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US History Midterm Study Guide — Extracted Questions

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the study guide, what did the Homestead Act (1862) give to settlers if they farmed it for 5 years, encouraging westward expansion?

a)

160 acres of free land

b)

A federal wage for farm labor

c)

A railroad voucher

d)

Citizenship for immigrants

2.

What was a major effect of the Transcontinental Railroad (1869) as listed in the guide?

a)

It isolated the East from the West

b)

It connected the East and West coasts, increasing trade and settlement

c)

It eliminated all immigration to the West

d)

It restored Native American autonomy

3.

In the context of assimilation of Native Americans, Indian boarding schools (e.g., Carlisle School) are presented in the guide as an example of what broader policy?

a)

Preservation of tribal culture

b)

Americanization efforts to assimilate Native Americans

c)

Establishment of sovereign reservations

d)

Promotion of bilingual education

4.

The guide states that Native Americans were forced to abandon traditional culture, language, and clothing as part of which process?

a)

Cultural pluralism

b)

Assimilation policies

c)

Westward land allotments only

d)

Religious freedom protections

5.

According to the study guide, converting Native Americans to Christianity and farming lifestyles was part of which broader effort?

a)

Industrialization of the West

b)

Assimilation of Native Americans

c)

Urban reform movements

d)

Isolationism

6.

What was the stated purpose of the Dawes Act (1887) in the guide?

a)

To consolidate tribal lands under federal control

b)

To break tribal lands into individual plots to force American-style farming and weaken tribal unity

c)

To fund Native American-run schools

d)

To guarantee tribal sovereignty and self-governance

7.

According to the guide, the 15th Amendment granted which right?

a)

Citizenship to all persons born in the U.S.

b)

African American men the right to vote

c)

Equal pay regardless of race

d)

Desegregation of public schools

8.

Under Jim Crow and disenfranchisement in the guide, what is defined as a fee charged to vote?

a)

Registration fee

b)

Poll tax

c)

Property assessment

d)

Service levy

9.

According to the study guide, what did the Grandfather Clause permit?

a)

Only those whose grandfathers voted in 1867 could vote

b)

Only veterans could vote

c)

Only landowners could vote

d)

Only taxpayers could vote

10.

What were literacy tests described as in the guide under Jim Crow and disenfranchisement?

a)

Exams to improve public education

b)

Reading tests designed to prevent Black voters

c)

Assessments for naturalization

d)

Tests for civil service jobs

11.

How does the guide define the patronage or spoils system?

a)

Awarding government jobs based on merit exams

b)

Awarding government jobs to supporters rather than qualified individuals

c)

Hiring only nonpartisan experts

d)

Rotating civil servants every five years

12.

What did the Pendleton Act (1883) establish according to the guide?

a)

Expanded the spoils system

b)

Created civil service exams to require qualified government workers

c)

Ended federal income tax

d)

Mandated primary elections in all states

13.

According to the guide, which practical invention is associated with Thomas Edison and is noted for extending working hours and transforming industry?

a)

The phonograph

b)

The practical electric light bulb

c)

The telegraph

d)

Alternating current motor

14.

What did Henry Bessemer invent as noted in the guide, enabling skyscrapers and railroads through cheaper, stronger steel?

a)

Open-hearth furnace

b)

Bessemer steel process

c)

Assembly line

d)

Steam hammer

15.

Which inventor is credited in the guide with transforming communication by inventing the telephone?

a)

Samuel Morse

b)

Guglielmo Marconi

c)

Alexander Graham Bell

d)

Nikola Tesla

16.

Why did people move from rural to urban areas between 1870 and 1910 according to the guide?

a)

Access to homestead land and lower taxes

b)

Factory jobs, higher wages, excitement of city life, and declining farm opportunities

c)

Religious freedom and public land grants

d)

Compulsory urban residency laws

17.

How are tenements characterized in the guide?

a)

Spacious urban housing with modern plumbing

b)

Overcrowded, unsafe urban apartments with poor sanitation where immigrants lived

c)

Suburban cottages for new middle-class families

d)

Government-built model housing with strict health codes

18.

According to the guide, what did Pap Singleton encourage as part of the Exodusters movement?

a)

Migration of farmers to the Northeast

b)

African Americans leaving the South to settle in Kansas to escape Jim Crow

c)

Return of freedpeople to plantations

d)

Emigration to Liberia

19.

