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1. The nature and variety of living organisms: Characteristics

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which characteristic explains why animals need to eat food like plants or other organisms?

a)

Control of body temperature and water

b)

Movement across different habitats

c)

Nutrition to obtain energy and materials

d)

Excretion of carbon dioxide and urea

2.

What process releases energy from food inside cells to support life functions?

a)

Photosynthesis using light energy

b)

Respiration breaking down nutrients

c)

Reproduction creating new offspring

d)

Excretion removing waste products

3.

Which statement best describes excretion in living organisms?

a)

Moving from one place to another

b)

Reacting to changes in the environment

c)

Taking in nutrients and minerals

d)

Removing metabolic waste substances

4.

A plant bends toward sunlight during the day. Which characteristic is being shown?

a)

Movement of the whole organism

b)

Response to surrounding stimuli

c)

Control of internal conditions

d)

Growth through cell division

5.

Sweating on a hot day helps humans maintain a stable internal state. Which characteristic is this?

a)

Reproduction of new individuals

b)

Respiration in body tissues

c)

Control of internal conditions

d)

Excretion through the skin

6.

Which option lists two characteristics that directly contribute to survival by keeping the organism functioning correctly?

a)

Growth and development alone

b)

Reproduction and growth over time

c)

Movement and response to sounds

d)

Nutrition and respiration together

7.

A species increases in number by producing offspring. Which characteristic is involved?

a)

Excretion removing cell wastes

b)

Nutrition taking in food sources

c)

Reproduction creating new individuals

d)

Movement changing body position

8.

During adolescence, a human becomes taller and more mature physically. Which characteristic explains this change?

a)

Response to social surroundings

b)

Movement of limbs and muscles

c)

Respiration releasing cellular energy

d)

Growth and development over time

9.

Which feature is common to all living organisms described here?

a)

They require nutrition to survive

b)

They have chloroplasts in cells

c)

They photosynthesize for energy

d)

They move using cilia only

10.

Which statement best describes plants as eukaryotes?

a)

Cells lack walls and chloroplasts

b)

Cells have cellulose walls and chloroplasts

c)

Body is mycelium made of hyphae

d)

Single-celled with no nuclei

11.

Animals store carbohydrates mainly as which substance?

a)

Glycogen in tissues

b)

Starch in leaves

c)

Sucrose in vacuoles

d)

Cellulose in walls

12.

Fungi obtain nutrition primarily by which process?

a)

Ingesting prey by phagocytosis

b)

Absorbing light through hyphae

c)

Photosynthesis in chloroplasts

d)

Extracellular digestion of food

13.

Protoctists include examples that are more plant-like and more animal-like. Which pairing matches type to example?

a)

Plant-like: Mucor; Animal-like: Yeast

b)

Plant-like: Plasmodium; Animal-like: Maize

c)

Plant-like: Amoeba; Animal-like: Chlorella

d)

Plant-like: Chlorella; Animal-like: Amoeba

14.

Which feature best distinguishes bacteria from plant and animal cells?

a)

They have a nucleus containing linear DNA

b)

They have many chloroplasts for photosynthesis

c)

They lack a nucleus and have circular DNA

d)

They are multicellular with specialized tissues

15.

What is the best definition of a pathogen?

a)

A harmless microorganism in soil

b)

Any organism that causes disease

c)

A group of photosynthetic bacteria

d)

A cell part that protects DNA

16.

Which pair correctly matches a pathogen type with one example from the list?

a)

Bacterium — Lactobacillus bulgaricus

b)

Protoctist — influenza virus

c)

Virus — rod-shaped yoghurt bacterium

d)

Fungus — Pneumococcus bacterium

17.

A student claims viruses can reproduce independently outside cells. Which reasoning best evaluates this claim?

a)

Incorrect, viruses are larger than bacteria

b)

Correct, viruses photosynthesize to make energy

c)

Incorrect, viruses are parasitic inside living cells

d)

Correct, viruses have complete cellular organelles

18.

Which statement about viruses is most accurate?

a)

They vary in shape and contain DNA or RNA

b)

They have chloroplasts and make their own food

c)

They reproduce by binary fission like bacteria

d)

They are living cells with cell walls

19.

