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Worksheets

Nutrition & Wellness Study Guide - Part 4

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines nutrition in health science?

a)

Art of cooking delicious balanced meals

b)

Study of food nutrients and body use

c)

Choosing organic foods for clean eating

d)

Tracking calories with fitness apps

2.

Which statement best describes wellness for individuals?

a)

Daily meditation and balanced diet alone

b)

Peak athletic performance and body composition

c)

Holistic well-being across physical, mental, emotional, social

d)

Absence of diagnosed disease only

3.

Health versus wellness: what is the key difference?

a)

Health equals thriving in every domain

b)

Wellness equals absence of disease

c)

Health equals absence of disease, wellness is complete well-being

d)

Both terms mean identical states

4.

Which factor is a personal choice directly influencing wellness outcomes?

a)

Local climate patterns year-round

b)

Diet, sleep, exercise, stress management

c)

Genetic mutations inherited at birth

d)

Global food supply chain policies

5.

Which outcome is a benefit of regular physical activity?

a)

Greater injury rates and weaker immunity

b)

Reduced flexibility and higher disease risk

c)

Decreased mental health and lower endurance

d)

Improved cardiovascular health and quality of life

6.

Match each exercise type to its characteristic.

a)

Aerobic

1.

Uses oxygen; sustained rhythmic activity

b)

Anaerobic

2.

Without oxygen; short bursts of intense activity

c)

Aerobic examples

3.

Running, swimming, cycling, brisk walking

7.

Which is a typical benefit of aerobic exercise?

a)

Enhances flexibility only without stamina

b)

Builds maximal power and muscle strength

c)

Improves heart–lung fitness and endurance

d)

Raises metabolism without calorie burning

8.

Which example best fits anaerobic exercise?

a)

Brisk walking for thirty minutes

b)

Swimming laps continuously

c)

Sprint intervals and heavy lifting

d)

Casual cycling around town

9.

Which factor commonly affects emotional well-being?

a)

Seasonal fruit prices fluctuations

b)

Blood type and eye color only

c)

Self-esteem, support systems, brain chemistry

d)

Planetary alignment changes

10.

Long-term chronic stress most likely leads to which effect?

a)

Improves digestion and heart health

b)

Raises blood pressure and disrupts sleep

c)

Strengthens immunity and lowers blood pressure

d)

Eliminates anxiety and prevents depression

11.

Which strategy is part of effective stress management?

a)

Avoid social support and hobbies

b)

Heavy caffeine to boost alertness

c)

Deep breathing, exercise, adequate sleep

d)

Skipping meals to save time

12.

Eating patterns influence health primarily through which elements?

a)

Meal timing, portions, food choices

b)

Favorite cuisines and chef skill

c)

Exclusive dining at restaurants

d)

Colorful plating and presentation

13.

Match each eating disorder to its hallmark feature.

a)

Anorexia nervosa

1.

Extreme restriction, fear of weight gain, underweight

b)

Bulimia nervosa

2.

Binge episodes followed by purging behaviors

c)

Binge eating disorder

3.

Uncontrolled overeating without purging, shame

d)

Orthorexia

4.

Obsession with only "pure" foods; severe restriction

14.

Which statement about fad diets is most accurate?

a)

Always increase nutrient density safely

b)

Evidence-based, balanced, sustainable plans

c)

Designed by clinicians for medical conditions

d)

Trendy promises of quick results, often unbalanced

15.

Match each fad diet to its description.

a)

Keto

1.

Extremely low carb; induces ketosis

b)

Paleo

2.

Eat only Stone Age–style whole foods

c)

Juice cleanse

3.

Only fruit/vegetable juices to "detox"

d)

Carnivore

4.

Only animal products; no plants at all

16.

Which pattern defines intermittent fasting?

a)

Eat grapefruit with every meal to burn fat

b)

Eliminate grains, legumes, alcohol for 30 days

c)

Drink lemon juice, maple syrup, cayenne mix

d)

Limit eating to specific daily time windows

17.

