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Aquatic Accumulation Review Worksheet

Total questions: 216

Worksheet time: 3hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Absorption

a)

conversion of sound or light energy into heat

b)

a device that generates underwater sound from special transducers and analyzes the returning echoes to gain information of geological, biological, or military importance.

c)

the dark ocean below the depth to which light can penetrate

d)

attachment of water molecules to other substances by hydrogen bonds; wetting.

2.

Adhesion

a)

conversion of sound or light energy into heat

b)

dark ocean below the depth to which light can penetrate

c)

a device that generates underwater sound from special transducers and analyzes the returning echoes to gain information of geological, biological, or military importance.

d)

attachment of water molecules to other substances by hydrogen bonds; wetting.

3.

24. Aphotic Zone

a)

the dark ocean below the depth to which light can penetrate

b)

a device that generates underwater sound from special transducers and analyzes the returning echoes to gain information of geological, biological, or military importance.

c)

attachment of water molecules to other substances by hydrogen bonds, wetting.

d)

conversion of sound or light energy into heat

4.

Chemical bond

a)

the smallest particle of an element that exhibits the characteristics of that element.

b)

attachment of water molecules to each other by hydrogen bonds.

c)

the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of pure water by 1 degree Celsius.

d)

an energy relationship that holds two atoms together as a result of changes in their electron distribution.

5.

Cohesion

a)

the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of pure water by 1 degree Celsius.

b)

an energy relationship that holds two atoms together as a result of changes in their electron distribution.

c)

the smallest particle of an element that exhibits the characteristics of that element.

d)

attachment of water molecules to each other by hydrogen bonds.

6.

29. Compound

a)

an arbitrary measure of temperature.

b)

the zone of the ocean below the pycnocline, in which there is little additional change of density with increasing depth, contains about 80% of the world's water.

c)

a substance composed of two or more elements in a fixed proportion

d)

a chemical bond formed between two atoms by electron sharing

7.

Covalent bond

a)

an arbitrary measure of temperature.

b)

a chemical bond formed between two atoms by electron sharing

c)

the zone of the ocean below the pycnocline, in which there is little additional change of density with increasing depth, contains about 80% of the world's water.

d)

a substance composed of two or more elements in a fixed proportion

8.

Deep zone

a)

a substance composed of two or more elements in a fixed proportion

b)

an arbitrary measure of temperature.

c)

the zone of the ocean below the pycnocline, in which there is little additional change of density with increasing depth, contains about 80% of the world's water.

d)

a chemical bond formed between two atoms by electron sharing

9.

Density

a)

the mass per unit volume of a substance, usually expressed by grams per cubic centimeter.

b)

a substance composed of identical atoms that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means

c)

a graph showing the relationship between a fluid's temperature or salinity and its density.

d)

a tiny negatively charged particle in an atom responsible for chemical bonding

10.

Freezing point --

a)

the heat, measured in calories, required to raise 1 gram of a substance 1 degree Celsius. The input of 1 calorie of heat energy raises the temperature of 1 gram of pure water by 1 degree Celsius.

b)

the temperature at which a solid can begin to form as a liquid is cooled

c)

a form of energy produced by the random vibration of atoms or molecules.

d)

the zone of the ocean in which salinity increases rapidly with depth

11.

Halocline --

a)

a form of energy produced by the random vibration of atoms or molecules.

b)

the heat, measured in calories, required to raise 1 gram of a substance 1 degree Celsius. The input of 1 calorie of heat energy raises the temperature of 1 gram of pure water by 1 degree Celsius.

c)

the temperature at which a solid can begin to form as a liquid is cooled

d)

the zone of the ocean in which salinity increases rapidly with depth

12.

Heat capacity --

a)

the zone of the ocean in which salinity increases rapidly with depth

b)

a form of energy produced by the random vibration of atoms or molecules.

c)

the heat, measured in calories, required to raise 1 gram of a substance 1 degree Celsius. The input of 1 calorie of heat energy raises the temperature of 1 gram of pure water by 1 degree Celsius.

d)

the temperature at which a solid can begin to form as a liquid is cooled

13.

Hydrogen bond –

a)

heat added to a liquid during evaporation (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 585 calories per gram at 20 degrees Celsius.

b)

heat removed from a liquid during freezing (or added to a solid during thawing) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 80 calories per gram at 0 degrees Celsius.

c)

a relatively weak bond formed between a partially positive hydrogen atom and a partially negative oxygen, fluorine, or nitrogen atom of an adjacent molecule.

d)

heat added to a liquid during evaporation (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 540 calories per gram at 100 degrees Celsius.

14.

Adhesion –

a)

the dark ocean below the depth to which light can penetrate

b)

attachment of water molecules to other substances by hydrogen bonds; wetting.

c)

a device that generates underwater sound from special transducers and analyzes the returning echoes to gain information of geological, biological, or military importance.

d)

conversion of sound or light energy into heat.

