered when the system cannot assume appropriate route spacing is:

a)

2×RNP

b)

3×RNP

c)

1×RNP

d)

4×RNP

45.

OBPMA provides alert if accuracy is not met, or:

a)

TSE exceeds 2×accuracy value >10.-5

b)

TSE exceeds accuracy value >10.-4

c)

TSE exceeds 2×accuracy value >10.-3

d)

TSE exceeds accuracy value>10.-2

46.

RF legs usually used in:

a)

En-route

b)

Terminal, approach

c)

Departure

d)

Ground

47.

FRT usually used in:

a)

En-route

b)

Terminal, approach

c)

Departure

d)

Ground

48.

FRT stands for:

a)

Fixed Radius Transitions

b)

Final Radius Transitions

c)

Fixed Radio Transitions

d)

Final Radio Transitions

49.

Approach procedures based on:

a)

RNAV specifications

b)

RNAV and RNP specifications

c)

RNP specifications

d)

None above

50.

Navigation Application is:

a)

Navigation Specification

b)

Navigation Infrastructure

c)

Navigation Specification + Navigation Infrastructure

d)

None above

51.

Strategic goals of an Airspace concept:

a)

Safety, Capacity, Efficiency, Environment, Access

b)

Safety, Capability, Efficiency, Environment, Access

c)

Safety, Continuity, Efficiency, Environment, Access

d)

Safety, Availability, Efficiency, Environment, Access

52.

How many Path/Terminator acceptable for RNAV procedure design?

a)

10

b)

11

c)

12

d)

13

53.

Subset used for RNP AR applications are:

a)

IF, TF, RF, HM (hold for clearance)

b)

IF, DF, RF, HM

c)

IF, DF, TF, HM

d)

IF, TF, HM, HR

54.

HF (hold fix) leg is defined as:

a)

A point where the aircraft is expected to hold while waiting

b)

A point where the aircraft is expected to hold on the fix for 1 circuit and then continue

c)

A point where the aircraft is expected to hold on the fix for 2 circuits and then continue

d)

A point where the aircraft is expected to hold on the fix for as many circuits as it need and then continue

55.

HA (hold to altitude) leg is defined as:

a)

A point where the aircraft is expected to hold while waiting

b)

A point where the aircraft is expected to hold at an altitude

c)

A point where the aircraft is expected to hold and climb while in the holding pattern

d)

A point where the aircraft is expected to hold at a fixed altitude

56.

In RF leg, single RF turn limited to turns between:

a)

2 and 358

b)

3 and 357

c)

1 and 359

d)

4 and 356

57.

Over-fly is required for:

a)

CF /DF, DF/DF, TF/DF

b)

CF/RF, DF/DF, TF/DF

c)

CF/FA, DF/DF, TF/CF

d)

CF/HF, DF/DF, TF/DF

58.

Altitude Termination is always:

a)

AT

b)

ABOVE

c)

AT and ABOVE

d)

AT or ABOVE

59.

When speed increases, turn radius:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Not change

d)

Turn radius not affect by speed

60.

When bank angle increases, turn radius:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Not change

d)

Turn radius not affect by bank angle

61.

How many waypoints are common in RNAV arrival procedure?

a)

3–6

b)

4–6

c)

6–10

d)

5–10

62.

Letter “A” in Path concept stands for:

a)

Altitude

b)

Constant DME arc

c)

Constant Radius

d)

DME distance

63.

Letter “A” in Terminator concept stands for:

a)

Altitude

b)

Constant DME arc

c)

Constant Radius

d)

DME distance

64.

Letter “I” in Terminator concept stands for:

a)

Initial

b)

Next Leg

c)

Track between

d)

Heading to

65.

Letter “C” in Terminator concept stands for:

a)

Course to

b)

Distance

c)

DME distance

d)

Constant radius

66.

Letter “T” in Path concept stands for:

a)

Track between

b)

Direct to

c)

Next Leg

d)

Heading to

67.