What did the Supreme Court rule in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) as summarized in the guide?

a)

Segregation was unconstitutional under any circumstances

b)

Separate but equal was constitutional, legalizing segregation for decades

c)

Only public transportation could be segregated

d)

States could not enforce any segregation laws

20.

In Unit 2 of the guide, what is Social Darwinism described as?

a)

A call for governmental charity to the poor

b)

Belief that the strongest businesses and nations survive, used to justify monopolies and imperialism

c)

A policy limiting corporate mergers

d)

A religious movement for social reform

21.

How does the guide define the Social Gospel?

a)

A political ideology promoting laissez-faire economics

b)

A Christian movement promoting charity and social reform to help the poor

c)

A secular campaign for scientific management

d)

An anti-immigration crusade

22.

According to the guide, what did W.E.B. DuBois advocate?

a)

Gradual accommodation and vocational training only

b)

Immediate civil rights, higher education for African Americans, and co-founding of NAACP

c)

Back-to-Africa emigration exclusively

d)

Isolation from mainstream politics

23.

Booker T. Washington promoted which approach to advancing African Americans’ economic status?

a)

Economic self‑reliance through vocational training

b)

Immediate integration through federal civil rights lawsuits

c)

Exclusively liberal arts higher education

d)

Back‑to‑Africa emigration led by the federal government

24.

At the Tuskegee Institute, students primarily learned what kind of subjects?

a)

Industrial and skilled trades

b)

Classical philosophy and Latin

c)

Military tactics and officer training

d)

Fine arts and music composition

25.

Which best defines the term vocation as used in the notes?

a)

A skilled trade or career

b)

A temporary volunteer role

c)

A religious calling requiring ordination

d)

A leisure activity or hobby

26.

According to the Populist Party platform, which policies were key priorities? Select all that apply.

a)

Silver coinage to expand the money supply

b)

Railroad regulation to curb abuses

c)

A federal income tax

d)

Reducing political power for farmers and workers

27.

What did bimetallism propose for U.S. currency?

a)

Backing money with both gold and silver to increase the money supply

b)

Eliminating precious‑metal backing in favor of paper currency only

c)

Pegging the dollar solely to gold to reduce inflation

d)

Adopting foreign currencies for interstate trade

28.

Which statements accurately describe the Haymarket Affair (1886)? Select all that apply.

a)

A bomb was thrown at a labor rally in Chicago

b)

Labor unions were widely praised by government officials afterward

c)

The incident was blamed on labor unions

d)

Authorities responded with anti‑union actions and arrests

29.

Which statements correctly summarize the Homestead Massacre (1892)? Select all that apply.

a)

It grew out of a Carnegie Steel workers’ strike that turned violent

b)

The state militia was sent to break the strike

c)

It was a conflict over farm foreclosures in the Plains

d)

The strike ended without government involvement

30.

What was the federal response to the Pullman Strike (1894)?

a)

Federal troops were sent to end the strike, and courts issued injunctions

b)

Congress passed a law granting immediate union recognition

c)

The president ordered a nationwide wage increase

d)

State militias negotiated a labor contract

31.

What was the main purpose of the Sherman Antitrust Act?

a)

To outlaw monopolies and promote competition

b)

To impose protective tariffs on imports

c)

To regulate working hours for child labor

d)

To create a central banking system

32.

What did the Pure Food and Drug Act require?

a)

Safe, properly labeled food and medicine, responding to muckraker exposés

b)

Government ownership of meatpacking plants

c)

Tariff protections for agricultural products

d)

Price controls on pharmaceuticals only

33.

What did the Interstate Commerce Act aim to do regarding railroads?

a)

Regulate rates to stop abuses against farmers

b)

Nationalize all railroad lines

c)

Subsidize fares for urban commuters

d)

End all federal oversight of rail shipping

34.

In the context of early U.S. industry, what does textile refer to?

a)

Fabric or cloth, with textile mills as major early factories

b)

Mining of coal used to power steam engines

c)

Machinery for producing steel rails

d)

Small artisan workshops making furniture

35.