15.

Latent heat of evaporation –

a)

heat added to a liquid during evaporation (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 540 calories per gram at 100 degrees Celsius.

b)

a relatively weak bond formed between a partially positive hydrogen atom and a partially negative oxygen, fluorine, or nitrogen atom of an adjacent molecule.

c)

heat added to a liquid during evaporation (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 585 calories per gram at 20 degrees Celsius.

d)

heat removed from a liquid during freezing (or added to a solid during thawing) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 80 calories per gram at 0 degrees Celsius.

16.

Latent heat of fusion –

a)

heat added to a liquid during evaporation (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 540 calories per gram at 100 degrees Celsius.

b)

heat removed from a liquid during freezing (or added to a solid during thawing) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 80 calories per gram at 0 degrees Celsius.

c)

heat added to a liquid during evaporation (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 585 calories per gram at 20 degrees Celsius.

d)

a relatively weak bond formed between a partially positive hydrogen atom and a partially negative oxygen, fluorine, or nitrogen atom of an adjacent molecule.

17.

Latent heat of vaporization –

a)

heat added to a liquid during evaporation (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 540 calories per gram at 100 degrees Celsius.

b)

a relatively weak bond formed between a partially positive hydrogen atom and a partially negative oxygen, fluorine, or nitrogen atom of an adjacent molecule.

c)

heat removed from a liquid during freezing (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 80 calories per gram at 0 degrees Celsius.

d)

heat added to a liquid during evaporation (or released from a gas during condensation) that produces a change in state but not a change in temperature. For pure water, 585 calories per gram at 20 degrees Celsius.

18.

Light –

a)

same as surface zone.

b)

a group of atoms held together by chemical bonds. The smallest unit of a compound that retains the characteristics of the compound.

c)

the small, denser, positively charged center of an atom that contains the protons and neutrons.

d)

electromagnetic radiation propagated as small, nearly mass-less particles that behave like both a wave and a stream of particles.

19.

Mixed layer –

a)

same as surface zone.

b)

the small, denser, positively charged center of an atom that contains the protons and neutrons.

c)

a group of atoms held together by chemical bonds. The smallest unit of a compound that retains the characteristics of the compound.

d)

electromagnetic radiation propagated as small, nearly mass-less particles that behave like both a wave and a stream of particles.

20.

Molecule –

a)

the small, denser, positively charged center of an atom that contains the protons and neutrons.

b)

electromagnetic radiation propagated as small, nearly mass-less particles that behave like both a wave and a stream of particles.

c)

same as surface zone.

d)

a group of atoms held together by chemical bonds. The smallest unit of a compound that retains the characteristics of the compound.

21.

Nucleus –

a)

electromagnetic radiation propagated as small, nearly mass-less particles that behave like both a wave and a stream of particles.

b)

the small, denser, positively charged center of an atom that contains the protons and neutrons.

c)

same as surface zone.

d)

a group of atoms held together by chemical bonds. The smallest unit of a compound that retains the characteristics of the compound.

22.

What does the theory of continental drift state?

a)

The Earth is broken into lithospheric plates that move due to convection currents

b)

The continents were once joined in a supercontinent and have moved over time

c)

Continents are stationary and do not move

d)

none of the above

23.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth's plates is caused by ______.

a)

conduction

b)

subduction

c)

continental drift

d)

convection.

24.

What are the two types of crust?

a)

ocean and upper

b)

lower and upper

c)

continental and oceanic

d)

pizza and subway

25.

The movement of the tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

convection currents in the Asthenosphere

c)

the Moho discontinuity.

d)

the gravity of the iron-nickel core.

26.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening.

a)

the denser oceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

b)

volcanic islands are forming

c)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other

d)

the oceanic crust is melting.

27.

The idea that continents were once part of a single landmass that broke apart and moved

a)

Transform

b)

Tectonic Plates

c)

Continental Drift

28.

Forms where plates are moving away from each other

a)

Transform

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

29.

Formed where two sections of Earth's crust are colliding

a)

Convergent

b)

Transform

c)

Divergent

30.

The earth is composed of three main layers, except for ____?

a)

Mantle

b)

Crust

c)

Core

d)

Lithosphere

31.

____, a hypothesis that new sea floor is created at mid-ocean ridges and that in the process the continents are pushed apart from each other.

a)

PLATE TECTONICS

b)

SEISMOMETER

c)

SEA-FLOOR SPREADING

d)

FAULTS

32.

The three types of plate boundaries are

a)

Push, pull, slide

b)

Convergent, divergent, change

c)

Convergent, divergent, transform

d)

Divergent, allegiant, insurgent

33.

What is common at convergent boundaries?

a)

Valleys

b)

Mountains

c)

Rivers

d)

Canyons

34.