Which vegetarian type includes dairy but excludes meat?

a)

Vegan

b)

Lacto-vegetarian

c)

Ovo-vegetarian

d)

Pescatarian

18.

Which vegetarian type includes eggs but excludes dairy?

a)

Flexitarian

b)

Vegan

c)

Lacto-ovo vegetarian

d)

Ovo-vegetarian

19.

Match each vegetarian pattern to what they eat.

a)

Vegan

1.

Plants only; no animal products

b)

Lacto-ovo vegetarian

2.

Plants + dairy + eggs; no meat

c)

Pescatarian

3.

Plants + fish/seafood; no other meat

d)

Flexitarian

4.

Mostly plants; occasionally eats meat/fish

20.

Which medical diet is primarily used to lower high blood pressure?

a)

Therapeutic fasting

b)

Clear liquid diet

c)

DASH diet

d)

Mediterranean diet

21.

Which elements characterize the Mediterranean dietary pattern?

a)

Olive oil and whole grains emphasis

b)

Unlimited red meat and processed foods

c)

High saturated fat and added sugar

d)

Fish, vegetables, legumes, nuts

22.

Which medical purpose is associated with the ketogenic diet in clinical settings?

a)

Weight loss for athletes

b)

Control epileptic seizures in children

c)

Lower cholesterol levels in adults

d)

Treat irritable bowel syndrome

23.

Which statement best describes a clear liquid diet?

a)

Only clear liquids you can see through

b)

High-protein shakes plus solid snacks

c)

All liquids including smoothies and milk

d)

Any soft foods and purees allowed

24.

Determinants of food choices commonly include which set?

a)

Culture and family traditions

b)

Climate and availability

c)

Income and food prices

d)

Eye color and hair type

25.

Which macronutrient primarily provides energy and typically contributes 45–65% of daily calories?

a)

Fats for energy storage

b)

Vitamins for immunity

c)

Carbohydrates for energy

d)

Proteins for tissue building

26.

Which is a micronutrient and a key mineral needed for oxygen transport?

a)

Potassium for nerve signals

b)

Vitamin C for immunity

c)

Iron for oxygen transport

d)

Calcium for bone strength

27.

Match each life stage with a primary nutrient need.

a)

Infants

1.

More fat for brain growth

b)

Children

2.

More calcium for bone growth

c)

Pregnant women

3.

More folate for fetal development

d)

Elderly

4.

More Vitamin D and calcium

e)

Athletes

5.

More protein for muscle repair

28.

Which combination best meets dietary needs for celiac disease?

a)

Higher folate supplements

b)

Gluten-free food choices

c)

Low sodium and low fat

d)

Lower carbohydrates intake

29.

Which practice best prevents cross-contamination during safe food handling?

a)

Thaw foods at room temperature

b)

Store raw meat above salads

c)

Cook meats at low temperatures

d)

Use separate cutting boards

30.

Which statement accurately distinguishes cleaning from sanitizing?

a)

Using approved chemicals can sanitize

b)

Cleaning removes visible soil

c)

Rinsing with cold water sanitizes

d)

Sanitizing reduces harmful microbes

31.

Which pathogen group commonly causes foodborne illness from contaminated food or water?

a)

Listeria and Campylobacter bacteria

b)

Beneficial gut microbiota

c)

Worms and protozoa parasites

d)

Salmonella and E. coli bacteria

32.

Which step is part of safety and sanitation procedures for receiving and storing food?

a)

Reheat leftovers before storing

b)

Hold foods at correct temperatures

c)

Wash produce after freezing

d)

Cool foods on countertops

33.

Which component is REQUIRED in a standardized recipe?

a)

Step-by-step instructions

b)

Cooking time and temperature

c)

Exact ingredient measurements

d)

Recipe name and yield

34.

Which nutritional value per serving indicates this recipe is high in protein?

a)

Sodium: 380mg

b)

Carbohydrates: 10g

c)

Fat: 10g total

d)

Protein: 28g per serving

35.