Which option shows the correct order of biological organisation from smallest to largest?

a)

Organs → tissues → cells → organelles

b)

Cells → organelles → tissues → systems

c)

Organelles → cells → tissues → organs

d)

Systems → organs → tissues → cells

20.

Which cell structure controls the activities of the cell by storing genetic material?

a)

Cell membrane regulates substances entering

b)

Nucleus contains the genetic material

c)

Mitochondria release energy by respiration

d)

Cytoplasm supports reactions in cell

21.

A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it typically has which two extra structures?

a)

Chloroplasts and cell wall

b)

Ribosomes and vacuole

c)

Nucleus and cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria and cell membrane

22.

Ribosomes have the main role of making proteins. Which cell component provides the energy needed for this process?

a)

Cell wall provides rigidity for work

b)

Mitochondria release energy from food

c)

Chloroplasts trap light in leaves

d)

Vacuole stores sap and maintains turgor

23.

During early development, cells become specialised for different functions. What is the main advantage of this specialisation?

a)

It reduces the number of cells

b)

It allows efficient performance of tasks

c)

It makes all cells identical in shape

d)

It stops cells from dividing

24.

Stem cells can turn into different types of specialised cells. Which statement best explains one medical use?

a)

They can stop chloroplasts forming

b)

They can replace damaged tissues

c)

They can strengthen the cell wall

d)

They can speed up gas exchange

25.

Which elements are the main components of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids in living organisms?

a)

Oxygen, calcium, phosphorus

b)

Carbon, nitrogen, chlorine

c)

Hydrogen, oxygen, sodium

d)

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

26.

Which statement best describes the basic units forming starch, proteins, and lipids?

a)

Starch from simple sugars; proteins from amino acids; lipids from fatty acids and glycerol

b)

Starch from amino acids; proteins from fatty acids; lipids from simple sugars

c)

Starch from fatty acids; proteins from sugars; lipids from amino acids

d)

Starch from glycerol; proteins from sugars; lipids from amino acids

27.

What is the role of enzymes in metabolic reactions inside cells?

a)

Biological catalysts that speed reactions

b)

Structural fibers that support cells

c)

Energy stores that fuel reactions

d)

Transporters that carry oxygen

28.

An enzyme works best near its optimum temperature. What most likely happens if the temperature rises far above this optimum?

a)

Reaction rate increases without limit

b)

Enzyme dissolves and becomes more reactive

c)

Substrate becomes more concentrated and binds better

d)

Active site changes shape and activity falls

29.

Why can extreme pH reduce enzyme activity?

a)

It increases product concentration

b)

It freezes the enzyme solid

c)

It removes the substrate entirely

d)

It alters the active site shape

30.

A student heated amylase with starch at 20°C, 40°C, and 80°C. Which pattern shows typical enzyme behavior across these temperatures?

a)

Same rate at all temperatures tested

b)

Stops at 40°C, fastest at 20°C, slower at 80°C

c)

Fastest at 80°C, slower at 40°C, stops at 20°C

d)

Fastest at 40°C, slower at 20°C, nearly stops at 80°C

31.

Which pairing correctly matches a food test with the nutrient it detects?

a)

Biuret test—protein; Benedict’s test—glucose

b)

Benedict’s test—lipid; Iodine test—glucose

c)

Iodine test—protein; Biuret test—starch

d)

Ethanol emulsion—glucose; Benedict’s test—fat

32.

Which statement best describes diffusion in cells?

a)

Net movement of particles down a concentration gradient

b)

Selective movement using carrier proteins with ATP

c)

Energy‑requiring transport against a concentration gradient

d)

Net movement of water through a partially permeable membrane

33.

A plant cell is placed in pure water. Which process mainly causes water to enter the cell?

a)

Osmosis across the partially permeable membrane

b)

Diffusion of water through protein channels

c)

Facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins

d)

Active transport of water using ATP energy

34.

Which change would most likely increase the rate of diffusion into a cell?

a)

Lower temperature around the cell

b)

Smaller surface area to volume ratio

c)

Higher concentration gradient across the membrane

d)

Greater distance substances must travel

35.

