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Worksheets

1-15

Total questions: 165

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following can use economic principles to improve how they make important​ decisions?

a)

A.

managers in businesses.

b)

B.

individuals

c)

C.

government policymakers

d)

D.

All of the above.

2.


Question content area top

Part 1

What is an economic​ model?

a)


It is a simplified version of some aspect of economic life used to analyze an economic issue.

b)

It is a description of an economic issue that includes all possible related information.

c)


It is a detailed version of some aspect of economic life used to analyze an economic issue.

d)


It is a description of an economic issue based on official government information.

3.

Which of the following is a macroeconomic​ question?

a)

What factors determine the price of​ iPhones?

b)


What determines the wages and benefits of flight​ attendants?

c)

How is the production quantity of wireless earbuds​ determined?

d)

What determines the unemployment​ rate?

4.

Which of the following contributes to the efficiency of​ markets?

a)

Governments play an active role in the

day−to−day

operations of market

b)

Markets are able to bring about an equitable distribution of goods and services.

c)

Markets promote competition and voluntary exchange.

d)


Markets promote equal standards of living.

5.

What does the term​ "marginal" mean in​ economics?

a)


an additional or extra

b)


the edge of a market

c)

.

illegal

d)


secondary

6.

Which of the following best describes an assumption economists make about human​ behavior?

a)

They assume that individuals act rationally all the time in all circumstances.

b)


They assume that people take into account the question of fairness in all decisions they make.  

c)


They assume that individuals act randomly

d)


They assume that rational behavior is useful in explaining choices people make even though people may not behave rationally all the time.

7.

Which of the following is an example of an economic

trade−off

that a firm has to​ make?

a)


deciding what profit margin it desires for its products

b)


whether or not consumers will buy its products

c)

deciding why consumers want its products

d)


whether it is cheaper to produce with more machines or with more workers

8.

The term​ "market" in economics refers to

a)


an organization which sells goods and services.

b)


a legal institution where exchange can take place.

c)


a group of buyers and sellers of a product and the arrangement by which they come together to trade.

d)


a place where money changes hands.

9.

Ted quits his

​$60,000minus−aminus−year

job to be a

stayminus−atminus−home

dad. What is the opportunity cost of his​ decision?

a)

the value he attributes to the joy of parenting

b)

depends on the​ "going rate" for

stay−at−home

dads

c)


at least​ $60,000

d)

zero since he will no longer be earning a salary

10.

Opportunity cost is defined as

a)


the benefit of an activity.

b)


the total value of all alternatives that must be given up to engage in an activity.

c)


the highest valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

d)


the monetary expense associated with an activity.

11.

Allocative efficiency is achieved when

a)


there are no shortages or surpluses in the market.

b)


firms produce the goods and services that consumers value most.

c)


firms produce goods and services at the lowest cost.

d)

goods and services are fairly distributed among consumers in an economy

12.

In a market​ economy, who decides what goods and services will be​ produced?

a)


only the producers

b)


consumers and producers

c)


only consumers

d)


the government

13.

Economic models

a)


A.

are simplified versions of reality.

b)


B.

make no assumptions in order to remain as accurate as possible.

c)


C.

can not be used to analyze

realminus−world

issues.

d)

D.

magnify the complexity of economic issues in order to provide useful data.

14.

Which of the following is a positive economic​ statement?

a)

U.S. firms should not be allowed to outsource production of goods and services.

b)


The government should close income tax loopholes.

c)


If the price of gasoline​ rises, a smaller quantity of it will be bought.

d)


Everyone should live at the same standard of living.

15.


Question content area top

Part 1

Which of the following is a problem inherent in centrally planned​ economies?

a)


A.

Production managers are more concerned with satisfying​ government's orders than with satisfying consumer wants.

b)

B.

There are no problems and​ everyone, including​ consumers, is satisfied.

c)

C.

Unemployment is too high.

d)


D.

There is too much production of

low−​cost,

high−quality

goods and services.

16.

A successful market economy requires well defined property rights and

a)


A.

an independent court system to adjudicate disputes based on the law.

b)

B.

a safety net to ensure that those who cannot participate in the market economy can earn an income.

c)

C.

balanced supplies of all factors of production.

d)

D.

detailed government regulations.

17.

The table above shows the number of labor hours required to produce a wristwatch and a pound of rice in Japan and Thailand.

If the two countries specialize and​ trade, who should export​ wristwatches

a)

There is no basis for trade between the two countries.

b)


Japan

c)

Thailand

d)

They should both be importing wristwatches.

18.

If you can produce more of something than others with the same​ resources, you have

a)


A.

a comparative advantage.

b)


B.

an absolute advantage.

c)


C.

a

free−market

economy

d)

D.

an efficient production system.