Match each ingredient with its likely macronutrient contribution in the stir-fry.

a)

Boneless chicken breast

1.

Protein source

b)

Vegetable oil

2.

Fat source

c)

Broccoli florets

3.

Micronutrients and fiber

d)

Soy sauce

4.

Sodium and flavor

e)

Cornstarch

5.

Carbohydrate thickener

36.

Which statement best distinguishes MyPlate from the Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGA)?

a)

Detailed evidence-based limits and recommendations

b)

Simple plate visual showing food proportions

c)

Updated comprehensive document every five years

d)

Long-term lifestyle guidance across eating patterns

37.

Which feature is characteristic of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGA)?

a)

Uses a picture to show meal portions

b)

Provides specific sodium and added sugar limits

c)

Shows half fruits/vegetables, quarter grains, quarter protein

d)

Focuses on what your plate should look like

38.

A Nutrition Facts Label primarily helps you do what when choosing foods?

a)

Measure accurate portion sizes at home

b)

Plan weekly shopping lists and coupons

c)

Identify cooking equipment requirements

d)

Check serving size and percent daily values

39.

Which practice supports effective food budgeting for nutritious meals?

a)

Choose premium brands regardless of price

b)

Plan meals to reduce food waste

c)

Buy seasonal produce to save cost

d)

Compare unit prices across brands

40.

Which kitchen choice aligns tools with task accuracy during prep?

a)

Prefer nonstick pans for all cooking methods

b)

Choose sharp knives only for serving dishes

c)

Use measuring tools to ensure correct quantities

d)

Select colorful plates to encourage appetite

41.

Which cooking method best supports nutrient-dense dishes with lower calories?

a)

Bake or steam instead of deep-fry

b)

Use heavy cream sauces generously

c)

Pan-fry in butter for flavor

d)

Glaze with sugar syrups frequently

42.

Match each dietary need with an appropriate modification strategy.

a)

Low-Sodium

1.

Reduce or eliminate added salt

b)

Low-Fat

2.

Reduce fat content in recipes

c)

Gluten-Free

3.

Replace wheat-based ingredients

d)

Vegan

4.

Remove all animal products

43.

Which substitution suits a low-sodium diet when cooking soups?

a)

Add extra table salt for flavor

b)

Choose high-sodium bouillon cubes

c)

Rely on cured meats for seasoning

d)

Use herbs, spices, lemon juice, garlic

44.

Which substitution supports gluten-free baking?

a)

Use rice flour or almond flour

b)

Use more whole wheat flour

c)

Add vital wheat gluten powder

d)

Prefer rye flour for structure

45.

Which modification supports diabetic or low-sugar needs?

a)

Use stevia or monk fruit sweeteners

b)

Avoid fiber to speed digestion

c)

Increase refined carbohydrates

d)

Replace white flour with whole wheat

46.

Which substitution suits dairy-free or lactose-free cooking?

a)

Prefer yogurt in all sauces

b)

Use condensed milk for sweetness

c)

Add extra cheddar cheese

d)

Use almond milk or coconut milk

47.

Which food characteristic best suits toddlers aged 1–3 years?

a)

High spice levels, chewy textures

b)

Large portions, complex flavors

c)

Soft, small pieces, finger foods

d)

Crunchy, hard foods for practice

48.

Which timing strategy supports athletes’ performance and recovery?

a)

Eat carbohydrates before and after exercise

b)

Skip meals to reduce weight quickly

c)

Avoid protein around training sessions

d)

Only hydrate after intense workouts

49.

Which process uses radiation to kill microbes and extend shelf life?

a)

Vertical farming with stacked layers

b)

Freeze-drying under strong vacuum

c)

Food irradiation using radiation

d)

Pasteurization with heat applied

50.

Which pair correctly matches the technology with its primary impact?

a)

GMOs

1.

Pest resistance and faster growth

b)

Pasteurization

2.

Safer milk and juice products

c)

Vertical farming

3.

Year-round indoor crop production

d)

Freeze-drying

4.