Which raw materials are required for photosynthesis in green plants?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Oxygen and glucose

c)

Mineral ions and oxygen

d)

Nitrogen gas and water

36.

What is the balanced word equation for photosynthesis?

a)

Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

b)

Carbon dioxide + chlorophyll → glucose + water

c)

Carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

d)

Water + minerals → starch + oxygen

37.

A student places a plant under dim light. Which change will most likely happen to the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

It stays constant regardless of light

b)

It stops because minerals are absent

c)

It increases because more heat

d)

It decreases because less light energy

38.

Which leaf feature mainly allows efficient gas exchange during photosynthesis?

a)

Many stomata on lower epidermis

b)

Thick waxy cuticle layer

c)

Few chloroplasts in spongy layer

d)

Large midrib for support

39.

Why do plants need magnesium ions?

a)

To make chlorophyll pigment

b)

To form cellulose walls

c)

To transport water upward

d)

To store starch granules

40.

A plant is given high carbon dioxide, optimal temperature, but low light. Which factor is limiting the rate of photosynthesis?

a)

Light intensity is limiting

b)

Carbon dioxide is limiting

c)

Temperature is limiting

d)

Mineral ions are limiting

41.

Which nutrient is the main source of energy in a balanced diet?

a)

Vitamins for immunity

b)

Carbohydrates for energy

c)

Minerals for bones

d)

Proteins for tissue growth

42.

Which option best describes peristalsis?

a)

Enzyme breakdown of food

b)

Wave-like muscle contractions

c)

Bile storage in gall bladder

d)

Absorption by villi surfaces

43.

Which organ produces bile and where is it stored before use?

a)

Stomach and duodenum

b)

Liver and gall bladder

c)

Pancreas and small intestine

d)

Oesophagus and colon

44.

What is the correct pathway of food through the human alimentary canal?

a)

Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine

b)

Mouth → pancreas → stomach → colon → rectum

c)

Mouth → large intestine → stomach → small intestine → oesophagus

d)

Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → large intestine → small intestine

45.

Amylase and maltase act on which nutrient and produce which end product?

a)

Proteins to amino acids

b)

Lipids to fatty acids

c)

Starch to glucose

d)

Vitamins to minerals

46.

Which adaptation of the small intestine increases surface area for absorption?

a)

Storage chambers

b)

Strong acidic secretions

c)

Numerous villi and microvilli

d)

Thick muscular walls

47.

Which statement best explains why teenagers often need more energy than adults?

a)

They digest food more slowly

b)

They have smaller stomachs

c)

They absorb fewer nutrients

d)

They are still growing and active

48.

Which function of bile aids the digestion of lipids?

a)

Breaks proteins into amino acids

b)

Converts glucose into glycogen

c)

Neutralises stomach acid and emulsifies fats

d)

Moves food by peristalsis

49.

A student eats a meal high in fats and oils. Which enzymes will mainly digest these lipids and into what products?

a)

Maltases into maltose

b)

Lipases into fatty acids and glycerol

c)

Proteases into amino acids

d)

Amylases into glucose

50.

Which statement best describes the main purpose of ATP in cells?

a)

Stores energy for quick cell use

b)

Carries oxygen to all body tissues

c)

Forms cell walls during growth

d)

Removes carbon dioxide from blood

51.

Which pair correctly matches the type of respiration to its requirement?

a)

Both require no oxygen at all

b)

Aerobic lacks oxygen; anaerobic needs oxygen

c)

Both require high oxygen at all times

d)

Aerobic needs oxygen; anaerobic does not

52.

Choose the balanced symbol equation for aerobic respiration in living organisms.

a)

C6H12O6 → ethanol + CO2 + energy

b)

O2 → ATP + CO2 + H2O + energy

c)

CO2 + H2O → C6H12O6 + O2 + energy

d)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

53.

During sprinting, muscles sometimes switch to anaerobic respiration. What is the most likely product in human muscle in this case?

a)

Large ATP with much oxygen

b)

Ethanol and much ATP

c)

Water and carbon dioxide only

d)

Lactic acid and a little ATP

54.

A student compares energy output from the same amount of glucose. Which outcome is most reasonable?

a)

Both release identical ATP amounts

b)

Aerobic releases more ATP than anaerobic

c)

Anaerobic releases more ATP than aerobic

d)

Neither process releases any ATP

55.

