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Sports Medicine 1-2 Semester 1 EOCA

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Plantarflexion points the toes upward.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The “three column” concept is used to assess stability of:

a)

Thoracolumbar fractures

b)

Cervical sprain

c)

Facet dislocation

d)

Sacroiliac dysfunction

3.

Spondylolysis is most commonly caused by:

a)

Repetitive hyperextension

b)

Axial loading

c)

Hyperflexion

d)

Lateral bending

4.

A sign of shock may include:

a)

Pale, cool, and clammy skin

b)

High fever

c)

Bruising

d)

Blisters

5.

The prefix "sub-" means below or under.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

An exposure incident should always be:

a)

Ignored

b)

Immediately reported and documented

c)

Reported only if severe

d)

Cleaned with water

7.

Which is a common sign of shock?

a)

Warm, dry skin

b)

Pale, cool, clammy skin

c)

Red rash

d)

Slow pulse

8.

Which region is most at risk for burst fractures due to transition from stable to mobile?

a)

T12-L2

b)

C1-C2

c)

L5-S1

d)

T7-T9

9.

Blisters are caused by:

a)

Heat and friction

b)

Bleeding

c)

Infections

d)

Poison

10.

Proper hydration can help prevent heat illness.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which of the following is NOT a vital sign?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Pain level

c)

Temperature

d)

Flexibility

12.

What is another name for the forehead?

a)

Frontal Bone

b)

Occipital Bone

c)

Temporal Bone

d)

Parietal Bone

13.

An exposure incident should be:

a)

Ignored if minor

b)

Properly reported and documented

c)

Only reported to friends

d)

Handled by the athlete

14.

"Distal" means:

a)

Closer to the trunk

b)

Away from the point of attachment

c)

On the same side

d)

Toward the head

15.

Which region of the spine contains the greatest number of vertebrae?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

16.

A positive straight leg raise (SLR) test may indicate:

a)

Lumbar nerve root compression

b)

Thoracic outlet syndrome

c)

Cervical radiculopathy

d)

Facet joint arthritis

17.

Taping and wrapping can help:

a)

Prevent injuries

b)

Support injuries

c)

Limit swelling

d)

All of the above

18.

In adolescents, the most common cause of structural kyphosis is:

a)

Scheuermann’s disease

b)

Postural habits

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Disk infection

19.

The prefix "tachy-" means:

a)

Slow

b)

Fast

c)

Normal

d)

Small

20.

The EAP should be tailored for each sport venue.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

"-pathy" is a suffix that means disease.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What does "Hx" stand for in a patient’s medical record?

a)

Hygiene

b)

Health

c)

History

d)

Hospitalization

23.

A positive femoral nerve stretch test indicates possible:

a)

Upper lumbar nerve root irritation

b)

Cervical nerve impingement

c)

Hip joint infection

d)

Brachial plexus injury

24.

Cervical myelopathy often presents with:

a)

Progressive gait disturbance

b)

Isolated low back pain

c)

Ankle swelling

d)

Hamstring cramp

25.

The EAP should be practiced and reviewed regularly.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Asthma attacks may be triggered by:

a)

Allergens

b)

Exercise

c)

Air pollution

d)

All of the above

27.

The ImPACT test is primarily used to assess:

a)

Jaw function

b)

Cognitive function after concussion

28.

The most common site for a herniated cervical disc is:

a)

C1-C2

b)

C2-C3

c)

C5-C6

d)

C7-T1

29.

The ratio for adult CPR is 30 compressions to 2 breaths.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

"Inferior" means closer to the feet or below.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is a key risk factor for post-concussion syndrome?

a)

Prior concussion

b)

No sleep issues

c)

Only males

d)

Having the flu

32.

Which of the following is a sign of frostbite?

a)

Red, warm skin

b)

Pale, hard, cold skin

c)

Sweating

d)

Rapid pulse

33.

PPE stands for:

a)

Personal Patient Equipment

b)

Personal Protective Equipment

c)

Patient Protection Essentials

d)

Patient Positioning Equipment

34.

Which ligament is most responsible for preventing excessive forward flexion?

a)

Interspinous ligament

b)

Anterior longitudinal ligament

c)

Transverse ligament

d)

Flavum ligament

35.

Which term describes rotation of the forearm so the palm faces down?

a)

Pronation

b)

Supination

c)

Flexion

d)

Eversion

36.

Which cranial nerve is tested by asking an athlete to identify common scents?

a)

Optic (II)

b)

Olfactory (I)

c)

Trigeminal (V)

d)

Facial (VII)

37.