Lightweight long-lasting foods

51.

Select all technologies that primarily target microbial safety rather than nutrition or yield.

a)

Pasteurization of liquids

b)

Modified atmosphere packaging

c)

GMOs changing organism genes

d)

Vertical farming with LED lights

e)

Food irradiation of products

52.

In vertical farming, what design feature enables year-round production with less land and water?

a)

Sunlit greenhouses with vents

b)

Open-field soil terraces

c)

Rotating outdoor hydroponic rails

d)

Stacked indoor layers with LEDs

53.

Which innovation most directly helps consumers plan meals and monitor nutrition?

a)

Pasteurization for dairy safety

b)

GMOs for pest resistance

c)

Freeze-drying for preservation

d)

Food apps and technology tools

54.

Freeze-drying primarily benefits foods by creating which outcome?

a)

Lightweight, long-lasting products

b)

Higher protein concentration

c)

Improved pest resistance traits

d)

Reduced sugar crystallization

55.

Which scenario best illustrates protein denaturation in everyday cooking?

a)

Mixing flour and water to form dough

b)

Whipping cream to incorporate air bubbles

c)

Cooking eggs until the whites turn firm

d)

Cooling gelatin to set a dessert

56.

Starch gelatinization primarily occurs under which condition during cooking?

a)

Heat with water causes granules to swell

b)

Oil with high heat dissolves starch

c)

Cold with salt makes granules shrink

d)

Acid without heat prevents swelling

57.

Which process is responsible for the brown color and savory flavor when searing steak?

a)

Caramelization of vegetable sugars

b)

Maillard reaction between proteins and sugars

c)

Emulsification of fats into liquids

d)

Crystallization of dissolved molecules

58.

Emulsification is best described as:

a)

Solidifying liquids through rapid cooling

b)

Combining oil and water using an emulsifier

c)

Separating water from salt solutions

d)

Expanding gases produced by yeast

59.

Which actions help prevent enzymatic browning in cut fruit?

a)

Coat with lemon juice or acid

b)

Expose to warm, dry air

c)

Immerse in cold water briefly

d)

Add baking soda solution

60.

In bread making, gluten formation results in dough that is:

a)

Brittle with crystalline networks

b)

Less elastic and more crumbly

c)

Elastic with structure and chewiness

d)

Watery with increased moisture

61.

Osmosis during brining meat primarily causes what change?

a)

Proteins crosslink to trap gases

b)

Sugars break down into flavorful acids

c)

Water moves from low to high concentration

d)

Water moves from high to low concentration

62.

Crystallization is controlled in candy making to achieve smooth texture by:

a)

Raising protein content in solution

b)

Adding yeast to produce CO2 gas

c)

Preventing formation of grainy crystals

d)

Encouraging large organized crystals

63.

Which careers align with strong communication and empathy skills?

a)

Food scientist and lab technician

b)

Chef and pastry artist

c)

Registered dietitian and nutrition counselor

d)

Research scientist and data analyst

64.

Which are valid steps in evaluating personal assets for nutrition and wellness careers?

a)

Consider skills like science knowledge

b)

Ignore education level and traits

c)

Assess strengths, interests, and values

d)

Match traits to suitable career paths

65.

Which macronutrient primarily provides energy for the brain and muscles and also aids digestion through fiber?

a)

Alcohol for quick energy bursts

b)

Carbohydrates for fuel and fiber

c)

Fats for storage and hormones

d)

Proteins for repair and hormones

66.

Proteins are mainly responsible for which function in the body?

a)

Energy storage and vitamin absorption

b)

Vision and immune support

c)

Repair tissues and build enzymes

d)

Water absorption in the colon

67.

Which food is the best source of healthy fats among these options?

a)

Oils and avocado

b)

Leafy greens and dairy

c)

Grains and fruits

d)

Red meat and eggs

68.

A person experiencing brain fog and fatigue is most likely deficient in which macronutrient?

a)

Water for hydration

b)

Carbohydrates for quick fuel

c)

Proteins for antibodies

d)

Fats for hormone synthesis

69.