What happens often at transform boundaries?

a)

Rain

b)

Hurricanes

c)

Earthquakes

d)

Volcanic activity

35.

The crust is

a)

Layer of molten metal.

b)

Outermost layer of the Earth.

c)

Made up of the lithosphere and asthenosphere.

d)

Innermost layer of solid metal.

36.

The lower mantle is

a)

Innermost layer of solid metal.

b)

Made up of the lithosphere and asthenosphere.

c)

Solid material extending to Earth's core.

d)

Layer of molten metal.

37.

The outer core is

a)

Layer of molten metal.

b)

Outermost layer of the Earth.

c)

Solid material extending to Earth's core.

d)

Outermost layer of solid metal.

38.

The inner core is

a)

Outermost layer of the Earth.

b)

Layer of molten metal.

c)

Made up of the lithosphere and asthenosphere.

d)

Innermost layer of solid metal.

39.

The land mass where all of the continents were once together in one large continent is called

a)

Laurasia

b)

Pangaea

c)

Eurasia

d)

Gondwana

40.

Tectonic plates consist of

a)

oceanic crust

b)

continental crust

c)

both continental and oceanic crust

d)

mesosphere

41.

The fact that similar fossils are found on both sides of the ocean is evidence of

a)

magnetic reversal

b)

global positioning

c)

oceanic drift

d)

continental drift

42.

How fast the continents move?

a)

3-4 inches per week

b)

3-4 inches per year

c)

3-4 inches per day

d)

3-4 inches per month

43.

Transform boundaries are most likely to produce what phenomenon?

a)

earthquakes

b)

deep sea trenches

c)

volcanoes

d)

underwater mountain ranges

44.

What boundary creates mountains?

a)

transform

b)

convergent

c)

divergent

d)

fast

45.

What forms at a divergent boundary between two oceanic plates?

a)

rift valley

b)

trench

c)

mid-ocean ridge

d)

mountain

46.

A rift valley occurs at a ______ boundary.

a)

convergent

b)

transform

c)

divergent

d)

horizontal

47.

A trench forms at a ______ boundary.

a)

transform

b)

vertical

c)

convergent

d)

divergent

48.

What is happening at point B?

a)

convection

b)

subduction

c)

a divergent boundary

d)

an earthquake

49.

Name the boundary shown in the diagram.

a)

divergent

b)

subduction

c)

convergent

d)

transform

50.

Boundary between 2 plates that are sliding past one another:

a)

Reverse fault

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Convergent boundary

d)

Transform fault boundary

51.

Which layer of Earth flows slowly and causes the crust to move?

a)

Crust

b)

Outer core

c)

Mantle

d)

Inner Core

52.

One piece of evidence for Plate Tectonics is that--

a)

some continents appear to fit together like a puzzle.

b)

the continents are no longer moving.

c)

all continents have formed from volcanic eruptions.

d)

we have video footage of the plates actually moving.

53.

Which of the following is NOT evidence to support the theory of plate tectonics?

a)

Sand Erosion

b)

Continental fit

c)

Glaciers

d)

Fossils

54.

What type of boundary is shown in the diagram?

a)

Divergent

b)

Slide/Transform

c)

Convergent

55.

What type of boundary is shown in the diagram?

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Slide/Transform

56.

What is Wegener's idea that continents are slowly moving over Earth's surface called?

a)

faults

b)

continental drift

c)

plates

d)

divergence

57.

Earth's ________________ is liquid.

a)

b) outer core

b)

a) crust

c)

c) mantle

d)

d) inner core

58.

The asthenosphere is the layer of the Earth just below the _________________.

a)

lithosphere

b)

mantle

c)

crust

d)

core

59.

The ridge in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean formed along a _________________

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

60.

Which of the following makes up most of Earth's mass?

a)

outer core

b)

mantle

c)

crust

d)

inner core

61.

The part of the Earth on which the tectonic plates are able to move is the--

a)

subduction zone

b)

mesosphere

c)

lithosphere

d)

asthenosphere

62.

The ancient continent that contained all the landmasses is called--

a)

Panthalassa

b)

Gondwana

c)

Pangaea

d)

Laurasia

63.

The type of tectonic plate boundary involving a collision between two tectonic plates is--

a)

normal

b)

convergent

c)

transform

d)

divergent

64.

The type of tectonic plate boundary that sometimes has a subduction zone is--

a)

normal

b)

convergent

c)

divergent

d)

transform

65.

The San Andreas fault is an example of a--

a)

convergent boundary

b)

transform boundary

c)

plate boundary

d)

divergent boundary

66.

Continental mountain ranges are associated with--

a)

plate boundaries

b)

divergent boundaries

c)

convergent boundaries

d)

transform boundaries

67.