A pulse oximeter measures:

a)

Circulatory status

b)

Lung sounds

c)

Blood oxygen saturation

d)

Blood sugar levels

38.

Which prefix means "around"?

a)

Peri-

b)

Endo-

c)

Epi-

d)

Sub-

39.

Forward pelvic tilt and increased lumbar curve indicate:

a)

Hyperlordosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Hypolordosis

d)

Scoliosis

40.

When using a spine board, the most important step is:

a)

Speed

b)

Communication and teamwork

c)

Lifting alone

d)

Ignoring the patient’s comfort

41.

Which of the following is NOT considered a body fluid requiring universal precautions?

a)

Saliva

b)

Sweat

c)

Blood

d)

Feces

42.

Which sport has the highest rate of concussion according to NCAA data?

a)

Football

b)

Women’s Soccer

c)

Golf

d)

Track and field

43.

What is the only way to definitively diagnose Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy (CTE)?

a)

Blood test

b)

MRI

c)

Post-mortem brain tissue examination

d)

SCAT5

44.

Acute emergency care for stroke includes:

a)

Immediate medical attention

b)

Rest and hydration

c)

Massage therapy

d)

Vigorous exercise

45.

The "raccoon eyes" sign in facial trauma indicates:

a)

Periorbital bruising

b)

Tooth fracture

46.

Which wound is caused by a sharp, straight cut?

a)

Abrasion

b)

Laceration

c)

Incision

d)

Puncture

47.

The suffix "-megaly" means:

a)

Small

b)

Inflammation

c)

Enlargement

d)

Condition

48.

The vertebral artery test is performed to:

a)

Screen for vascular compromise during neck rotation

b)

Assess for lumbar disc herniation

c)

Check for scoliosis

d)

Evaluate hip range of motion

49.

Heat stroke is considered a:

a)

Life-threatening emergency

b)

Mild inconvenience

c)

Non-emergency

d)

Chronic illness

50.

First aid kits should include:

a)

Bandages

b)

Gloves

c)

Scissors

d)

All of the above

51.

Seizure care includes moving objects away from the person and protecting their head.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

The anatomical position is standing, facing forward, arms at the sides, palms facing backward.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Direct pressure is the most effective way to control bleeding.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which is a classic symptom of sacroiliac joint dysfunction?

a)

One-sided buttock pain

b)

Radiating arm pain

c)

Jaw clenching

d)

Night sweats

55.

Second impact syndrome is:

a)

Usually mild

b)

Occurs when a second head injury happens before recovery

c)

Never fatal

d)

A jaw disorder

56.

A positive stork test suggests:

a)

Spondylolysis

b)

Facet syndrome

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Whiplash

57.

Which of the following is a common prevention strategy for cervical spine injuries in football?

a)

Teaching proper tackling technique

b)

Using only chin straps

c)

Avoiding all upper body exercises

d)

Focusing on ankle flexibility

58.

Which force can cause a concussion without direct head contact?

a)

Rotational force

b)

Direct impact

c)

Transmitted force from the body

d)

All of the above

59.

AED pads should never be placed over a medication patch or pacemaker.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Central cord syndrome most often causes:

a)

Greater arm weakness than leg weakness

b)

Greater leg weakness than arm weakness

c)

Only sensory loss

d)

No neurological symptoms

61.

Which tool is most validated for sideline concussion assessment?

a)

Glasgow Coma Scale

b)

SCAT5

c)

MRI

d)

Blood test

62.

The earliest stage in a return-to-sports protocol after concussion is:

a)

Full practice

b)

Sport-specific drills

c)

Rest without symptom triggers

d)

Full competition

63.

Which is a common sign of acute injury?

a)

Immediate swelling

b)

Gradual onset

c)

No pain

d)

Decreased temperature

64.

Fainting is best managed by:

a)

Laying the person down and elevating the legs

b)

Giving food

c)

Forcing the person to stand

d)

Ignoring them

65.

Ankylosing spondylitis is:

a)

An inflammatory spinal fusion disorder

b)

A ligament tear

c)

Muscle strain

d)

Vertebral fracture

66.

The suffix "-itis" indicates:

a)

Enlargement

b)

Tumor

c)

Inflammation

d)

Pain

67.

What brain scan is usually used to diagnose a concussion?

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

No brain scan—diagnosed by symptoms

d)

X-ray

68.