Match each vitamin to its primary function.

a)

Vitamin A

1.

Vision and immunity

b)

Vitamin C

2.

Collagen and wound healing

c)

Vitamin D

3.

Bone health via calcium

d)

Vitamin K

4.

Blood clotting

70.

Night blindness is a classic deficiency sign of which vitamin?

a)

Vitamin A for vision

b)

Vitamin C for collagen

c)

Vitamin D for bones

d)

Vitamin K for clotting

71.

Scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums, indicates a deficiency of which nutrient?

a)

Vitamin K enabling prothrombin

b)

Vitamin D enhancing calcium

c)

Vitamin A supporting retina

d)

Vitamin C supporting collagen

72.

Which combination lists common sources of Vitamin D?

a)

Sunlight and fortified milk

b)

Citrus fruits and peppers

c)

Whole grains and legumes

d)

Leafy greens and kale

73.

Match each mineral to its key role.

a)

Calcium

1.

Bones and muscle contraction

b)

Iron

2.

Oxygen transport in blood

c)

Sodium

3.

Fluid balance and nerve signals

d)

Potassium

4.

Heart and muscle function

74.

Which mineral deficiency is most associated with osteoporosis?

a)

Iron from red meat

b)

Calcium from dairy

c)

Zinc from shellfish

d)

Sodium from salt

75.

Pale skin and tiredness due to anemia usually result from low intake of which mineral?

a)

Potassium in bananas

b)

Iron in meats and beans

c)

Sodium in processed foods

d)

Calcium in leafy greens

76.

Excess sodium intake most likely leads to which outcome?

a)

Cramps and high blood pressure

b)

Slow wound healing

c)

Rickets and weak bones

d)

Goiter and swollen neck

77.

Muscle cramps can result from low levels of which mineral found in bananas and potatoes?

a)

Zinc for immunity

b)

Iron for hemoglobin

c)

Potassium for muscles

d)

Calcium for bones

78.

Goiter, a swollen neck, indicates deficiency of which mineral crucial for thyroid hormone production?

a)

Calcium from milk

b)

Sodium from salt

c)

Zinc from nuts

d)

Iodine from iodized salt

79.

Slow healing and weak immunity may signal deficiency of which mineral commonly found in meat, shellfish, and nuts?

a)

Iron aiding oxygen

b)

Zinc aiding healing

c)

Iodine aiding thyroid

d)

Sodium aiding fluid

80.

Approximately what proportion of nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine?

a)

About 75 percent

b)

About 50 percent

c)

About 100 percent

d)

About 90 percent

81.

Which statement best describes transport of fat‑soluble nutrients after absorption?

a)

Remain in intestinal lumen

b)

Enter lymph first then blood

c)

Directly enter bloodstream then liver

d)

Excreted via large intestine

82.

Match each energy concept to its definition.

a)

Caloric values

1.

Energy in food measured in calories

b)

Energy balance

2.

Relationship of intake vs expenditure

c)

Caloric surplus

3.

Eating more than burned

d)

Caloric deficit

4.

Eating fewer than burned

e)

Maintenance

5.

Intake equals expenditure

83.

Which macronutrient provides 9 calories per gram?

a)

Carbohydrates at four

b)

Proteins at four

c)

Fats at nine

d)

Alcohol at seven

84.

A person gains weight when consistently in which state?

a)

Caloric deficit occurs

b)

Maintenance achieved

c)

Energy balance equals

d)

Caloric surplus occurs

85.

Roughly 3,500 excess calories are equivalent to storing about how much body fat?

a)

Half a pound of fat

b)

One pound of fat

c)

Two pounds of fat

d)

Three pounds of fat

86.

Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) typically accounts for what proportion of daily energy needs in adults?

a)

20 to 35 percent

b)

40 to 55 percent

c)

60 to 75 percent

d)

80 to 95 percent

87.