Which process moves oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and leaf cells during gas exchange?

a)

Osmosis through xylem vessels

b)

Active transport across membranes

c)

Facilitated uptake by stomata pumps

d)

Diffusion down concentration gradients

56.

During a sunny day, what is the net gas exchange in a leaf when photosynthesis rate is higher than respiration?

a)

No exchange of any gases

b)

Equal exchange of both gases

c)

Net release of carbon dioxide

d)

Net intake of carbon dioxide

57.

Which leaf adaptation most directly increases the surface area for gas exchange?

a)

Deeply embedded stomata

b)

Tightly packed palisade cells

c)

Thick waxy cuticle layers

d)

Broad, flat leaf blades

58.

What is the main role of stomata in leaves?

a)

Store oxygen for respiration

b)

Control opening for gas movement

c)

Absorb minerals from soil

d)

Pump sugars into phloem

59.

A student places a leaf in bright light and measures gases. Which result best shows understanding of net exchange and light intensity?

a)

Higher light stops respiration completely

b)

Higher light raises carbon dioxide uptake

c)

Higher light lowers oxygen release

d)

Higher light makes exchange independent of light

60.

Which structure forms a dome-shaped sheet of muscle at the base of the thorax and helps with breathing?

a)

Diaphragm muscle under the lungs

b)

Trachea tube in the neck

c)

Bronchiole small airways

d)

Pleural membrane lining

61.

During inhalation, what do the intercostal muscles and diaphragm do to draw air into the lungs?

a)

Intercostals contract, diaphragm relaxes

b)

Intercostals relax, diaphragm relaxes

c)

Intercostals relax, diaphragm contracts

d)

Intercostals contract, diaphragm contracts

62.

Which feature of alveoli most directly increases the rate of diffusion of gases?

a)

Large surface area with many alveoli

b)

Cool air to slow particle motion

c)

Low blood supply to capillaries

d)

Thick moist walls around air sacs

63.

A student measures breathing before and after light exercise. Which change is most likely?

a)

Higher breathing rate and deeper breaths

b)

Same rate and same depth of breaths

c)

Lower breathing rate and shallow breaths

d)

Same breathing rate but shallower breaths

64.

Which is a biological consequence of smoking on the gas exchange system?

a)

Wider airways increasing airflow

b)

Stronger cilia clearing more mucus

c)

Lower risk of coronary heart disease

d)

Damaged alveoli reducing gas exchange

65.

Which statement best explains why many unicellular organisms can rely on diffusion to move substances?

a)

They have strong circulatory pumps inside cells

b)

Their small size gives short diffusion distances

c)

Their membranes actively push molecules outward

d)

They store large volumes to slow concentration changes

66.

A multicellular animal grows larger and develops many internal cells. What is the main reason it needs a specialized transport system?

a)

To keep all cells far from blood vessels

b)

To speed up diffusion over long distances

c)

To prevent oxygen from entering the body

d)

To stop nutrients from reaching outer cells

67.

Which statement best describes the main function of phloem in a plant?

a)

Provide structural support with thick walls

b)

Allow gas exchange through stomata pores

c)

Carry sucrose and amino acids between parts

d)

Transport water and mineral ions upward

68.

What is the primary role of xylem tissue?

a)

Regulate opening and closing of stomata

b)

Transport water and mineral ions from roots

c)

Move sugars between leaves and roots

d)

Store starch for future energy needs

69.

Root hair cells are specialized to absorb water efficiently. Which feature most increases their absorption?

a)

Many chloroplasts for photosynthesis

b)

Short, broad surface area

c)

Large vacuole with low water potential

d)

Thick waxy cuticle layer

70.

Transpiration is best defined as which process?

a)

Active intake of water by roots

b)

Evaporation of water from leaf surfaces

c)

Movement of sugars through phloem tubes

d)

Condensation of water inside stomata

71.

A potted plant is placed in a sunny, windy room with low humidity. What change in transpiration rate is most likely, and why?

a)

No change because stomata are closed

b)

Decrease because wind slows evaporation

c)

Decrease because humidity pulls water in

d)

Increase because sun warms leaf surfaces

72.

