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Basic of auditing_ques 4

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ethics are

a)

needed in the professions, but is not needed for society in general.

b)

a set of moral principles or values.

c)

not formed by life experiences.

d)

always incorporated in laws.

2.

_____ means that a person acts according to conscience, regardless of the situation.

a)

Caring

b)

Fairness

c)

Integrity

d)

Respect

3.

Which of the following is a prescribed set of moral principles or values?

a)

codes of business ethics for professional groups

b)

laws and regulations

c)

codes of conduct within an organization

d)

all of the above

4.

One of the main reasons people act unethically is that they choose to act selfishly.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Most people define unethical behavior as conduct that differs from what they believe is appropriate given the circumstances.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

PCAOB inspections, especially information related to future inspections which will be made by the PCAOB staff and personnel of public company audits, is publicly available information.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Ethical values such as caring have been incorporated into the laws, as caring now been defined enough to be legally enforceable.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

A six-step approach is often used to resolve an ethical dilemma. The first step in this process is to

a)

identify the alternative actions available.

b)

identify the ethical issues from the facts.

c)

determine who will be affected by the outcome of the dilemma.

d)

obtain the relevant facts.

9.

Ethical frameworks help identify the ethical issues and will always lead to the appropriate course of action.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

A rationalization method that can easily result in unethical behavior is the argument that "everybody does it."

a)

True

b)

False

11.

If an action is considered legal, it must also be considered ethical.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The likelihood of discovery and the consequences of unethical conduct can easily result in unethical conduct.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Auditors and accountants do not face many ethical dilemmas during their respective business careers.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

An ethical dilemma is a situation in which a decision must be made about appropriate behavior. Identify which of the following are steps in the six-step approach presented in the text to resolve the dilemma.

a)

Obtain the relevant facts

b)

Identify the ethical issues from the facts

c)

Identify the alternatives available to the person who must resolve the dilemma

d)

Identify the likely consequence of each alternative

e)

Seek a supervisor’s approval regardless of analysis

15.

The underlying reason for a code of professional conduct for any profession is

a)

the need for public confidence in the quality of service of the profession.

b)

it provides a safeguard to keep unscrupulous people out.

c)

it is required by federal legislation.

d)

it allows licensing agencies to have a yardstick to measure deficient behavior.

16.

Which of the following statements is true when the CPA has been engaged to perform an audit of financial statements?

a)

The CPA firm is engaged and paid by the client; therefore, the firm has primary responsibility to be an advocate for the client.

b)

The CPA firm is engaged and paid by the client, but the primary beneficiaries of the audit are those who rely on the financial statements.

c)

Should a situation arise where there is no convincing authoritative standard available, and there is a choice of actions which could impact a client's financial statements, the CPA is free to endorse the choice which is in the investors' interests.

d)

The CPA firm has primary responsibility to the FASB.

17.

The ______ is a standard of conduct for all members of the AICPA.

a)

IESBA Code of Conduct

b)

SEC Code of Conduct

c)

PCAOB Code of Professional Conduct

d)

AICPA Code of Professional Conduct

18.

Professionals are expected to conduct themselves at a higher level than most other members of society. Select whether the statement is true or false.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

CPA firms have a similar relationship with the users of financial statements which they audit compared to the relationship other professionals have with their customers. Select whether the statement is true or false.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Users of financial statements believe that CPA firms reduce the information risk associated with financial statements. Select whether the statement is true or false.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Users of financial statements have the time and the ability to evaluate the audit performance of a CPA firm. Select whether the statement is true or false.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Why is there a special need for ethical conduct in the auditing profession?

a)

Auditors serve the public interest, and users rely on their impartial judgments to make economic decisions.

b)

Auditors primarily advocate for their clients’ preferred outcomes, so ethical rules are unnecessary.

c)

Ethical conduct is only needed when laws require it; otherwise it is optional in auditing.

d)

The auditing profession has minimal impact on financial markets and economic decision-making.

23.

Which of the following is(are) true concerning the Ethical Principles of the Code of Professional Conduct? I. They identify ideal conduct. II. They are general ideals and are not enforceable.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

Neither I nor II

24.

Which of the following is not one of the major parts of the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct?

a)

principles

b)

rules

c)

interpretations

d)

definitions

25.

One of the AICPA's Ethical Principles deals with the public interest. It states that members should accept the obligation to act in a way that will

a)

Honor the public trust: Yes; Serve the client's interest: Yes

b)

Honor the public trust: No; Serve the client's interest: No

c)

Honor the public trust: Yes; Serve the client's interest: No

d)

Honor the public trust: No; Serve the client's interest: Yes

26.