Which nutrient is primarily needed to carry oxygen in the blood and prevent fatigue from anemia?

a)

Vitamin D for serotonin

b)

Protein for collagen

c)

Iron for hemoglobin

d)

Calcium for bone storage

88.

The brain relies on which macronutrient for most of its energy, with deficiency causing poor concentration and mood swings?

a)

Fiber as prebiotics

b)

Fatty acids as ketones

c)

Protein as amino acids

d)

Carbohydrates as glucose

89.

Which vitamins require dietary fat for proper absorption? Select all that apply.

a)

Vitamin A fat-soluble

b)

Vitamin D fat-soluble

c)

Vitamin C water-soluble

d)

Vitamin K fat-soluble

90.

Which dietary strategy is most appropriate for planning meals for someone who needs to control blood sugar levels?

a)

Drink fruit juice often

b)

Skip meals to lower glucose

c)

Pair carbs with protein or fat

d)

Choose simple sugars frequently

91.

Which combination of recommendations best supports a diabetic-friendly meal plan? Select all that apply.

a)

Avoid sugary drinks consistently

b)

Prefer refined carbs over fiber

c)

Keep consistent meal timing

d)

Use complex carbs like whole grains

92.

Which nutrient adds bulk to stool, feeds beneficial gut bacteria, and slows sugar absorption to prevent spikes?

a)

Calcium supplements

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Protein shakes

d)

Fiber in foods

93.

Two cereals list similar calories per serving. Cereal A: 3 g fiber, 12 g sugar; Cereal B: 6 g fiber, 8 g sugar. Which is the healthier choice based on label basics?

a)

Cereal B: lower fiber, higher sugar

b)

Cereal A: similar fiber, similar sugar

c)

Cereal B: higher fiber, lower sugar

d)

Cereal A: lower fiber, higher sugar

94.

A yogurt labeled "low-fat" tastes sweet. What is the most likely label issue to check before choosing it?

a)

Check protein percent daily value

b)

Check added sugar grams per serving

c)

Check total calories without serving size

d)

Check sodium milligrams for blood pressure

95.

Which label feature most strongly suggests a granola bar is more like candy?

a)

Multiple sugars listed in ingredients

b)

Whole grains listed as first

c)

Protein content stays similar

d)

Fortified vitamins A and D

96.

Reading % Daily Value: which statement is accurate for planning a balanced day?

a)

5% DV means high in that nutrient

b)

20% DV or more indicates high

c)

%DV is unrelated to fiber intake

d)

%DV is only for calories

97.

A student without celiac disease considers buying gluten-free crackers. What is the best reasoning?

a)

Gluten-free is always lower calorie

b)

Gluten-free may have less fiber

c)

Gluten-free improves protein quality

d)

Gluten-free guarantees more vitamins

98.

A teen athlete feels constant fatigue and lab tests show low hemoglobin. Which dietary change best addresses the likely cause?

a)

Increase water only without food

b)

Avoid all fats to improve oxygen

c)

Cut total calories to reduce fatigue

d)

Increase iron-rich foods and vitamin C

99.

A person has chronic constipation. Which two strategies are most appropriate first-line?

a)

Increase fiber from whole grains

b)

Drink more water daily

c)

Use high-sodium snacks

d)

Avoid all physical activity

100.

An elderly person is unintentionally losing weight due to decreased appetite. Which plan is most appropriate?

a)

Nutrient-dense small frequent meals

b)

Only increase water without food

c)

Strict fasting to stimulate appetite

d)

Large infrequent meals with low calories

101.

Which pairing correctly matches nutrient to primary function?

a)

Carbohydrates

1.

Main energy source; fiber aids digestion

b)

Proteins

2.

Build and repair tissues; make enzymes

c)

Fats (Lipids)

3.

Concentrated energy; absorb fat-soluble vitamins

d)

Vitamins

4.

Support immunity, healing, hormone regulation

102.

Which snack choice shows smart label reading when comparing two granola bars?

a)

Choose higher fiber, lower added sugar

b)

Prefer bars with multiple sugar types

c)

Choose lowest calories regardless sugar

d)

Ignore ingredients list and %DV

103.