RNAV 10 requires lateral and longitudinal distance-based separation minima:

a)

30 NM, 40 NM

b)

40 NM, 40 NM

c)

40 NM, 50 NM

d)

50 NM, 50 NM

68.

RNAV 10 (RNP 10) operational requirements are defined in:

a)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume I, Part B, Chapter 1

b)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume II, Part B, Chapter 1 (9613, II,B,1)

c)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume I, Part A, Chapter 1

d)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume II, Part A, Chapter 1

69.

RNAV 10 requires... independent long-ranged navigation systems:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

70.

The navigation systems used for RNAV 10 can be:

a)

INS/IRU or GNSS

b)

INS/IRS, VOR/DME, DME/DME and GNSS

c)

GNSS or DME/DME/IRU

d)

GNSS or DME/DME

71.

The types of position sensors used for RNAV 5 can be:

a)

INS/IRU or GNSS

b)

INS/IRS, VOR/DME, DME/DME and GNSS

c)

GNSS or DME/DME/IRU

d)

GNSS or DME/DME

72.

The navigation systems used for RNAV 2 at or above FL180 can be:

a)

INS/IRU or GNSS

b)

INS/IRS, VOR/DME, DME/DME and GNSS

c)

GNSS or DME/DME/IRU

d)

GNSS or DME/DME

73.

The navigation systems used for RNAV 1 can be:

a)

INS/IRU or GNSS

b)

INS/IRS, VOR/DME, DME/DME and GNSS

c)

GNSS or DME/DME/IRU

d)

GNSS or DME/DME or DME/DME/IRU

74.

RNAV 5 operational requirements are defined in:

a)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume I, Part B, Chapter 1

b)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume II, Part B, Chapter 2

c)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume I, Part A, Chapter 1

d)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume II, Part A, Chapter 2

75.

RNAV 2 and RNAV 1 operational requirements are defined in:

a)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume II, Part B, Chapter 2

b)

ICAO doc 9613, Volume II, Part B, Chapter 3

c)

A. ICAO doc 9613, Volume I, Part A, Chapter 1

d)

A. ICAO doc 9613, Volume II, Part A, Chapter 2

76.

The navigation systems used for RNAV 2 below FL180 required:

a)

INS/IRU or GNSS

b)

INS/IRS, VOR/DME, DME/DME and GNSS

c)

GNSS or DME/DME/IRU

d)

GNSS

77.

Typical route spacing for RNAV 5 using for low ATC intervention rate:

a)

16NM uni – directional, 18.5NM bi – directional

b)

15NM uni – directional, 17.5NM bi – directional

c)

14NM uni – directional, 16.5NM bi – directional

d)

13NM uni – directional, 15.5NM bi – directional

78.

Typical route spacing for RNAV 5 using for high ATC intervention rate:

a)

16NM uni – directional, 18.5NM bi – directional

b)

10NM uni – directional, 15.5NM bi – directional

c)

10 – 15 NM

d)

15 – 20 NM

79.

Route spacing for RNAV2:

a)

Above 8 NM

b)

At least 8 NM

c)

Above 7 NM

d)

At least 7 NM

80.

Route spacing for RNAV1:

a)

At least 6 NM

b)

At least 7 NM

c)

At least 8 NM

d)

To be determined

81.

RNP 4 requires … lateral and … longitudinal distance – based separation minima:

a)

30 NM, 30 NM

b)

40 NM, 40 NM

c)

50 NM, 50 NM

d)

60 NM, 60 NM

82.

RNP 4 is intended for use in:

a)

Terminal airspace

b)

Continental airspace

c)

Continental En – route

d)

Oceanic/remote airspace

83.

RNP 4 operational requirements are defined in:

a)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 1

b)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 2

c)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part B, Chapter 1

d)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part B, Chapter 2

84.

Types of position sensors used in RNP 4:

a)

GNSS

b)

GNSS or DME/DME

c)

GNSS, INS/IRS

d)

GNSS, INS/IRS, VOR/DME, DME/DME

85.