Rift valleys and mid-ocean ridges are associated with--

a)

convergent boundaries

b)

transform boundaries

c)

divergent boundaries

d)

plate boundaries

68.

Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?

a)

Faults in mountain ranges

b)

Energy from the sun

c)

Magnetic pole reversal

d)

Convection currents in the mantle

69.

What event will happen at a transform boundary?

a)

Mid-ocean ridges will form

b)

Volcanoes will form

c)

Earthquake

d)

Mountains will form

70.

How is possible for new crust to be formed without increasing the surface area of the Earth?

a)

New crust is underwater where it sinks

b)

Crust is destroyed at the same time it is created

c)

New crust breaks more easily than the old crust

71.

A fire erupts in the classroom. You should immediately...

a)

notify the teacher.

b)

run for the fire extinguisher.

c)

throw water on the fire.

d)

open the windows.

72.

Approved eye protection (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory...

a)

to avoid eye squinting.

b)

to improve your vision.

c)

only if you do not have glasses.

d)

any time chemicals, heat, or glassware are used.

73.

If you do not understand a direction or part of a laboratory procedure, you should...

a)

figure it out as you do the lab.

b)

try several methods until something works.

c)

ask the teacher before proceeding.

d)

skip it and go on to the next.

74.

After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be...

a)

left at your lab station for the next class.

b)

disposed of according to your teacher's directions.

c)

dumped in the sink.

d)

taken home.

75.

If you have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burned, etc.), you should...

a)

visit the school nurse after class.

b)

see a doctor after school.

c)

tell the teacher at once.

d)

apply first aid yourself.

76.

Long hair in the laboratory must be...

a)

cut short.

b)

held away from the experiment with one hand.

c)

always neatly groomed.

d)

tied back of kept entirely out of the way with a hair band, etc.

77.

Which of the following should not be worn during a laboratory activity?

a)

loose clothing

b)

dangling jewelry

c)

sandals

d)

All of the above

78.

Horseplay, practical jokes, or pranks in the classroom are...

a)

Always against the rules.

b)

okay.

c)

not dangerous.

d)

okay if you are working alone.

79.

Horseplay, practical jokes, or pranks in the classroom are...

a)

Always against the rules.

b)

okay.

c)

not dangerous.

d)

okay if you are working alone.

80.

When handling animals, students should

a)

open cages only with permission.

b)

not tease or handle animals roughly.

c)

report bites or scratches to the teacher immediately.

d)

All of the above.

81.

When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always

a)

treat your hands with skin lotion.

b)

wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water.

c)

wipe your hands on a towel.

d)

wipe your hands on your clothes.

82.

If a piece of equipment is not working properly, stop, turn it off, and tell

a)

the principle.

b)

your lab partner.

c)

your best friend in the class.

d)

the teacher.

83.

The following activity is permitted in the laboratory:

a)

chewing gum

b)

eating

c)

drinking

d)

none of the above

84.

When using a razor blade or scalpel, always cut materials...

a)

away from you.

b)

towards you.

c)

in your hand.

d)

perpendicular.

85.

Before you leave the science room, you should...

a)

clean your work area and equipment.

b)

return all equipment to the proper storage area.

c)

wash your hands with soap and water.

d)

all of the above.

86.

True of False: All chemicals in the lab, including food and store-bought chemicals, should be treated as if they could be hazardous.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

True or False: Work areas should be kept clean and tidy.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

True or False: Laboratory work may be started immediately upon entering the class even if the teacher is not yet present.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

True or False: You can remove chemicals, specimens (for dissections), or other equipment from the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

True or False: Always carry a microscope using both hands.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

True or False: You do not need to read the lab procedure before starting the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

True or False: Unauthorized experiments are not allowed to be done at any time.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

True or False: You are allowed to enter the chemical preparation/storage are any time you need to get an item.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

True or False: You are allowed to enter the chemical preparation/storage are any time you need to get an item.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

True or False: It is okay to pick up broken glass with your bare hands and put it in the trash.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

True or False: It is okay to pick up broken glass with your bare hands and put it in the trash.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

True or False: Do not leave a lit burner unattended.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Before using a microscope, you should—

a)

check for frayed cords or exposed wires.

b)

make sure your work area is dry.

c)

make sure your hands are dry.

d)

all of the above.

99.

If you do not understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should—

a)

Figure it out as you do the lab

b)

Try several methods until something works

c)

ask the instructor before proceeding

d)

skip it and go on to the next part

100.

After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be—

a)

Left at your lab station for the next class

b)

Disposed of according to your instructor's directions

c)

Dumped in the sink

d)

Taken home

101.

If you have been injured in a laboratory by a cut or burn, first you should—

a)

Visit the school nurse after class

b)

See a doctor after school

c)

Tell the science teacher at once

d)

Apply first aid to yourself

102.