19.

A production possibilities frontier with a​ ________ shape indicates increasing opportunity costs as more and more of one good is produced.

a)


bowed outward

b)


linear

c)

perfectly horizontal

d)

.

bowed inward

20.


Question content area top

Part 1

Specializing in the production of a good or service in which one has a comparative advantage enables a country to do which of the​ following?

a)


never have to engage in trade with other nations

b)

consume a combination of goods that lies outside its own production possibilities frontier

c)


produce a combination of goods that lies outside its own production possibilities frontier

d)

increase the variety of products that it can produce with a decrease in resources

21.

If the best lawyer in town is also the best at making​ cappuccino, then according to the theory of comparative​ advantage, this person should

a)


specialize in being a lawyer because its opportunity cost is lower.

b)

pursue the activity she enjoys more.

c)

specialize in making cappuccino because demand is higher for cappuccino than for legal services.

d)

split her time evenly between being a lawyer and making cappuccino.

22.

Carmelita can perform either a combination of 35 manicures and 70 pedicures or a combination of 50 manicures and 45 pedicures. If she now performs 35 manicures and 70​ pedicures, what is the opportunity cost of performing an additional 15​ manicures?

a)


5 pedicures

b)

20 pedicures

c)

25 pedicures

d)


45 pedicures

23.

For each watch that Switzerland​ produces, it gives up the opportunity to make 50 pounds of chocolate. Germany can produce 1 watch for every 100 pounds of chocolate it produces. Which of the following is true about the comparative advantage between the two​ countries?

a)


Switzerland has the comparative advantage in chocolate.

b)


Switzerland has the comparative advantage in watches.

c)

Germany has the comparative advantage in watches and chocolate.

d)

Germany has the comparative advantage in watches.

24.

Comparative advantage means

a)

the ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than any other producer.

b)


the ability to produce a good or service at a higher opportunity cost than any other producer.

c)

compared to others you are better at producing a product.

d)

the ability to produce more of a product with the same amount of resources than any other producer.

25.

The slope of a production possibilities frontier measures the​ ________ of producing one more unit of a good.

a)

opportunity cost

b)


marginal revenue

c)


marginal cost

d)


total revenue

26.

​________ is​ (are) inefficient in that not all resources are being used.

a)

Points A and C

b)


Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point A

27.

The production possibilities frontier shows

a)

the maximum attainable combinations of two products that may be produced in a particular time period with available resources.

b)

what people want firms to produce in a particular time period.

c)

what an equitable distribution of products among citizens would be.

d)


the various products that can be produced now and in the future.

28.

Which of the following is a factor of​ production?

a)

the janitor at the local elementary school

b)


a sofa produced by a furniture manufacturer

c)

$500 in cash

d)

20 shares of Microsoft stock

29.

If the economy is currently producing at point

X​,

what is the opportunity cost of moving to point

W​?

Part 2
a)

19 million tons of steel

b)

5 million tons of paper

c)


3 million tons of steel

d)

9 million tons of paper

30.

An outward shift of a​ nation's production possibilities frontier can occur due to

a)


a natural disaster like a hurricane or bad earthquake.

b)


a change in the amounts of one good desired.

c)


a reduction in unemployment.

d)

an increase in the labor force.

31.

Protectionism is the use of​ ________ to protect domestic firms from foreign competition.

a)

cheap labor

b)


trade barriers

c)


military force

d)

dumping

32.

Whenever a buyer and a seller agree to​ trade, both must believe they will be made better off

a)

unless the buyer resides in a different country than the seller. International trade may make the buyer or seller worse off.

b)

unless one party is richer than the other.

c)

whether the buyer and seller live in the same​ (or different) city or country.

d)

only if the buyer and seller live in countries with market economies.

33.

Free trade refers to trade between countries

a)

that is without restrictions.

b)


that is licensed by both governments.

c)

of products which are free to

low−income

consumers.

d)

that is without shipping costs.

34.

Rob Crusoe and Bill Friday spent their

week−long

vacation on a desert island where they had to find and prepare their own food. Rob and Bill spent one day each fishing and picking berries. The table lists the pounds of output Rob and Bill produced.  

Use the table above to select the statement that accurately interprets the data in the table.

a)

Bill has a greater opportunity cost than Rob for picking berries.

b)


​Bill's opportunity cost for catching fish is less than​ Rob's.

c)

Rob has a greater opportunity cost than Bill for picking berries.

d)

Bill's opportunity cost for picking berries and catching fish are both greater than​ Rob's.

35.

A tax imposed by a government on imports of a good into a country is called

a)

a tariff.

b)

an import quota.

c)


an import levy.

d)


an import fine.

36.

