wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

A. Introduction to Corporate Finance (1–15)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary objective of financial management in a company is...

a)

Increase net profit

b)

Maximize sales

c)

Maximize firm value

d)

Minimize operating costs

2.

The conflict of interest between managers and shareholders is called...

a)

Capital conflict

b)

Agency problem

c)

Market risk

d)

Strategic bias

3.

In a company’s organizational structure, the CFO is responsible for...

a)

Marketing

b)

Product development

c)

Investment and financing decisions

d)

Human resources oversight

4.

An example of an investment decision is...

a)

Taking a bank loan

b)

Determining dividends

c)

Building a new plant

d)

Issuing bonds

5.

The primary market is a place where...

a)

Shares are traded among investors

b)

Companies issue new securities

c)

Investors resell old shares

d)

Foreign exchange is traded

6.

A good financing decision aims to...

a)

Increase fixed assets

b)

Reduce operational risk

c)

Minimize cost of capital

d)

Reduce corporate taxes

7.

Systematic risk is a risk that...

a)

Can be eliminated through diversification

b)

Occurs only in certain industries

c)

Is driven by overall market conditions

d)

Comes from managers’ internal decisions

8.

An example of unsystematic risk is...

a)

Inflation

b)

Economic recession

c)

Government policy

d)

A worker strike at the company

9.

Agency cost arises because...

a)

Information is asymmetric

b)

Sales decline

c)

Operating costs increase

d)

The capital structure is not optimal

10.

In corporate finance, “capital budgeting” means...

a)

Managing daily cash

b)

Analyzing investment projects

c)

Calculating taxes owed

d)

Selling company assets

11.

The cost of capital is influenced by...

a)

Market interest rates

b)

Dividends distributed

c)

Operating expenditures

d)

Raw material prices

12.

A company’s profit is maximized when...

a)

Production volume increases

b)

The market value of the stock increases

c)

Operating expenses are reduced

d)

All debt is fully repaid

13.

Good corporate governance helps reduce...

a)

Stock returns

b)

Systematic risk

c)

Agency cost

d)

The inflation rate

14.

The owners of a company are...

a)

Managers

b)

Employees

c)

Shareholders

d)

The president director

15.

Preferred stock has characteristics similar to...

a)

Bonds

b)

Common stock

c)

Derivatives

d)

Bank deposits

16.

The basic NPV formula is...

a)

PV − Cost

b)

PV + Cost

c)

IRR × Cost

d)

Cash flow ÷ Cost

17.

A project is accepted if its NPV is...

a)

Negative

b)

Zero

c)

Greater than zero

d)

Less than IRR

18.

An advantage of IRR is that it is...

a)

Easy to compare across projects

b)

Does not require a cost of capital

c)

Never creates conflicting decisions

d)

Not sensitive to cash flows

19.

The payback method ignores...

a)

Risk

b)

Initial cash flow

c)

Time value of money

d)

Payback period

20.

If the payback period is longer than the company’s cutoff, the project should be...

a)

Accepted

b)

Postponed

c)

Rejected

d)

Re-evaluated using IRR

21.

Discounted payback is better than simple payback because it...

a)

Ignores risk

b)

Uses the time value of money

c)

Requires shorter calculations

d)

Does not need a discount rate

22.

Ranking conflicts between NPV and IRR usually occur in...

a)

Independent projects

b)

Projects with conventional cash flows

c)

Mutually exclusive projects

d)

Short-term projects

23.

Profitability Index equals...

a)

PV + Cost

b)

Cost + PV

c)

PV × Cost

d)

PV − Cost

24.

If PI > 1, it means...

a)

NPV is positive

b)

IRR is negative

c)

The project is rejected

d)

Cash flows are uncertain

25.

IRR is...

a)

The discount rate that makes NPV = 0

b)

Future cash flows

c)

The minimum cost of capital

d)

A profitability ratio

26.

If two projects are mutually exclusive, the one chosen should have the...

a)

Largest PI

b)

Fastest payback

c)

Largest NPV

d)

Largest IRR

27.

NPV sensitivity can be analyzed through...

a)

Payback

b)

Scenario analysis

c)

Depreciation expense

d)

Income statement

28.

If the discount rate increases, NPV will...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

Be unaffected

29.

A project with nonconventional cash flows can produce...

a)

Multiple IRRs

b)

A negative PI

c)

A constant NPV

d)

A faster payback

30.

IRR can be misleading if a project has...

a)

Conventional cash flows

b)

Small initial cost

c)

Many sign changes in cash flows

d)

A low discount rate

31.

If NPV = 0, the project...

a)

Generates a return equal to the cost of capital

b)

Harms the company

c)

Is assumed to be accepted

d)

Generates no cash flows

32.

A weakness of the PI is that it is...

a)

Not using the time value of money

b)

Not suitable for mutually exclusive projects

c)

Ignoring terminal cash flows

d)

Producing many IRR values

33.

Payback does not take into account...

a)

Time

b)

Cash flows

c)

Risk

d)

Cash flows after the payback period

34.