A student wants to reduce water loss from a leafy shoot during an investigation. Which single adjustment would most effectively lower the transpiration rate?

a)

Cover leaves to reduce air movement

b)

Mist the room to increase humidity

c)

Increase light intensity on the leaves

d)

Raise air temperature around the shoot

73.

Which component of blood primarily transports nutrients, hormones, and heat around the body?

a)

Blood plasma

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Platelets

74.

Which adaptation helps red blood cells carry oxygen efficiently?

a)

Biconcave disc shape

b)

Thick cell wall

c)

Large nucleus present

d)

Ability to divide often

75.

What is the main role of platelets during an injury?

a)

Produce heat in the blood

b)

Engulf invading pathogens

c)

Carry oxygen to tissues

d)

Form clots to stop bleeding

76.

Which blood cell type ingests pathogens as part of the immune response?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Phagocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma cells

77.

Vaccination helps protect you mainly by which process?

a)

Blocking all pathogens

b)

Making more red blood cells

c)

Thickening blood plasma

d)

Creating memory cells

78.

Which statement best describes arteries compared to veins?

a)

Arteries have thick elastic walls

b)

Arteries have thin walls and valves

c)

Arteries carry blood at low pressure

d)

Arteries always carry deoxygenated blood

79.

During exercise, what usually happens to heart rate and why?

a)

Stops briefly to reset rhythm

b)

Increases to supply more oxygen

c)

Stays constant for stability

d)

Decreases to save energy

80.

Which part of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body through the aorta?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Left ventricle

81.

Select the best explanation for why multicellular organisms need a transport system.

a)

Cells are far from resources

b)

Blood prevents any diffusion

c)

They do not use oxygen

d)

Diffusion is fast across all tissues

82.

A student says plasma carries carbon dioxide dissolved in it. How could you check this claim using evidence?

a)

Measure heart size directly

b)

Test plasma gas content

c)

Observe platelet shapes

d)

Count red cell nuclei

83.

A cut on the skin stops bleeding quickly but later swells slightly. Which sequence best explains the events?

a)

Red cells divide then veins widen

b)

Plasma thickens then arteries close

c)

Memory cells form then heart slows

d)

Platelets clot then phagocytes clean

84.

Which statement best explains how a leaf removes waste gases during the day?

a)

Carbon dioxide from respiration exits through stomata

b)

Oxygen from photosynthesis enters through stomata

c)

Oxygen from respiration enters through lenticels

d)

Carbon dioxide from photosynthesis exits through cuticle pores

85.

Which organs are the main excretory organs that remove urea from the blood?

a)

Lungs and skin

b)

Skin and intestines

c)

Kidneys and liver

d)

Kidneys and bladder

86.

Which statement best describes osmoregulation by the kidneys?

a)

Keeping blood glucose constant

b)

Balancing water and ion levels

c)

Storing digestive enzymes

d)

Producing red blood cells

87.

Which pathway shows urine flow through the urinary system in the correct order?

a)

Urethra → bladder → ureter → kidney

b)

Kidney → bladder → ureter → urethra

c)

Bladder → ureter → kidney → urethra

d)

Kidney → ureter → bladder → urethra

88.

Which structure is the site of ultrafiltration in the nephron?

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Bowman's capsule

d)

Collecting duct

89.

During ultrafiltration, which components normally pass into the glomerular filtrate?

a)

Red and white cells

b)

Water and small solutes

c)

Hormones and antibodies

d)

Large plasma proteins

90.

Where is most glucose reabsorbed back into the blood in the nephron?

a)

Distal convoluted tubule

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Collecting duct

91.

A student drinks very little water on a hot day. How does ADH affect the collecting ducts to help maintain water balance?

a)

Stops sodium reabsorption

b)

Increases duct permeability

c)

Increases urine production

d)

Decreases duct permeability

92.

Which change in urine composition best indicates dehydration?

a)

High water, low urea

b)

Low ions, high water

c)

Low water, high ions

d)

High glucose, low urea

93.

A person’s glomerular filtrate contains glucose, but their final urine also contains glucose. Which nephron process most likely failed?

a)

Ultrafiltration at Bowman's capsule

b)

Reabsorption in proximal tubule

c)

Secretion into distal tubule

d)

Water reabsorption in collecting duct

94.