A concussion is:

a)

A scrape

b)

A bruise

c)

A puncture

d)

A burn

69.

Neck strengthening exercises are best included in prevention programs for:

a)

Contact sport athletes

b)

Distance runners

c)

Swimmers only

d)

Shot put athletes

70.

The "cauda equina" refers to:

a)

Bundle of nerve roots at the lower end of the spinal cord

b)

A ligament in the neck

c)

Muscles in the trunk

d)

Facet joints

71.

Which posture abnormality is characterized by an exaggerated forward curve in the thoracic spine?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Flat back

72.

The temporomandibular joint (TMJ):

a)

Is a fixed joint

b)

Connects the jawbone to the skull

73.

SDS stands for:

a)

Sanitation and Disinfectant Solutions

b)

Safety Data Sheet

c)

Standard Disease Symptoms

d)

Safety Device System

74.

Sanitation involves both cleaning and disinfecting surfaces.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

What is the primary role of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

a)

Prevent excessive backward bending

b)

Limit forward bending

c)

Support rib articulation

d)

Protect spinal cord

76.

The best way to stop bleeding from a facial laceration is:

a)

Direct pressure

b)

Cold compress only

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Holding the wound open

77.

Which is NOT a typical symptom of cervical sprain/strain?

a)

Localized pain

b)

Muscle spasm

c)

Sudden fever

d)

Restricted mobility

78.

Hand-washing should last for at least:

a)

10 seconds

b)

20 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

5 seconds

79.

Which cranial nerve controls facial expressions such as smiling or frowning?

a)

Abducens (VI)

b)

Oculomotor (III)

c)

Facial (VII)

d)

Vagus (X)

80.

The dens (odontoid process) is found on which vertebra?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

T1

d)

L1

81.

A nasal bone fracture typically presents with:

a)

Swelling and bleeding

b)

No symptoms

82.

Which is a red flag in spinal injury assessment?

a)

Saddle anesthesia

b)

Soreness after exercise

c)

Pain only at night

d)

Slight postural deviation

83.

Universal precautions require treating all body fluids as if they are infectious.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

"ACL" is an acronym for Anterior Cruciate Ligament.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Child and infant CPR differ from adult CPR in:

a)

Compression depth

b)

Compression technique

c)

Number of hands used

d)

All of the above

86.

A person with heat exhaustion should:

a)

Drink plenty of fluids and move to a cool area

b)

Exercise harder

c)

Take a hot shower

d)

Skip fluids

87.

The masseter muscle is primarily responsible for:

a)

Smiling

b)

Chewing

c)

Blinking

d)

Speaking

88.

Signs of infection in a wound include:

a)

Redness and swelling

b)

Pus or discharge

c)

Increased pain

d)

All of the above

89.

The main goal in transporting an injured patient is to:

a)

Move quickly

b)

Maintain spinal alignment and prevent further injury

c)

Move without equipment

d)

Ignore patient comfort

90.

Which cervical fracture is caused by axial compression and can result in a ring fracture of C1?

a)

Jefferson fracture

b)

Hangman’s fracture

c)

Clay-shoveler’s fracture

d)

Burst fracture

91.

The movement that increases the angle between two bones is called:

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Abduction

d)

Rotation

92.

Female athletes are at higher risk for concussion because:

a)

Neck-to-head size ratio is smaller

b)

They play different sports

c)

Shorter recovery times

d)

Hormonal factors only

93.

Anatomical splinting uses another body part for support.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

When checking a patient’s pupils, you are assessing:

a)

Their temperature

b)

Neurological function

c)

Heart rate

d)

Oxygen saturation

95.

What is the correct rate for chest compressions in adult CPR?

a)

30 per minute

b)

60 per minute

c)

100-120 per minute

d)

200 per minute

96.

What is the primary purpose of using disinfectants in the emergency care area?

a)

To remove dust

b)

To kill germs and reduce infection risk

c)

To add fragrance

d)

To dry surfaces

97.

Which symptom is most concerning after suspected spinal cord injury?

a)

Bilateral limb numbness

b)

Slight muscle soreness

c)

Mild headache

d)

Local bruising

98.

Gauze pads are useful for controlling bleeding.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Which structure allows spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column?

a)

Intervertebral foramen

b)

Spinous process

c)

Vertebral body

d)

Supraspinous ligament

100.

A properly fitted helmet is important in spine injury prevention because it:

a)

Distributes impact forces and limits head movement

b)

Makes the athlete faster

c)

Improves posture

d)

Replaces other protective gear

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