Capital budgeting is primarily used for...

a)

Long-term projects

b)

Working capital management

c)

Issuing stock

d)

Tax management

35.

If IRR > cost of capital, then the project is...

a)

NPV negative

b)

Feasible

c)

Cash flows are too small

d)

Rejected

36.

Relevant cash flow is

a)

A sunk cost

b)

An opportunity cost

c)

Historical depreciation

d)

Loan interest

37.

A sunk cost is a cost that

a)

Cannot be changed

b)

Is influenced by the project decision

c)

Must be included in the analysis

d)

Will occur in the future

38.

A project side effect can be

a)

Erosion (cannibalization)

b)

Depreciation

c)

Deferred tax

d)

Long‑term debt

39.

Opportunity cost arises because

a)

Assets have alternative value

b)

Taxes increase

c)

Depreciation grows

d)

Cash flow changes

40.

Working capital will return in

a)

The first year

b)

The final year of the project

c)

The second year

d)

Never

41.

The benefit of depreciation is

a)

A reduction in cash flow

b)

A reduction in taxes

c)

An increase in profit

d)

An increase in debt

42.

Terminal cash flow includes

a)

Sunk cost

b)

Salvage value

c)

Marketing cost

d)

Production cost

43.

Capital budgeting is based on

a)

Cash flow

b)

Net income

c)

Dividends

d)

Stock price

44.

Interest expense is excluded from project cash flow because it is

a)

Not relevant

b)

Already captured in the cost of capital

c)

Not reducing taxes

d)

Not affecting NPV

45.

Incremental cash flow is

a)

The firm’s total cash flow

b)

The cash flow that changes due to the project

c)

Gross profit

d)

Short‑term cash flow

46.

A tax shield comes from

a)

Depreciation

b)

Sales

c)

Debt

d)

Amortization only

47.

If an asset is sold above book value, there will be

a)

No tax

b)

A capital gains tax

c)

Higher depreciation

d)

An increase in working capital

48.

Operating cash flow is calculated as

a)

EBIT + Taxes

b)

EBIT × Taxes

c)

EBIT − Taxes

d)

EBIT + Depreciation − Taxes

49.

Working capital includes

a)

Fixed assets

b)

Current assets minus current liabilities

c)

Equity capital

d)

Long‑term debt

50.

An example of a sunk cost is

a)

Previous research expenditure

b)

Future marketing expense

c)

Production cost

51.

Erosion occurs when a new project affects existing products. When does erosion happen?

a)

A new project increases sales

b)

A new project reduces sales of an existing product

c)

An old project becomes inefficient

d)

Cash flow becomes stagnant

52.

Project analysis does not use accounting profit because it fails to represent a key measure. Why is accounting profit not used?

a)

It is too complicated

b)

It focuses more on market value

c)

It does not reflect cash flow

d)

Taxes are too large

53.

Capital expenditures are recorded as what?

a)

Direct cash expenses

b)

Long‑term investments

c)

Interest expenses

d)

Revenue

54.

At the start of a project, a change in net working capital (NWC) is treated as what?

a)

An outflow

b)

An inflow

c)

Not recorded

d)

A reduction in capital

55.

Opportunity costs must be included because they represent what?

a)

No effect

b)

The value of a foregone alternative

c)

Unmeasured items

d)

No cash flow generated

56.

Sensitivity analysis is conducted by doing what?

a)

Changing all variables at once

b)

Changing one variable at a time

c)

Changing only the discount rate

d)

Adding fixed cost

57.

Scenario analysis considers what?

a)

Random variables

b)

Multiple variable changes simultaneously

c)

Changes in depreciation only

d)

Risk shifting

58.

Break‑even analysis seeks to find what?

a)

The point where NPV is zero

b)

The maximum IRR point

c)

The minimum sales level for profit to equal 00

d)

The point where cash flow is most negative

59.

The Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) indicates what?

a)

The sensitivity of EBIT to changes in volume

b)

The sensitivity of cash flow to taxes

c)

The company’s total debt

d)

Depreciation expense

60.

As DOL increases, what happens?

a)

Operational risk increases

b)

Risk decreases

c)

Profit becomes stable

d)

Stock price becomes stable

61.

Project risk increases when which condition holds?

a)

Cash flow variance is small

b)

Fixed costs are low

c)

Cash flows are more uncertain

d)

Sales are stable

62.

Monte Carlo simulation is used to do what?

a)

Eliminate risk

b)

Increase risk

c)

Generate probabilistic distributions

d)

Calculate depreciation

63.

Negative operating cash flow can cause what?

a)

IRR to increase

b)

The project to be halted

c)

Depreciation to rise

d)

Taxes to fall

64.

The basic risk of a project is what?

a)

Company‑specific risk

b)

Market risk

c)

Systematic risk

d)

The inherent risk of the project

65.

Sensitivity analysis helps reveal what?

a)

The most influential variable

b)

Stock market values

c)

The inflation rate

d)

The cost of raw materials

66.