Which sequence correctly shows a coordinated response in animals?

a)

effector → receptor → stimulus

b)

stimulus → receptor → effector

c)

stimulus → effector → receptor

d)

receptor → stimulus → effector

95.

Homeostasis is best described as

a)

maintaining a constant internal environment

b)

responding only to external temperature changes

c)

stopping all changes inside the body

d)

keeping body conditions exactly identical daily

96.

A bright light shines in your eyes. Which parts act first and last in the response?

a)

first receptor, last effector

b)

first effector, last receptor

c)

first stimulus, last receptor

d)

first effector, last stimulus

97.

Which statement best describes phototropism in a plant stem?

a)

Transporting sugars to shaded leaves

b)

Growth toward stronger light source

c)

Growth away from gravity pull

d)

Closing stomata during low light

98.

A potted plant is laid on its side near a window. After two days, what pattern of growth is most likely and why?

a)

Stem curves up due to auxin redistribution

b)

Roots grow upward to reach sunlight

c)

Stem bends down because auxin breaks cells

d)

Leaves stop growing due to water loss

99.

What is the role of auxin in the phototropic response of stems?

a)

Prevents cell division on lit side

b)

Promotes cell elongation on shaded side

c)

Causes roots to grow toward light

d)

Speeds photosynthesis in illuminated cells

100.

Which statement best describes a key difference between nervous and hormonal control?

a)

Nervous control uses electrical impulses, hormonal uses chemicals

b)

Nervous control works only during sleep, hormonal only when awake

c)

Nervous control is slow and long-lasting, hormonal is instant

d)

Nervous control only affects the blood, hormonal affects nerves

101.

Which organs make up the central nervous system in humans?

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Brain and peripheral nerves

c)

Spinal cord and kidneys

d)

Heart and lungs

102.

What do receptors in sense organs detect?

a)

Only pain and heat

b)

Energy used for movement

c)

Levels of blood cells

d)

Changes called stimuli

103.

At a synapse, how is an impulse passed from one neuron to the next?

a)

By neurotransmitters crossing the gap

b)

By direct electrical connection

c)

By hormones released into blood

d)

By tiny currents through myelin

104.

Which sequence correctly shows the pathway of a simple reflex when touching something hot?

a)

Receptor → sensory neuron → relay neuron → motor neuron → effector

b)

Effector → motor neuron → relay neuron → sensory neuron → receptor

c)

Receptor → motor neuron → relay neuron → sensory neuron → effector

d)

Brain → motor neuron → sensory neuron → effector → receptor

105.

Which part of the eye changes shape to focus light from near or distant objects?

a)

Lens

b)

Iris

c)

Pupil

d)

Cornea

106.

When entering a bright room, what eye response helps protect the retina?

a)

Iris muscles constrict the pupil

b)

Lens becomes thicker and rounder

c)

Ciliary muscles relax the lens

d)

Cornea widens to block light

107.

How does the skin help lower body temperature during exercise?

a)

Sweating and vasodilation

b)

Shivering and vasoconstriction

c)

Increasing adrenaline release

d)

Reducing insulin secretion

108.

Which hormone raises blood glucose during sudden stress?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Insulin

c)

Oestrogen

d)

ADH

109.

Which hormone helps decrease blood glucose after a meal?

a)

Insulin

b)

Testosterone

c)

FSH

d)

LH

110.

Which hormone makes the kidneys conserve water when you are dehydrated?

a)

Progesterone

b)

ADH

c)

Adrenaline

d)

LH

111.

Which statement best explains why hormonal responses often last longer than nervous responses?

a)

Hormones circulate in blood and act for longer

b)

Hormones travel faster than nerve impulses

c)

Hormones only act on the brain and spinal cord

d)

Hormones are stored inside synapses indefinitely

112.

Which statement best describes fertilisation in humans?

a)

Growth of the embryo inside the uterus

b)

Division of a zygote into many cells

c)

Release of eggs during the menstrual cycle

d)

Fusion of two gametes forming a zygote

113.