A CPA performs bookkeeping services for a client and then performs an audit of those financial statements. This is an example of a ________ threat.

a)

familiarity

b)

self-interest

c)

self-review

d)

management participation

27.

Since the rules cannot address all circumstances, the Code includes a conceptual framework approach for members to use to evaluate threats to compliance. Using this framework,

a)

the first step is to discuss the threat with the client's management team.

b)

all threats must be completely eliminated.

c)

safeguards can be used to eliminate any threat.

d)

more than one safeguard may be necessary.

28.

Which part of the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct is enforceable?

a)

ethical rulings

b)

rules of conduct

c)

principles

d)

interpretations

29.

Interpretations of the rules of conduct

a)

are enforceable.

b)

are finalized after being approved by the FASB.

c)

are issued as exposure drafts to the profession and others for comments.

d)

do not apply to members in business.

30.

The AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct requires independence for all

a)

attestation engagements.

b)

services performed by accountants in public practice.

c)

accounting and auditing services performed.

d)

professional work performed by CPAs.

31.

When a member observes the profession's technical and ethical standards and strives to continually improve her competence and quality of services, she is exercising

a)

due care.

b)

integrity.

c)

independence.

d)

objectivity.

32.

Four of the six Ethical Principles in the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct are equally applicable to all members of the AICPA. Which of the following principles applies only to members in public practice?

a)

Scope and Nature of Services

b)

Integrity

c)

Due Care

d)

The Public Interest

33.

The Code of Professional Conduct is established by the membership of the AICPA, and the Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct are prepared by the

a)

Financial Accounting Standards Board.

b)

Securities and Exchange Commission.

c)

CPA licensing agencies within each state.

d)

Professional Ethics Executive Committee of the AICPA.

34.

Due to a shortage of personnel, the client asks a member firm to assist with the authorization of accounting transactions. This is an example of which type of threat to compliance with which of the rules under the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct?

a)

management participation

b)

self-interest

c)

self-review

d)

undue influence

35.

It becomes obvious that a member of a CPA firm has developed a close relationship with an attest client. This is an example of which type of threat to compliance with rules under the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct?

a)

management participation

b)

familiarity

c)

self-review

d)

undue influence

36.

An officer participates in litigation against the CPA firm. This is an example of which type of threat to compliance with rules under the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct?

a)

adverse interest

b)

self-interest

c)

self-review

d)

undue influence

37.

A member actively endorses an attest client's products or services. This is an example of which type of threat to compliance with rules under the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct?

a)

management participation

b)

self-interest

c)

advocacy

d)

undue influence

38.

An attest client threatens the member with not awarding future additional engagements to the firm if the firm does not agree with the client on a particular accounting matter. This is an example of which type of threat to compliance with rules under the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct?

a)

management participation

b)

self-interest

c)

self-review

d)

undue influence

39.

An advantage of specific rules in the Code of Professional Conduct is the enforceability of minimum behavior and performance standards.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

It is a violation of the rules of conduct if someone does something on behalf of a member that is a violation if the member does it.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

An advantage of the principles of professional conduct in the Code of Professional Conduct is that they are more easily enforced than are the specific rules of conduct.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Safeguards can always reduce the threat to an acceptable level.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Interpretations of rules of conduct in the Code of Professional Conduct are not officially enforceable and practitioners need not justify departure from them.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Adverse interest is the threat that a member will not act with objectivity because their interests are opposed to the client's interests.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

In the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct, the second principle of professional conduct, entitled "The Public Interest," applies only to members of the AICPA in public practice and not to members who work as accountants in business, government, or education.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

In the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct, the sixth principle of professional conduct, entitled "Scope and Nature of Services," applies to members of the AICPA who work in public practice, business, government, or education.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The Conceptual Framework for AICPA Independence Standards can be used when making decisions on ethical matters not explicitly addressed in the Code.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Each state also has rules of conduct that are required for licensing by the state.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following are among the seven broad categories of threats to compliance with the AICPA's Code of Professional Conduct? Select all that apply.

a)

self-interest

b)

adverse interest

c)

familiarity

d)

confidentiality

e)

undue influence

50.

The AICPA Code of Conduct includes a conceptual framework approach for members to evaluate threats to compliance with the Code. Which steps are necessary to evaluate the threats? Select all that apply.

a)

identify threats

b)

evaluate the significance of identified threats

c)

identify and apply available safeguards

d)

document conclusions for every engagement

e)

consult with the client to gain agreement

51.

Which of the following are Ethical Principles stated in the Code of Professional Conduct? Select all that apply.

a)

responsibilities

b)

public interest

c)

integrity

d)

due care

e)

confidentiality

52.