Sharp objects in the laboratory should be carried by

a)

holding the handle with the tip pointed up.

b)

holding the handle with the tip pointed down.

c)

holding the handle with the tip pointed toward your body.

d)

holding the blade

103.

When you first enter a laboratory, you should—

a)

arrange and move items to the way you think is best.

b)

finish eating quickly so you have enough time to complete the lab.

c)

wait for your teacher’s instructions to begin without touching anything.

d)

put your sandals on so that you don’t get hot.

104.

According to this diagram, plants use nitrogen to make ________

a)

bacteria

b)

proteins

c)

animals

d)

decomposers

105.

According to this diagram, animals get proteins from eating ______________

a)

decomposers

b)

bacteria

c)

plants

d)

sunlight

106.

According to this diagram, plants absorb ______________

a)

nitrates

b)

animals

c)

nitrogen fixing bacteria

d)

decomposers

107.

Both plants and animals use nitrogen to make _________ and __________

a)

nitrates and lightning

b)

proteins and DNA

c)

water and air

d)

gas and liquids

108.

A correct path that nitrogen could take would be _____

a)

air -> animals->plants->bacteria

b)

animals->air->bacteria->plants

c)

air -> bacteria ->plants -> animals

d)

bacteria ->air -> animals->plants

109.

True or False: Bacteria fix nitrogen from the atmosphere into a form plants can use

a)

True

b)

False

110.

True or False:

Bacteria release nitrogen from dead organisms into the soil

a)

True

b)

False

111.

True or False:

Bacteria create a form of nitrogen that animals can use directly

a)

True

b)

False

112.

True or False:

Bacteria kill plants so that animals may use the nitrogen in an ecosystem

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Nitrates are poisonous to fish. What should you add more of to get rid of nitrates without having to change the water in your fish tank?

a)

More fish

b)

Nitrobacter bacteria

c)

Nitrosomonas bacteria

d)

Plants

114.

What would happen to this nitrogen cycle if a virus killed all the bacteria?

a)

Nitrogen would just keep on cycling

b)

The cycle would stop

c)

Plants would take over for the bacteria

d)

Fish would grow more because there's no bacteria

115.

What would happen to the plants in this nitrogen cycle if all the bacteria died?

a)

They would not get the nitrogen they need to make DNA and proteins

b)

They would get their nitrogen from eating animals

c)

They would get their nitrogen from the atmosphere

d)

They would turn the poop into fish food

116.

What would happen to the animals in this aquarium if all the bacteria died?

a)

They would live longer because the bacteria couldn't harm them

b)

They would die because there would be excess ammonia in the tank.

c)

They would just move to another tank

d)

They would start eating their own poop to clean the tank

117.

Dead plants, animals, and animal waste are converted to ammonium by _____________________

a)

plant roots

b)

lightning

c)

bacteria and fungi decomposers

d)

denitrifying bacteria

118.

To have less nitrite in this cycle, you would need to have _______________________

a)

Fewer plants

b)

More nitrosomonas or less nitrobacter

c)

Less nitrosomonas or more nitrobacter

d)

More of all the bacteria

119.

To have less nitrate in this cycle you would have to have _________________________

a)

More plants or more nitrobacter

b)

More plants or more nitrosomonas

c)

More plants or less nitrobacter

d)

Less nitrobacter and fewer plants

120.
When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the                       as carbon dioxide.
a)
Water
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Sun
d)

Soil

121.
Which of the following add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?
a)
volcanoes
b)
combustion of fossil fuels
c)
animal and plant respiration
d)
all of these
122.

Which process contributes carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?

a)

respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

tree farms

123.

Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

a)

deforestation

b)

tree farms

c)

burning fossil fuels

d)

cellular respiration

124.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
125.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
126.
Burning fossil fuel has which effect in the carbon cycle?
a)
It removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
b)
It puts carbon dioxide under the ground.
c)
It adds carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
d)
It has no effect in the carbon cycle.
127.
What does NOT produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
128.
Combustion is another word for __________.
a)
Transportation
b)
Respiration
c)
Fossil Fuels
d)
Burning
129.

Which gas do plants release, that humans depend on for survival?

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sugar

130.
Respiration is the process by which animals take in _____ and release _____. 
a)
photosynthesis, air
b)
carbon, oxygen
c)
oxygen
d)
oxygen, carbon dioxide
131.

Which statement is an example of how carbon moves through a food chain as part of the cycle?

a)

Producers release carbon dioxide, and consumers take it it.

b)

Producers take in carbon dioxide, and consumers release it.

c)

Producers take in carbon from the soil, and they release it when they decompose.

d)

Producers release carbon into the soil, and consumers take it in from the soil.

132.