A strawberry plant sends out runners that grow into new plants. What type of reproduction is this, and what is one feature of it?

a)

Sexual reproduction; offspring genetically varied

b)

Asexual reproduction; offspring genetically varied

c)

Sexual reproduction; offspring genetically identical

d)

Asexual reproduction; offspring genetically identical

114.

Which feature is typical of insect-pollinated flowers?

a)

No scent and exposed stamens

b)

Light pollen with smooth surfaces

c)

Small petals with dull colors

d)

Sticky pollen that clings to insects

115.

In wind-pollinated flowers, which adaptation best increases the chance of pollen reaching another flower?

a)

Heavy pollen with rough spikes

b)

Large brightly colored petals

c)

Nectar stored deep in tubes

d)

Long dangling stamens releasing pollen

116.

After a pollen grain lands on a stigma, what is the next step leading to fertilisation?

a)

Anther fuses with the ovary

b)

Ovules move up the filament

c)

Pollen tube grows down the style

d)

Petals close to trap pollen

117.

Which sequence correctly describes seed and fruit formation?

a)

Ovule becomes seed, ovary becomes fruit

b)

Stigma becomes seed, anther becomes fruit

c)

Style becomes seed, filament becomes fruit

d)

Ovary becomes seed, ovule becomes fruit

118.

A gardener wants more strawberry plants quickly that are identical to the parent. Which method is most suitable?

a)

Graft a shoot onto a tree

b)

Allow wind to spread pollen widely

c)

Use runners for natural cloning

d)

Grow from seeds after cross-pollination

119.

Which structure transports sperm from the testis toward the urethra?

a)

Epididymis

b)

Seminal vesicle

c)

Vas deferens

d)

Prostate gland

120.

Which statement best describes the main function of the ovaries?

a)

Produce oestrogen

b)

Store embryos

c)

Release eggs

d)

Secrete testosterone

121.

During the menstrual cycle, which hormone triggers ovulation?

a)

FSH from pituitary

b)

Oestrogen from ovaries

c)

Progesterone from ovaries

d)

LH from pituitary

122.

FSH mainly acts to do which of the following in the menstrual cycle?

a)

Thicken cervical mucus

b)

Cause ovulation event

c)

Maintain uterine lining

d)

Stimulate follicle growth

123.

What is the primary role of the placenta during pregnancy?

a)

Produces amniotic fluid volume

b)

Exchanges nutrients and wastes

c)

Protects fetus mechanically

d)

Prevents uterine contractions

124.

A pregnant individual loses amniotic fluid due to membrane rupture. Predict the most immediate risk to the embryo.

a)

Reduced nutrient transfer

b)

Increased infection chance

c)

Lower hormone production

d)

Impaired oxygen diffusion

125.

Which term describes all the DNA in an organism, including all its genes?

a)

Genome of the organism

b)

Chromosome number

c)

Gene collection

d)

Protein library

126.

What is the structure of a DNA molecule?

a)

Two rings, circular loop

b)

Single helix, twisted chain

c)

Two strands, double helix

d)

Single strand, straight chain

127.

During transcription, which molecule is produced from a DNA template?

a)

mRNA for translation

b)

tRNA for ribosomes

c)

rRNA for nucleus

d)

Protein polypeptide

128.

RNA contains uracil instead of which DNA base?

a)

Guanine in DNA

b)

Thymine in DNA

c)

Adenine in DNA

d)

Cytosine in DNA

129.

A student models protein synthesis. Which sequence best shows the stages in order?

a)

Transcription then translation

b)

Translation then transcription

c)

Replication then translation

d)

Meiosis then transcription

130.

Which term describes different forms of the same gene that can produce variations in a trait?

a)

Alleles of a gene

b)

Chromosomes in cells

c)

Phenotypes of an organism

d)

Genotypes in a family

131.

A pea plant has two identical alleles for height. What is the correct term for this genetic condition?

a)

Codominant for height

b)

Heterozygous for height

c)

Homozygous for height

d)

Polygenic for height

132.

In a monohybrid cross where tall (T) is dominant over short (t), which offspring genotype will show the short phenotype?

a)

Tt genotype phenotype short

b)

TT genotype phenotype tall

c)

Tt genotype phenotype tall

d)

tt genotype phenotype short

133.