For which of the following professional services must CPAs be independent?

a)

management advisory services

b)

audits of financial statements

c)

preparation of tax returns

d)

all of the above

53.

"Independence" in auditing means

a)

maintaining an indirect financial interest

b)

not being financially dependent on a client

c)

taking an unbiased viewpoint

d)

being an advocate for a client

54.

When CPAs are able to maintain their actual independence, it is referred to as independence in

a)

conduct

b)

appearance

c)

fact

d)

total

55.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act ______ a CPA firm from doing both bookkeeping and auditing services for the same public company client.

a)

encourages

b)

prohibits

c)

allows

d)

allows on a case-by-case basis

56.

Interpretations of the independence rule of the AICPA Code prohibit covered members from owning any stock or other direct investment in audit clients. Covered members would include which of the following?

a)

All partners in the engagement office even if they have no engagement responsibility; individuals on the attest engagement; and the firm and its employee benefit plans (Yes/Yes/Yes)

b)

All partners in the engagement office even if they have no engagement responsibility; individuals on the attest engagement; and the firm and its employee benefit plans (Yes/No/No)

c)

All partners in the engagement office even if they have no engagement responsibility; individuals on the attest engagement; and the firm and its employee benefit plans (No/Yes/Yes)

d)

All partners in the engagement office even if they have no engagement responsibility; individuals on the attest engagement; and the firm and its employee benefit plans (No/No/No)

57.

The financial interests of a CPA's family members can affect the CPA's independence. Which of the following parties would not be included as a direct financial interest of the CPA?

a)

spouse

b)

dependent child

c)

relative supported by the CPA

d)

sibling living in the same city as the CPA

58.

Interpretations of the rules regarding independence allow an auditor to serve as

a)

a director or officer of an audit client

b)

an underwriter for the sale of a client's securities

c)

a trustee of a client's pension fund

d)

an honorary director for a not-for-profit charitable or religious organization

59.

Independence is required of a CPA when performing

a)

management advisory services

b)

all attestation services

c)

all attestation and tax services

d)

all professional services

60.

CPAs may provide bookkeeping services to their private company audit clients, but there are a number of conditions that must be met if the auditor is to maintain independence. Which of the following conditions is not necessary?

a)

The CPA must not assume a management role or function.

b)

The client must hire an external CPA to approve all of the journal entries prepared by the auditor.

c)

The auditor must comply with GAAS when auditing work prepared by his/her firm.

d)

The client must accept responsibility for the financial statements.

61.

An example of an "indirect financial interest in a client" would be

a)

ownership of less than 10% of the client's stock by the covered member's spouse

b)

an ownership of less than 10% of the client's stock by a staff member who is not involved in the audit

c)

the covered member's ownership of a mutual fund that has an investment in the client

d)

all of the above are examples of an indirect financial interest in a client

62.

When determining whether independence is impaired because of an ownership interest in a client company, materiality will affect ownership

a)

in all circumstances

b)

only for direct ownership

c)

only for indirect ownership

d)

under no circumstances

63.

A direct financial interest violates independence in which of the following circumstances?

a)

when close relatives such as nondependent children, brothers, and sisters have a significant financial interest in the client

b)

when close relatives such as nondependent children, brothers, and sisters have any financial interest in the client

c)

when the CPA owns shares in a mutual fund that has an ownership interest in the client

d)

when close relatives such as a brother, sister, or in-laws are employed by the client in their engineering department

64.

A CPA sole practitioner purchased stock in a client corporation and placed it in a trust as an educational fund for the CPA's minor child. The trust securities were not material to the CPA but were material to the child's personal net worth. Would the independence of the CPA be considered to be impaired with respect to the client?

a)

Yes, because the stock is a direct financial interest.

b)

Yes, because the stock is an indirect financial interest that is material to the CPA's child.

c)

No, because the CPA does not have a direct financial interest in the client.

d)

No, because the CPA does not have a material indirect financial interest in the client.

65.

Julie and Lisa are sisters. Julie is a CPA auditing the company where Lisa works. Julie's independence is impaired if

a)

Lisa is the controller.

b)

Lisa owns 2% of the company.

c)

Lisa is the marketing manager.

d)

all of the above.

66.

Oehlers, CPA, is a staff auditor participating in the engagement of Capital Trust, Inc. Which of the following circumstances impairs Oehlers' independence?

a)

Oehlers' sister is an internal auditor employed by Capital Trust.

b)

Oehlers' friend, an employee of another local accounting firm, prepares the tax return of Capital Trust's CEO.

c)

Oehlers' and Capital Trust's 401K plans own stock with the same corporation.

d)

During the period of professional engagement, Capital Trust and Oehlers discussed business over lunch at a first-class restaurant.