What did Upton Sinclair’s The Jungle expose, and what reforms did it spur?

a)

Unsanitary meatpacking conditions, leading to the Meat Inspection Act and the Pure Food and Drug Act

b)

Unsafe coal mining practices, leading to the Federal Mine Safety Act

c)

Child labor in textile mills, leading to national child‑labor bans

d)

Monopolistic railroad rates, leading to the Hepburn Act

36.

What change did the 17th Amendment make to the U.S. Constitution?

a)

It allowed voters to directly elect U.S. Senators

b)

It abolished slavery nationwide

c)

It granted women the right to vote

d)

It limited presidents to two terms

37.

Which action reflects Theodore Roosevelt’s conservation efforts as president?

a)

Protecting natural resources and expanding national parks

b)

Eliminating all federal forest reserves

c)

Privatizing national monuments

d)

Diverting funds away from land preservation

38.

What did the Newlands Reclamation Act fund?

a)

Irrigation and land development projects in the American West

b)

Construction of urban public housing in Eastern cities

c)

Naval bases across the Pacific

d)

Federal pensions for retired railroad workers

39.

What was a key feature and consequence of the Underwood Tariff (1913)?

a)

It lowered tariffs, reducing government revenue and contributing to the creation of the 16th Amendment

b)

It raised tariffs to protect industry, eliminating the need for an income tax

c)

It eliminated all customs duties on manufactured goods

d)

It created a national sales tax to replace tariffs

40.

What authority did the 16th Amendment grant to the federal government?

a)

To levy an income tax

b)

To directly elect senators

c)

To prohibit alcohol

d)

To establish a national bank

41.

Who was Alice Paul in the Progressive Era?

a)

A leader of the women’s suffrage movement who organized protests and hunger strikes

b)

A novelist who exposed meatpacking abuses

c)

A labor union founder during the Pullman Strike

d)

A Supreme Court justice who limited antitrust enforcement

42.

In these notes, what does suffrage mean?

a)

The right to vote

b)

Taxation without representation

c)

Freedom of speech

d)

The right to a jury trial

43.

Which were causes of American imperialism identified in the notes? Select all that apply.

a)

Desire for new markets and raw materials

b)

Belief in Social Darwinism

c)

A strong navy advocated by Alfred Thayer Mahan

d)

Commitment to strict isolation from world affairs

44.

What principle did the Monroe Doctrine assert to European powers?

a)

They should not colonize or interfere in the Western Hemisphere

b)

They were guaranteed free trade with all U.S. territories

c)

They must adopt republican governments in the Americas

d)

They could jointly govern Caribbean islands with the U.S.

45.

Which reasons are given for why the United States annexed Hawaii? Select all that apply.

a)

Access to sugar plantations

b)

A naval base at Pearl Harbor

c)

Hawaii’s strategic location in the Pacific

d)

Discovery of major gold deposits on Oahu

46.

What did the Scopes Trial (1925) symbolize in the United States?

a)

A clash between science and religion

b)

A victory for prohibition

c)

An end to immigration quotas

d)

A dispute over women’s suffrage

47.

Which was a documented effect of Prohibition in the United States?

a)

Increase in organized crime and illegal alcohol trade

b)

Sharp decline in speakeasies and bootlegging

c)

Expansion of legal alcohol markets

d)

Immediate repeal of the 18th Amendment

48.

In debates over Prohibition, what did the label "Dry" mean?

a)

Anti‑alcohol

b)

Pro‑alcohol

c)

Neutral on alcohol policy

d)

Support for state control of liquor only

49.

In debates over Prohibition, what did the label "Wet" mean?

a)

Pro‑alcohol

b)

Anti‑alcohol

c)

Support for temperance only

d)

Opposition to all taxation

50.

What did the 18th Amendment ban in the United States?

a)

Manufacture, sale, and transportation of alcohol

b)

Consumption of alcohol in private homes

c)

Importation of all foreign goods

d)

Production of tobacco products

51.

How did installment buying contribute to the Great Depression?

a)

People bought on credit and could not repay debts

b)

It eliminated consumer debt through savings plans

c)

It restricted consumer access to goods

d)

It stabilized prices by reducing demand

52.

Which consequence followed overproduction in the late 1920s?

a)

Prices fell, companies failed, and unemployment rose

b)

Prices rose, profits increased, and wages climbed

c)

Government spending decreased and taxes fell

d)

Exports surged and trade surpluses grew

53.