Dumping refers to

a)


selling a product for a price below its cost of production.

b)

selling inferior products to unsuspecting consumers.

c)

exporting products that do not meet domestic safety standards.

d)

illegally avoiding tariffs by selling products on the black market.

37.

Rob Crusoe and Bill Friday spent their

week−long

vacation on a desert island where they had to find and prepare their own food. Rob and Bill spent one day each fishing and picking berries. The table lists the pounds of output Rob and Bill produced.  

Use the table above to select the statement that accurately interprets the data in the table.

a)

Bill has an absolute advantage in picking berries and Rob has an absolute advantage in catching fish.

b)


Rob has an absolute advantage in picking berries and Bill has an absolute advantage in catching fish

c)

Rob has an absolute advantage in picking berries and catching fish.

d)

Bill has an absolute advantage in picking berries and catching fish.

38.

Imports are goods and services bought domestically

a)

and not subject to tariffs.

b)

but produced in other countries.

c)

and resold at a profit.

d)

and produced domestically.

39.

Countries gain from specializing in producing goods in which they have​ ________ and trading for goods in which other countries have​ ________.

a)

a comparative​ advantage; a comparative advantage

b)


an absolute​ advantage; an absolute advantage

c)

a comparative​ advantage; an absolute advantage

d)

an absolute​ advantage; a comparative advantage

40.

Which of the following is common to both tariffs and​ quotas?

a)

Tariffs and quotas are both used as a means to increase government revenue.

b)

Tariffs and quotas are both designed to reduce foreign competition faced by domestic firms.

c)


Tariffs and quotas both increase economic efficiency.

d)

Tariffs and quotas are both examples of voluntary export restraints.

41.

Examples of comparative advantage show how trade between two countries can make each better off. Compared to their

preminus−trade

​positions, trade makes both countries better off because in each country

a)

wages are higher.

b)

total welfare is greater.

c)


total employment is greater.

d)


total consumption of goods is greater.

42.

Rob Crusoe and Bill Friday spent their

weekminus−long

vacation on a desert island where they had to find and prepare their own food. Rob and Bill spent one day each fishing and picking berries. The table lists the pounds of output Rob and Bill produced.  

Use the table above to select the statement that accurately interprets the data in the table.

Part 2
a)

Rob has a comparative advantage in picking berries.

b)


Bill has a comparative advantage in picking berries.

c)

Bill has a comparative advantage in catching fish.

d)


Rob has a comparative advantage in catching fish and picking berries.

43.

A quota is

a)

a tax imposed by a government on goods imported into a country.

b)

a subsidy granted to importers of a vital input.

c)

a limit placed on the quantity of goods that can be imported into a country.

d)


a health and safety restriction imposed on an imported product.

44.

An economic principle that explains why people pursue different occupations is

a)


absolute advantage.

b)

comparative advantage.

c)

international trade.

d)

NAFTA.

45.

Trade that is within a country or between countries is based on the principle of

a)


scarcity.

b)

absolute advantage.

c)

comparative advantage.

d)

competition.

46.


Question content area top

Part 1

If the United States lifts the embargo on Cuban​ products, what will happen in the U.S. market for Cuban​ cigars?

a)

The demand curve will shift to the right.

b)

The demand curve will shift to the left.

c)


The supply curve will shift to the left.

d)

The supply curve will shift to the right.

47.

Which of the following would cause both the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity of barley​ (assume that barley is an inferior​ good) to​ increase?

a)


a drought that sharply reduces barley output

b)


unusually good weather that results in a bumper crop of barley

c)

a decrease in consumer income

d)


an increase in consumer income

48.

A change in which variable will change the market demand for a​ product?

a)


A.

the number of firms in the market

b)


B.

expected future prices

c)

C.

the price of the product

d)


D.

the quantity of the product supplied

49.

In​ September, buyers of silver expect that the price of silver will rise in October. What happens in the silver market in​ September, holding all else​ constant?

a)


The quantity demanded decreases.

b)

The demand curve shifts to the left.

c)

The demand curve shifts to the right.

d)


The quantity demanded increases.

50.

The table above shows the demand schedules for Kona coffee of two individuals​ (Luke and​ Ravi) and the rest of the market. At a price of​ $6, the quantity demanded in the market would be

a)


36 lbs.

b)

68 lbs.

c)


89 lbs.

d)

123 lbs.

51.

Which of the following would cause the equilibrium price of ketchup to increase and the equilibrium quantity of ketchup to​ decrease?

a)


an increase in the price of​ mustard, a substitute for ketchup

b)


a decrease in the price of tomatoes

c)

an increase in the price of tomatoes

d)

an increase in the price of french​ fries, a complement for ketchup

52.