Before a competition, which pre-game meal timing and composition reduces cramping risk?

a)

High-fiber meal 30 minutes before

b)

Low-fat, moderate protein 3–4 hours before

c)

High-fat meal immediately before

d)

No carbs until after competition

104.

Bleeding gums, easy bruising, and poor wound healing point to which deficiency disease?

a)

Scurvy

b)

Megaloblastic anemia

c)

Beriberi

d)

Pellagra

105.

Tingling, numbness, and heart problems are most associated with which deficiency?

a)

Vitamin B9 (Folate) – anemia

b)

Vitamin B1 (Thiamin) – Beriberi

c)

Vitamin B12 – pernicious anemia

d)

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) – Pellagra

106.

The 4 D’s—dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, death—summarize which deficiency?

a)

Niacin deficiency (Pellagra)

b)

Folate deficiency anemia

c)

Vitamin E deficiency

d)

Thiamin deficiency (Beriberi)

107.

Fatigue and neural tube defects during pregnancy are linked to deficiency of which vitamin?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin B9 (Folate)

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin D

108.

Memory loss, numbness, and anemia in vegans often indicate deficiency of which vitamin?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin E

109.

Muscle and nerve damage with rare vision problems can result from deficiency of which vitamin?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin E

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin K

110.

Match each vitamin deficiency to its primary disease name.

a)

Vitamin A

1.

Night blindness

b)

Vitamin C

2.

Scurvy

c)

Vitamin D

3.

Rickets/Osteomalacia

d)

Vitamin B1 (Thiamin)

4.

Beriberi

111.

Limited sun exposure and dark skin in northern regions increase risk for which deficiency?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Vitamin D

112.

Smokers and elderly with low fruit and vegetable intake are prone to which deficiency disease?

a)

Beriberi

b)

Scurvy

c)

Pernicious anemia

d)

Pellagra

113.

Which mineral deficiency commonly leads to anemia with fatigue, pale skin, and brittle nails?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Iron

c)

Calcium

d)

Zinc

114.

A swollen thyroid (goiter) and weight gain suggest deficiency of which mineral?

a)

Iodine

b)

Zinc

c)

Fluoride

d)

Magnesium

115.

Muscle cramps, irregular heartbeat, migraines, and anxiety are associated with deficiency of which mineral?

a)

Sodium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Iron

d)

Fluoride

116.

Diuretic use and vomiting increase risk for which mineral deficiency causing weakness and arrhythmias?

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Iron

117.

Hyponatremia most likely presents with which symptoms?

a)

Confusion

b)

Seizures

c)

Nausea

d)

Dermatitis

118.

Non-fluoridated water areas have higher risk of which dental issues due to mineral deficiency?

a)

Cavitation of bones

b)

Tooth decay and weak enamel

c)

Bleeding gums and bruising

d)

Irregular heartbeat and cramps

119.

Which symptoms best align with the common deficiency of vitamin D?

a)

Hair loss

b)

Weak bones

c)

Depression

d)

Poor immunity

120.

Identify at-risk groups for iron deficiency anemia.

a)

Children

b)

Pregnant individuals

c)

Vegetarians

d)

Menstruating women

121.

Which groups are at higher risk for vitamin B12 deficiency?

a)

Premature infants

b)

People with Crohn's disease

c)

Elderly

d)

Vegans

122.

A newborn with excessive bleeding and a mother on blood thinners raises concern for deficiency of which vitamin?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin E

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin A

123.

Which deficiency is most likely in an alcoholic with confusion, tingling, and heart problems?

a)

Niacin deficiency (Pellagra)

b)

Thiamin deficiency (Beriberi)

c)

Vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy)

d)

Folate deficiency anemia

124.

Which deficiency is most consistent with fatigue, depression, and megaloblastic anemia?

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Folate (Vitamin B9)

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin K

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QUIZ 2

120 questions

QUIZ 2

quiz

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12th Grade