Which combination describes a major cause of the Dust Bowl?

a)

Severe drought combined with poor farming practices

b)

Heavy rainfall combined with overgrazing

c)

Volcanic eruptions combined with deforestation

d)

Hurricanes combined with coastal erosion

54.

Which region was most directly affected by the Dust Bowl?

a)

Great Plains states such as Oklahoma, Texas, Kansas, and Colorado

b)

New England states such as Maine and Vermont

c)

Pacific Northwest states such as Washington and Oregon

d)

Mid‑Atlantic states such as New York and New Jersey

55.

During the Dust Bowl, where did many migrant workers move seeking farm jobs?

a)

California

b)

Florida

c)

New York

d)

Illinois

56.

What were Hoovervilles during the Great Depression?

a)

Shantytowns where homeless families lived

b)

Government‑built public housing complexes

c)

Luxury suburbs for wealthy industrialists

d)

Military camps for World War I veterans

57.

What did President Hoover’s idea of "Rugged Individualism" emphasize?

a)

People should solve problems themselves rather than rely on government

b)

The federal government should manage all industries

c)

States should defer to federal relief programs

d)

Business profits should be capped by law

58.

What economic policy is described by the term "laissez‑faire"?

a)

Government should not interfere with the economy

b)

Government should control prices and wages

c)

Government should nationalize major industries

d)

Government should set mandatory savings rates

59.

Which New Deal agency built dams and provided electricity, jobs, and flood control in the rural South?

a)

Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA)

b)

Civilian Conservation Corps (CCC)

c)

Works Progress Administration (WPA)

d)

Agricultural Adjustment Administration (AAA)

60.

Which criticism of the New Deal came from conservatives?

a)

Too much government involvement and too costly

b)

Not enough help for the poor; wanted more government action

c)

Too much deregulation of banks

d)

Overreliance on labor unions

61.

Which criticism of the New Deal came from radicals?

a)

Not enough help for the poor; wanted more government action

b)

Too much government involvement and too costly

c)

Excessive tax cuts for the wealthy

d)

Too much power given to the Supreme Court

62.

How did Britain and France respond to Hitler’s demand for the Sudetenland?

a)

They followed a policy of appeasement and allowed him to take it

b)

They immediately declared war on Germany

c)

They formed a military alliance with the USSR and invaded

d)

They imposed a total trade embargo that forced withdrawal

63.

What is meant by appeasement as used to describe the Munich Conference?

a)

Giving in to Hitler’s demands to avoid war

b)

Launching a preemptive attack on Germany

c)

Refusing all negotiations with Germany

d)

Seeking arbitration through the League of Nations

64.

Which feature best characterizes communism in the notes?

a)

Government controls property and the economy with no private ownership

b)

Private ownership is protected and promoted by the state

c)

Free markets and minimal regulation

d)

Religious institutions control the economy

65.

According to the notes, how does communism claim to differ from fascism?

a)

It claims to promote equality

b)

It permits private property

c)

It emphasizes nationalism over class

d)

It supports monarchy by tradition

66.

Which description matches fascism in the notes?

a)

Nationalistic, militaristic dictatorship where private property is allowed

b)

Classless society with no private ownership of property

c)

Democratic socialism with worker control of factories

d)

Theocratic rule based on religious law

67.

Which country and leader are identified as fascist in the notes?

a)

Italy under Mussolini

b)

Soviet Union under Stalin

c)

Spain under Franco was communist

d)

Britain under Churchill

68.

The Non‑Aggression Pact of 1939 was signed between which nations?

a)

Germany and the Soviet Union

b)

Germany and Britain

c)

Britain and France

d)

Italy and Japan

69.

What was the result of the Non‑Aggression Pact after the invasion of Poland?

a)

Germany and the Soviet Union divided Poland

b)

Germany withdrew from Poland under pressure

c)

Britain occupied Poland to protect it

d)

Poland remained neutral and intact

70.

From which directions did Germany and the USSR invade Poland in 1939?

a)

Germany from the west and the USSR from the east

b)

Germany from the east and the USSR from the west

c)

Both from the north

d)

Both from the south

71.

Why did the invasion of Poland mark the start of World War II in Europe?

a)

Britain and France declared war on Germany

b)

The United States entered the war immediately

c)

Japan attacked Pearl Harbor

d)

Italy invaded France the same day