What type of organism receives carbon present in dead plants and animals?

a)

producer

b)

primary consumer

c)

secondary consumer

d)

decomposer

133.
Carbon can be found in...
a)
The atmosphere
b)
Soil
c)
Fossil fuels
d)
All of the above
134.
Which of the following is an example of a decomposer?
a)
Owl
b)
Fish
c)
Tree
d)
Mushroom
135.

The circulation of the element Carbon among Earth's atmosphere, land, oceans, and organisms is called _____________.

a)

the Carbon Cycle

b)

the Oxygen Cycle

c)

the Carbon dioxide Cycle

d)

the Water Cycle

136.

Which of the following are fossil fuels?

a)

Coal, water, oil

b)

Oxygen, coal, oil

c)

Coal, Oil, Natural Gas

d)

None of the above

137.

Carbon atoms cannot be created or destroyed

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Not enough information to answer

138.

What are trade winds?

a)

Winds that blow from south to north

b)

Winds that blow from north to south

c)

Winds that blow from east to west

d)

Winds that blow from west to east

139.

What happens during El Niño?

a)

Trade winds strengthen and warm surface water moves eastward

b)

Trade winds weaken and warm surface water moves westward

c)

Trade winds strengthen and warm surface water moves westward

d)

Trade winds weaken and warm surface water moves eastward

140.

What are the climate impacts of El Niño?

a)

Flooding in the Southern United States and warmer, drier conditions in the Pacific Northwest

b)

Drought in the Southern United States and cooler temperatures, heavy rains, and flooding in the Pacific Northwest

c)

Drought in the Southern United States and warmer, drier conditions in the Pacific Northwest

d)

Flooding in the Southern United States and cooler temperatures, heavy rains, and flooding in the Pacific Northwest

141.

What happens during La Niña?

a)

Trade winds weaken and warm surface water moves eastward

b)

Trade winds strengthen and warm surface water moves westward

c)

Trade winds strengthen and warm surface water moves eastward

d)

Trade winds weaken and warm surface water moves westward

142.

What are the climate impacts of La Niña?

a)

Flooding in the Southern United States and cooler temperatures, heavy rains, and flooding in the Pacific Northwest

b)

Flooding in the Southern United States and warmer, drier conditions in the Pacific Northwest

c)

Drought in the Southern United States and cooler temperatures, heavy rains, and flooding in the Pacific Northwest

d)

Drought in the Southern United States and warmer, drier conditions in the Pacific Northwest

143.

What is the relationship between El Niño and La Niña?

a)

They have no relationship

b)

El Niño and La Niña are the same phenomenon

c)

El Niño and La Niña are opposite phases of a cycle

d)

El Niño and La Niña occur simultaneously

144.

What can El Niño and La Niña influence?

a)

Only weather in Asia

b)

Only weather in the United States

c)

Only ocean temperatures

d)

Extreme weather, food production, water supply, and human health

145.

What is the impact of El Niño on the jet stream?

a)

Weakening and southward shift

b)

Intensification and southward shift

c)

Weakening and northward shift

d)

Intensification and northward shift

146.

What is the impact of La Niña on the jet stream?

a)

Intensification and northward shift

b)

Weakening and northward shift

c)

Intensification and southward shift

d)

Weakening and southward shift

147.

What happens when trade winds become stronger than normal?

a)

They blow cool water back into the eastern Pacific and restart the upwelling of warm water in the western Pacific

b)

They blow cool water back into the western Pacific and restart the upwelling of warm water in the eastern Pacific

c)

They blow warm water back into the western Pacific and restart the upwelling of cool water in the eastern Pacific

d)

They blow warm water back into the eastern Pacific and restart the upwelling of cool water in the western Pacific