Types of position sensors used in RNP 2:

a)

GNSS

b)

GNSS or DME/DME

c)

GNSS, INS/IRS

d)

GNSS, INS/IRS, VOR/DME, DME/DME

86.

Types of position sensors used in RNP 0.3:

a)

GNSS

b)

GNSS or DME/DME

c)

GNSS, INS/IRS

d)

GNSS, INS/IRS, VOR/DME, DME/DME

87.

RNP 2 is intended for use in:

a)

Approach

b)

En – route

c)

SIDs

d)

STARs

88.

RNP 2 operational requirements are defined in:

a)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 1

b)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 2

c)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part B, Chapter 1

d)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part B, Chapter

89.

RNP 1 is intended for use in:

a)

Approach

b)

En – route

c)

SIDs, STARs

d)

Ground

90.

RNP 1 applied in SIDs and STARs within … of the aerodrome reference point (ARP):

a)

10 NM

b)

20 NM

c)

30 NM

d)

40 NM

91.

RNP 1 operational requirements are defined in:

a)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 1

b)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 2

c)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 3

d)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 4

92.

RNP 0.3 operational requirements are defined in:

a)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 5

b)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 6

c)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 7

d)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 8

93.

A – RNP encompasses which phases of flight?

a)

Departure

b)

En – route (oceanic/remote, continental)

c)

Arrival, approach

d)

All

94.

A -RNP recognition is based on navigation systems meeting the performance and functional criteria for:

a)

RNP 2, RNP 1, RNP APCH to LNAV minima

b)

RNP 4, RNP 2, RNP 1 to LNAV minima

c)

RNP 4, RNP 2, RNP APCH to LNAV minima

d)

RNP 4, RNP 1, RNP APCH to LNAV minima

95.

A- RNP operational requirements are defined in:

a)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 4

b)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 5

c)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 6

d)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 7

96.

Which of these followings is PBN basic functionality:

a)

Display of Lateral Deviation

b)

RF legs

c)

Parallel offsets

d)

Scaleable RNP

97.

Which of these followings is PBN basic functionality:

a)

Distance/Bearing to “Active” waypoint

b)

RF legs

c)

Fixed Radius Transitions

d)

RNAV Holding

98.

Which of these followings is PBN basic functionality:

a)

Time to “Active” waypoint (or Ground speed)

b)

RF legs

c)

Parallel offsets

d)

Scaleable RNP

99.

Which of these followings is PBN basic functionality:

a)

Failure Indication

b)

Baro – VNAV

c)

Time of arrival control

d)

Scaleable RNP

100.

How many PBN functionalities are there?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

101.

How many PBN functionalities are there?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

102.

In the safety assessment timeline, the project team setup project objectives scopes and timescales during:

a)

Week 1 – 3

b)

Week 3 – 7

c)

Week 1 – 4

d)

Week 4 – 7

103.

In the safety assessment timeline, the design concept and qualitation analysis during:

a)

Week 1 – 3

b)

Week 3 – 7

c)

Week 1 – 4

d)

Week 4 – 7

104.

RNP APCH operational requirements are defined in:

a)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 4

b)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 5

c)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 6

d)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 7

105.

During the initial and intermediate approach segments, the lateral total system error accuracy for RNP APCH is:

a)

1 NM, 95%

b)

0.5 NM, 95%

c)

0.3 NM, 95%

d)

2 NM, 95%

106.

During the initial and intermediate approach segments, the along – track error accuracy for RNP APCH is:

a)

1 NM, 95%

b)

0.5 NM, 95%

c)

0.3 NM, 95%

d)

2 NM, 95%

107.

During the final approach segments, the lateral total system error and along – track error accuracy for RNP APCH is:

a)

1 NM, 95%

b)

0.5 NM, 95%

c)

0.3 NM, 95%

d)

2 NM, 95%

108.

During the initial, intermediate and missed approach segments, the flight technical error accuracy for RNP APCH is:

a)

<1 NM, 95%

b)

<0.5 NM, 95%

c)

<0.3 NM, 95%

d)

<0.25 NM, 95%

109.