Two different alleles are both fully expressed in the phenotype, such as red and white patches in a flower. What inheritance pattern is described?

a)

Dominant–recessive pattern

b)

Codominance pattern

c)

Incomplete dominance pattern

d)

Polygenic trait pattern

134.

A trait like human skin color is influenced by several genes. Which statement best explains how this affects variation in the population?

a)

Recessive alleles always rare and hidden

b)

Dominant allele removes all variation

c)

Multiple genes create a continuous range

d)

Single gene creates two clear categories

135.

What is the main purpose of mitosis in the body?

a)

Mixing genes during fertilisation

b)

Reducing chromosome number for reproduction

c)

Generating identical cells for growth and repair

d)

Producing genetically different gametes

136.

During meiosis, what happens to chromosome number in the resulting gametes?

a)

It doubles to form diploid gametes

b)

It stays the same as the parent cell

c)

It halves to form haploid gametes

d)

It becomes random in each gamete

137.

Which process most directly creates genetic variation in offspring?

a)

Maintaining diploid chromosome number

b)

Mitosis in somatic tissues

c)

Random fertilisation of gametes

d)

DNA replication without errors

138.

If humans have 46 chromosomes in body cells, how many are in each gamete after meiosis?

a)

2 chromosomes in each gamete

b)

12 chromosomes in each gamete

c)

46 chromosomes in each gamete

d)

23 chromosomes in each gamete

139.

Which statement best describes genetic variation within a species?

a)

It can be genetic, environmental, or both

b)

It results only from inherited mutations

c)

It results only from environmental factors

d)

It cannot be influenced by fertilisation

140.

Which change best explains how DNA can alter phenotype?

a)

A mutation changes amino acid sequence

b)

A mutation turns DNA into carbohydrates

c)

A mutation increases cell size overnight

d)

A mutation makes all proteins disappear

141.

Most genetic mutations have which typical effect?

a)

No effect on phenotype

b)

Always improves fitness

c)

Huge effect every time

d)

Instantly lethal to organisms

142.

Which factor can increase the incidence of mutations?

a)

Sleeping longer each night

b)

Eating more vitamins daily

c)

Exercising regularly at school

d)

Exposure to ionising radiation

143.

A bacterial population is treated with an antibiotic. After several days, many bacteria survive and spread. What is the best explanation?

a)

Resistant bacteria were selected to survive

b)

Antibiotics made bacteria reproduce less

c)

Antibiotics taught bacteria new skills

d)

All bacteria mutated the same way

144.

Which statement best summarizes Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection?

a)

Evolution stops once a species becomes well adapted

b)

Species change because they try to adapt during life

c)

Individuals with advantageous traits leave more offspring

d)

All individuals evolve identical traits together

145.

Which term best describes all organisms of one species living in the same area?

a)

Population of one species

b)

Habitat for a single species

c)

Ecosystem of biotic and abiotic

d)

Community of many species

146.

A shaded pond has fewer algae than a sunny pond nearby. Which abiotic factor most likely limits algae growth in the shaded pond?

a)

Reduced decomposers

b)

Fewer predators present

c)

Smaller pond community

d)

Lower light availability

147.

A meadow contains grass, rabbits, hawks, insects, and soil microbes interacting with water, sunlight, and minerals. What term includes all these living and nonliving interactions together?

a)

Population of grass species

b)

Community of meadow animals

c)

Ecosystem of meadow area

d)

Habitat of rabbit burrows

148.

In a sandy beach habitat, crabs are found near rock pools but rarely on open sand. Which biotic factor most likely explains this distribution?

a)

Wind strength across dunes

b)

Availability of shelter in pools

c)

Temperature of exposed surfaces

d)

Presence of predators near sand

149.

A student uses quadrats to estimate daisy population size in two fields. Which step improves the reliability of the estimate?

a)

Use larger quadrats once

b)

Measure abiotic factors later

c)

Sample randomly across field

d)

Count only flowering daisies

150.

Which organism is at the first trophic level in a food chain?

a)

Decomposer breaking down dead matter

b)

Tertiary consumer at the top

c)

Producer making food by photosynthesis

d)

Primary consumer eating green plants

e)

Secondary consumer hunting small herbivores