148.
The diagram shows an example of what kind of organism
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Decomposer
d)
Herbivore
149.
The diagram shows an example of what kind of organism
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Decomposer
d)
Herbivore
150.
The animals in this image are examples of _________________________ .
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Herbivores
c)
Producers
d)
Heterotrophs
151.
This giraffe is an example of a _______________________________.
a)
Carnivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Autotroph
d)
Herbivore
152.
As a predator this lion is also an example of a ______________.
a)
Producer
b)
Autotroph
c)
Carnivore
d)
Herbivore
153.
These mushroom are heterotrophs and must therefore get nutrients from other organic matter. Mushroom aslo act as ____________________ in many food webs.
a)
Herbivore
b)
Decomposer
c)
Carnivore
d)
Omnivore
154.
In this image, the grass is the ______________.
a)
Primary Consumer
b)
Secondary Consumer
c)
Heterotroph
d)
Producer
155.
The primary consumer in this food chain is the ____________.
a)
Frog
b)
Eagle
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Python
156.
Which of the animals in this food web is a secondary consumer?
a)
Hawk
b)
Lizard
c)
Mouse
d)
Snake
157.
Which animal is a tertiary consumer?
a)
Jackal
b)
Wild Cat
c)
Lion
d)
Owl
158.
Which organism is NOT a heterotroph?
a)
Grass
b)
Python
c)
Frog
d)
Eagle
159.
Given that the bear pictured eat many types of food including meats and plants, he is an example of an ______________________.
a)
Autotroph
b)
Omnivore
c)
Herbivore
d)
Producer
160.
The largest part of an ecosystem is always the ________________.
a)
Primary Consumers
b)
Primary Producers
c)
Quarternary Consumers
d)
Secondary Consumers
161.
The smallest part of the ecosystem is always the ____________.
a)
Primary Producers
b)
Secondary Consumers
c)
Primary Consumers
d)
Tertiary Consumers
162.
On average how much energy is passed to a higher level in the food web?
a)
90%
b)
25%
c)
10%
d)
50%
163.
Which of these organisms are in a trophic level that receives a larger percentage of the energy captured by the producers than the percentage received at the bats’ trophic level?
a)
Mountain Lion
b)
Snake
c)
Hawk
d)
Ground Squirrel
164.
Which two processes are identified by the labels X and Y?
a)
X: Respiration Y: Predation
b)
X: Adaptation Y: Decomposition
c)
X: Fermentation Y: Nitrogen fixation
d)
X: Decomposition Y: Respiration
165.

This graphic diagrams a _______________________.

a)

Food Web

b)

Food Chain

c)

Food Pyramid

d)

Food Buffet

166.
The diagram below is an example of _______________
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Food Pyramid
d)
Food Buffet
167.
An environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?
a)
Auklets
b)
Foxes
c)
Salmon
d)
Zooplankton
168.
A relationship between two organisms in which both organisms benefit.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
169.
Two organisms fighting over the same resource.
a)
commensalism
b)
niche
c)
competition
170.
A relationship between two organisms where one benefits and the other is neither harmed nor helped.
a)
commensalism
b)
competition
c)
niche
171.
A relationship between two organisms where one species benefits while the other is harmed.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
172.
Barnacles create home sites by attaching themselves to whales.  This neither harms nor benefits the whales.  What type of symbiotic  relationship is this?
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
173.
Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca moths.  The moths lay their eggs in the flowers where the larvae hatch and eat some of the developing seeds.  Both species benefit.  What type of symbiotic relationship is this?
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
174.
A flea feeds on a mouses' blood to the harming of the mouse.  What type of symbiotic relationship is this?
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
175.
Hermit crabs live in shells made and then abandoned by snails.  This neither harms nor benefits the snails.  What type of symbiotic relationship is this?
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
176.
Mistletoe takes water and nutrients from the spruce tree.  The spruce tree eventually dies.  What type of symbiotic relationship is this?
a)
commensalism
b)
parasitism
c)
mutualism
177.
In a parasitic relationship, one organism is ___________ and one organism is benefiting. 
a)
helped
b)
harmed
c)
not effected
d)
happy
178.
Cattle egrets foraging in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to food and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
179.
Remoras are small fish that swim close to or attach themselves to sharks.  Remoras eat small scraps left as the sharks feed and the sharks are unaffected. 
a)
Competition
b)
Predation
c)
Mutualism
d)
Commensalism
180.
Barnacles create home sites by attaching themselves to whales. Since the barnacle is a filter feeder, it also gets access to more water (and food) due to the relationship. The whale is unaffected.
This is an example of which type of symbiosis?
a)
Commensalism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Competition
181.
 Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower. What type of symbiosis is this?
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
182.
What type of symbiosis is this?
Snails die and leave behind their shells.Hermit crabs find shells left by snails that have died and move in. 
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
183.

Where are you most likely to find a watershed?

a)

In a lake

b)

At the top of a mountain

c)

at the bottom of a valley

d)

everywhere

184.

What definition best describes a watershed?

a)

An area where water infiltrates soil

b)

An area where aquatic plants live and thrive

c)

An area where snow melts and changes the liquid into water

d)

an area that collects precipitation and drains it to the lowest point

185.

Which of the following human activities is LEAST likely to impact a watershed?

a)

Flying in an airplane

b)

Cutting down trees

c)

Fertilizing towns

d)

Reading a book

186.

The boundaries of a watershed are determined by...

a)

elevation

b)

soil type

c)

the amount of water that flows

d)

the kind of organisms in the area

187.

Which statement about water pollution is true?

a)

pollution affects only the surgace of the water

b)

pollution cannot be dissolved in water

c)

pollution impacts both surface water and groundwater

d)

pollution cannot travel through soil to groundwater

188.

What do we call an area that catches water that falls to the Earth's surface and drains it over land or underground

a)

watershed

b)

drain pipe

c)

funnel

d)

stomata

189.