During the final approach segments, the flight technical error accuracy for RNP APCH is:

a)

<1 NM, 95%

b)

<0.5 NM, 95%

c)

<0.3 NM, 95%

d)

<0.25 NM, 95%

110.

The probability of major failure condition for RNP APCH is

a)

1x10−51x10^{-5}

b)

<1x

c)

<2x

d)

<2x

111.

For RNP APCH, during the initial, intermediate and missed approach segments, system shall alert when:

a)

The probability that lateral TSE exceeds 2.0 NM greater than 1×10−51 \times 10^{-5}

b)

The probability that lateral TSE exceeds 1.0 NM greater than 1x

c)

The probability that lateral TSE exceeds 2.0 NM greater than 2x

d)

The probability that lateral TSE exceeds 1.0 NM greater than 2x

112.

For RNP APCH, during the final approach segments, system shall alert when:

a)

The probability that lateral TSE exceeds 2.0 NM greater than 1x

b)

The probability that lateral TSE exceeds 0.6 NM greater than 1x10^{-5}

c)

The probability that lateral TSE exceeds 2.0 NM greater than 2x

d)

The probability that lateral TSE exceeds 0.6 NM greater than

113.

The mandantory capability for RNP AR APCH is:

a)

Scalability

b)

RF turns capabilities

c)

Fixed radius transitions

d)

Scalability and RF turns capabilites

114.

RNP AR APCH vertical navigation performance is based upon

a)

Barometric VNAV

b)

SBAS

c)

Barometric VNAV or SBAS

d)

GBAS

115.

RNP AR APCH operational requirements are defined in:

a)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 4

b)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 5

c)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 6

d)

Doc 9613, Volume II, Part C, Chapter 7

116.

RNP AR APCH can have RF leg types in which segment?

a)

En – route

b)

Approach, arrival

c)

Departure

d)

All segments

117.

In the terminal and missed approach segments, RNP AR APCH has lateral accuracy that can range below:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

0.3

d)

4

118.

In the final approach segments, RNP AR APCH has lateral accuracy that can scale to:

a)

RNP 1 or lower

b)

RNP 2 or lower

c)

RNP 4 or lower

d)

RNP 0.3 or lower

119.

The range of lateral accuracy values for RNP AR APCH is:

a)

0.3 to 0.5 NM

b)

0.5 to 1 NM

c)

0.1 to 0.3 NM

d)

0.25 to 0.5 NM

120.

The vertical accuracy for RNP AR APCH defines:

a)

99.5% of system error in vertical direction

b)

99.6% of system error in vertical direction

c)

99.7% of system error in vertical direction

d)

99.8% of system error in vertical direction

121.

The navigation infrastructure used in RNP AR APCH:

a)

GNSS

b)

GNSS, IRU, DME

c)

GNSS, IRU

d)

GNSS, IRU, DME, VOR

122.

When missed approach for RNP AR APCH requires accuracy value <1.0 NM, aircraft must be able to couple autopilot/ flight director by

a)

400 feet AGL

b)

500 feet AGL

c)

600 feet AGL

d)

700 feet AGL

123.

How many methods for the design of CDO are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

124.

How many main options for open path design are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

125.

The sensor(s) used for GPS NPA is (are):

a)

GNSS

b)

GNSS + Baro VNAV

c)

GPS + SBAS

d)

GPS + ABAS

126.

The sensor(s) used for APV Baro is (are):

a)

GNSS

b)

GNSS + Baro VNAV

c)

GPS + SBAS

d)

GPS + ABAS

127.

The sensor(s) used for APV SBAS is (are):

a)

GNSS

b)

GNSS + Baro VNAV

c)

GPS + SBAS

d)

GPS + ABAS

128.

The chart minima for GPS NPA is called:

a)

LNAV

b)

LNAV/VNAV

c)

LP

d)

LPV

129.

The chart minima for APV Baro is called:

a)

LNAV

b)

LNAV/VNAV

c)

LP

d)

LPV

130.