If a project is highly sensitive to the selling price, what does that imply?

a)

Selling price is unimportant

b)

Risk is low

c)

Small price changes greatly affect NPV

d)

IRR remains constant

67.

Financial break‑even occurs when which condition holds?

a)

Net income equals 00

b)

NPV equals 00

c)

Cash flow equals 00

d)

EBIT equals 00

68.

Sensitivity analysis does not show which of the following?

a)

The range of outcomes

b)

Critical variables

c)

Uncertainty across many variables

d)

The effect of a single variable

69.

If cash flow variance is high, what does that indicate?

a)

A safe project

b)

High risk

c)

NPV will surely rise

d)

Low sensitivity

70.

Project evaluation aims to do what?

a)

Increase debt

b)

Reduce taxes

c)

Measure economic feasibility

d)

Expand assets

71.

Scenario analysis typically consists of which set of cases?

a)

Best–worst–most likely

b)

Best–expected

c)

Worst–NPV

d)

Profit–loss

72.

In sensitivity analysis, the variable most often tested is

a)

Selling price

b)

Director’s salary

c)

Future tax expense

d)

Interest expense

73.

If cash flow is deterministic, then

a)

Risk is zero

b)

Risk is high

c)

IRR is negative

d)

NPV is not valid

74.

Project evaluation considers

a)

Risk

b)

Cash flow

c)

Time value of money

d)

All of the above

75.

A company’s operations with large fixed costs tend to have

a)

Low risk

b)

High risk

c)

Profits that are certainly stable

d)

No leverage

76.

Cost of capital is

a)

An operating cost

b)

The cost of obtaining funds

c)

Retained earnings

d)

The product’s selling price

77.

WACC accounts for

a)

Only debt

b)

Only equity

c)

All sources of financing

d)

Cash and cash equivalents

78.

Cost of debt is calculated from

a)

Nominal interest

b)

After‑tax interest

c)

Dividends

d)

Net income

79.

The cost of equity can be estimated using the model

a)

CAPM

b)

Payback

c)

IRR

d)

Break‑even

80.

CAPM considers the following factors, except

a)

Beta

b)

Risk‑free rate

c)

Market risk premium

d)

Dividends

81.

If beta increases, the cost of equity

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Remains constant

d)

Does not change

82.

Taxes make the cost of debt

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Unchanged

d)

Irrelevant

83.

The optimal capital structure is

a)

Maximum debt

b)

Maximum equity

c)

A combination that minimizes WACC

d)

A combination that maximizes risk

84.

The cost of preferred stock is computed as

a)

Dividend divided by price

b)

Price divided by dividend

c)

Interest plus price

d)

Beta times dividend

85.

WACC is used for

a)

Project evaluation

b)

Depreciation calculation

c)

Operational control

d)

Share issuance

86.

If the proportion of debt increases, the WACC will…

a)

Always decrease

b)

Always increase

c)

Decrease first and then increase

d)

Remain unchanged

87.

Beta measures…

a)

Unsystematic risk

b)

Systematic risk

c)

Total risk

d)

Tax risk

88.

The most expensive source of financing is…

a)

Debt

b)

Preferred stock

c)

Common stock

d)

Bonds

89.

If a firm uses more debt, then…

a)

Equity risk increases

b)

Equity risk decreases

c)

Equity beta decreases

d)

Cost of debt increases

90.

WACC increases when…

a)

Cost of equity decreases

b)

Cost of debt decreases

c)

The proportion of expensive financing increases

d)

The proportion of debt increases

91.

Financial leverage is the use of…

a)

Current assets

b)

Debt to enhance returns

c)

New shares

d)

Depreciation

92.

Trade-off theory states that a firm chooses its capital structure with…

a)

Zero debt

b)

An optimum between the tax benefits of debt and bankruptcy costs

c)

Maximum debt

d)

Maximum equity

93.

Pecking order theory states that firms prefer funding from…

a)

Debt first

b)

Equity first

c)

Internal funds first

d)

Preferred stock first

94.

Financial distress occurs when…

a)

Profit increases

b)

Debt is too high

c)

Liquidity increases

d)

Taxes decrease

95.

If leverage increases, EPS becomes…

a)

Always lower

b)

Constant

c)

More sensitive to EBIT

d)

Unchanged

96.

A high debt-to-equity ratio indicates…

a)

Low risk

b)

High risk

c)

Large equity

d)

No debt

97.

Debt provides the benefit of…

a)

Interest expense

b)

Tax shield

c)

Market risk

d)

High beta

98.

If the industry is very risky, the appropriate capital structure is…

a)

High debt

b)

Low debt

c)

Zero debt

d)

Zero equity

99.

A company with stable cash flows tends to…

a)

Use more debt

b)

Avoid debt

c)

Pay smaller dividends

d)

Never issue shares

100.

The goal of an optimal capital structure is to…

a)

Increase the interest burden

b)

Reduce profit

c)

Minimize WACC and maximize firm value

d)

Reduce the stock price