As water flows it picks up...

a)

fertilizers, oils and pesticides

b)

sugar and spice and everything nice

c)

sunshine, sugar, and carbon dioxide

d)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

190.

Watersheds are the areas that drain all the water that falls on land and are vital to life because they support

a)

habitats

b)

ponds

c)

clouds

d)

rainbows

191.

Fertilizer can runoff land into water and cause some aquatic plants to

a)

grow out of control

b)

do nothing

c)

pack their bags and move away

d)

file a complaint with the EPA

192.

How can you help protect watersheds (select ALL correct answers!)

a)

clean up after your pet

b)

stop littering

c)

reduce amount of fertilizers and pesticides

d)

nothing

193.

Water travels to the lowest point because of a powerful force called

a)

gravity

b)

love

c)

Spidey Sense

d)

Riparian

194.

Aquifers and Springs are examples of

a)

groundwater

b)

surface water

c)

water table

195.

An underground layer of permeable rock or sand that collects, holds, and conducts water is a(n)...

a)

Lake

b)

Pond

c)

Aquifer

d)

River

196.

When an aquifer's water table reaches the surface... the groundwater is released as surface water into which TWO? [PICK 2]

a)

Rivers

b)

Swimming Pools

c)

Lakes

d)

Parking Lots

197.

What percentage of Texas's irrigation water come from the Ogallala Aquifer?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

80%

198.

Groundwater can flow like a river through large openings in underground ______ and marble.

a)

Limestone

b)

Diamonds

c)

Coal

d)

Concrete

199.

Which of the following is NOT a Texas Aquifer Type?

a)

Unconfined Aquifer

b)

Confined (Artesian) Aquifer

c)

Karst Aquifer

d)

Glacier Aquifer

200.

Springs are places where water from an aquifer flows to the surface... springs often form along ______.

a)

Faults

b)

Roads

c)

Volcanos

d)

Buildings

201.

True/False.

Aquifers do NOT have pollutants such as gas, oil, fertilizers, and chemicals.

a)

True

b)

False

202.

True/False

Aquifers are underground so there are no photosynthetic plants and no dissolved oxygen found in them.

a)

True

b)

False

203.

True/False

Groundwater is recharged at the same rate it is pumped out of the ground.

a)

True

b)

False

204.

We can conserve groundwater by all of the below EXCEPT-

a)

Taking chemicals to hazardous waste disposal sites

b)

using less fertilizer and herbicides

c)

using impermeable materials for building

d)

using less water from the aquifer

205.

A confined aquifer has several parts including:

a)

Permeable material, karst, and springs

b)

recharge zone, permeable material, and springs

c)

impermeable material, recharge zone, springs

d)

permeable material, impermeable material, recharge zone and springs

206.

Animals in ecosystems in aquifers are adapted to which of the following conditions?

a)

Nutrient poor conditions

b)

Aerobic conditions

c)

no light

d)

Nutrient poor conditions and no light

207.

The headwaters of a river is often found at-

a)

A spring

b)

An unconfined aquifer

c)

A recharge zone

d)

A low recharge aquifer

208.

Aquifers are habitat for unique aquatic organisms that require clean, clear, free flowing water. These ecosystems are predictable environments with constant temperature. How would drought affect these ecosystems?

a)

Increase temperature

b)

Decrease Spring flow

c)

increase carrying capacity

d)

decrease aerobic conditions

209.

What do you call an area where water fills all of the open spaces in sediment and rock?

a)

Zone of Aeration

b)

Water Table

c)

Zone of Saturation

d)

River

210.

What is found on top of the zone of saturation and below the zone of aeration?

a)

River

b)

Lake

c)

Water basin

d)

Water table

211.

Why do you need to bore a hole into the zone of saturation to create a well?

a)

It is because the well needs to be deep enough.

b)

It is because the zone of saturation is rich in minerals.

c)

It is because the zone of saturation contains water.

d)

It is because the water in the zone of saturation is clean.

212.

Which of the following is NOT a threat to ground water?

a)

Overuse

b)

Contamination

c)

Land subsidence

d)

Weathering

213.

If a well is over-pumped... what could happen?

a)

there will be more groundwater

b)

less groundwater + aquifers will dry out

c)

the water table does not change

214.

Which spring is located close to the Texas State University campus in San Marcos, TX?

a)

Comal Spring

b)

San Marcos Spring

c)

Barton Spring

d)

Salado Spring

215.

Which spring is locate in New Brauanfels,TX and is the largest spring west of the Mississippi River?

a)

Comal Spring

b)

San Marcos Spring

c)

Barton Spring

d)

Salado Spring

216.

Which spring is located in Austin, TX? It is the 5th largest in the state and is used for swimming?

a)

Comal Spring

b)

San Marcos Spring

c)

Barton Spring

d)

Salado Spring

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Floriculture Plant ID

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9th - 12th Grade