The chart minima for APV SBAS is called:

a)

LNAV

b)

LNAV/VNAV

c)

LP

d)

LPV

131.

Which blocks in flight plan include information about PBN?

a)

Block 10, block 11

b)

Block 10, block 14

c)

Block 14, block 18

d)

Block 10, block 18

132.

In flight plan, PBN information, "A1" stands for:

a)

RNAV 5 all permitted sensors

b)

RNAV 2 all permitted sensors

c)

RNAV 1 all permitted sensors

d)

RNAV 10 (RNP 10)

133.

In flight plan, PBN information, "B1" stands for:

a)

RNAV 5 all permitted sensors

b)

RNAV 2 all permitted sensors

c)

RNAV 1 all permitted sensors

d)

RNAV 10 (RNP 10)

134.

In flight plan, PBN information, "B4" stands for:

a)

RNAV 5 VOR/DME

b)

RNAV 5 DME/DME

c)

RNAV 5 INS/IRS

d)

RNAV 5 LORANC

135.

In flight plan, PBN information, "L1" stands for:

a)

RNP 4

b)

RNP 2

c)

RNP 1

d)

RNP APCH

136.

In flight plan, PBN information, letter "O" stands for:

a)

RNP 4

b)

RNP 1

c)

Basic RNP 1

d)

RNP 2

137.

In flight plan, PBN information, "S1" stands for:

a)

RNP 4

b)

RNP 2

c)

RNP 1

d)

RNP APCH

138.

In flight plan, PBN information, "T1" stands for:

a)

RNP APCH with RF

b)

RNP APCH without RF

c)

RNP APCH with Baro – VNAV

d)

RNP APCH

139.

Which RNAV specifications do not require an on – board database of waypoints?

a)

RNAV 2, RNAV 1

b)

RNAV 5, RNAV 2

c)

RNAV 10, RNAV 5

d)

RNAV 5, RNAV 1

140.

The navigation database complied by a specialist "datahouse" and update in accordance with:

a)

Annex 12

b)

Annex 4

c)

Annex 11

d)

Annex 15

141.

Recommend implementation of coded procedures is:

a)

4 to 10 days after effective day

b)

3 to 10 days after effective day

c)

2 to 10 days after effective day

d)

5 to 10 days after effective day

142.

in RNAV 5, initial part of STAR outside of....from the ARP

a)

20 NM

b)

30 NM

c)

40 NM

d)

50 NM

143.

In the SID Specific Requirements, navigation engagement (lateral guidance) must be:

a)

Min 153m (500ft)

b)

Max 153m (500ft)

c)

Min 216m (1000ft)

d)

Max 216m (1000ft)

144.

In the RNP APCH to LNAV/VNAV minima, the approach monitoring - Lateral normally limited to:

a)

1 RNP

b)

1/2 RNP

c)

1/4 RNP

d)

2 RNP

145.

In RNP APCH to LNAV/VNAV minima, if lateral deviation greater than ..., execute missed approach:

a)

1 x RNP (0.3 NM)

b)

2 x RNP (0.3 NM)

c)

1/2 x RNP (0.3 NM)

d)

4 x RNP (0.3 NM)

146.

For Baro – VNAV approaches, deviation up to ... is acceptable:

a)

22m

b)

23m

c)

24m

d)

25m

147.

PBN stands for:

a)

Personal Best Navigator

b)

Performance Based Next - Generation

c)

Probability Based Navigation

d)

Performance Based Navigation

148.

PBN includes Navigation, Communication, Surveillance, Air Traffic Management

a)

True

b)

False

149.

ICAO Doc. 9613 includes training that both pilots and Air Traffic Controllers should complete.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

The three components of PBN are Navigation Specification, Navigation Application, Navigation Infrastructure

a)

True

b)

False

151.

PBN performance requirements are defined in terms of Accuracy, Integrity, Availability, Continuity.

a)

True

b)

False

152.

In PBN altimeters are still used for vertical guidance.

a)

True

b)

False