Suppose that when the price of hamburgers​ increases, the Ruiz family increases their purchases of hot dogs. To the Ruiz​ family,

a)

hamburgers and hot dogs are complements.

b)


hamburgers and hot dogs are substitutes.

c)

hamburgers and hot dogs are normal goods.

d)

hamburgers and hot dogs are inferior goods.

53.

Farmers can plant either corn or soybeans in their fields. Which of the following would cause the supply of soybeans to​ increase?

a)


an increase in the demand for corn

b)

a decrease in the price of corn

c)

an increase in the price of soybeans

d)

an increase in the price of soybean seeds

54.

A supply curve

a)


is a curve that shows the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity of the product that producers and consumers are willing to exchange.

b)

is a curve that shows the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity of the product supplied.

c)

is a table that shows the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity of the product supplied.

d)


is the relationship between the supply of a good and the cost of producing the good. 

55.

Water bottles are considered normal goods. This means that as income​ increases,

Part 2
a)

demand for water bottles should decrease.

b)

supply of water bottles should increase.

c)

demand for water bottles should increase.

d)

supply of water bottles should decrease.

56.

Which of the following would cause an increase in the supply of​ cheese?

a)


an increase in the price of cheese

b)


an increase the price of a product that producers sell instead of cheese

c)


an increase in the number of firms that produce cheese

d)

a decrease in the price of wine​ (assuming that cheese and wine are​ complements)

57.

If in the market for apples the supply has​ decreased, then

a)


there has been a movement upwards along the supply curve for apples.

b)


the supply curve for apples has shifted to the left.

c)


there has been a movement downwards along the supply curve for apples.

d)

the supply curve for apples has shifted to the right.

58.

At market​ equilibrium,

a)

surpluses are greater than shortages.

b)


quantity demanded equals quantity supplied.

c)


demand equals supply.

d)

shortages are greater than surpluses.

59.

A(n) ________ is represented by a rightward shift of the demand curve while​ a(n) ________ is represented by a movement along a given demand curve.

a)

increase in​ demand; increase in quantity demanded

b)


increase in quantity​ demanded; increase in demand

c)


decrease in​ demand; decrease in quantity demanded

d)

increase in​ demand; decrease in demand

60.

A firm has an incentive to decrease supply now and increase supply in the future if it expects that

a)

more firms will enter the market in the future.

b)


the prices of inputs used to produce the product will rise in the future.

c)


the price of its product will be lower in the future than it is today.

d)

the price of its product will be higher in the future than it is today.

Your answer is correct.

61.

During a business cycle​ expansion, total production​ ________ and total employment​ ___________.

Part 2
a)


​decreases; decreases

b)

decreases; increases

c)

increases; increases

d)

​increases; decreases

62.

Macroeconomics seeks to understand

a)

economic​ growth, business​ cycles, and inflation.

b)


product​ demand, product​ cost, and profit maximization.

c)


public​ choices, private​ choices, and consumer maximization.

d)


industry​ sales, marketing​ strategies, and corporate growth.

63.

In calculating gross domestic​ product, the Bureau of Economic Analysis uses the sum of the market value of final goods and services produced. This means that the BEA

a)


values goods and services at their market​ prices, multiplies them by the quantity​ produced, and then adds them up.

b)


simply counts the total number of goods and services produced in the marketplace and then adds them up.

c)


values goods at their market​ prices, multiplies them by the quantity​ produced, and then adds them up.

d)


simply counts the total number of goods produced in the market place and then adds them up.

64.

The nominal GDP of the United States in 2022 was approximately​ $25.5 trillion. This means that

a)

the value of output in 2022 was around​ $25.5 trillion.

b)


total spending in 2022 was around​ $25.5 trillion.

c)


total income in 2022 was around​ $25.5 trillion.

d)

All of the above are true.

65.

nvestment, as defined by​ economists, would include the purchase of a

a)

share of stock in ExxonMobil.

b)

corporate bond.

c)

government bond.

d)


computer by an accounting firm.

66.

To calculate GDP by the expenditure method one must add

a)

consumption​ spending, investment​ spending, government​ purchases, and exports.

b)

labor, natural​ resources, entrepreneurship, and capital.

c)

wages, rents,​ interest, and profits.

d)

consumption​ spending, investment​ spending, government​ purchases, and net exports.

67.

In​ 2022, which component of GDP had a negative​ value?

a)

government purchases

b)


consumption

c)

net exports

d)


investment

68.

What is the largest component of spending in the​ U.S.?

a)

government purchases

b)


investment spending

c)


consumption spending

d)

net investment spending

69.

​________ is/are the payment for the factor of production​ ________.

a)

Profit; entrepreneurship

b)


​Interest; labor

c)

Rent; capital

d)


​Wages; capital

70.

Government spending​ ________ is included in gross domestic product.

a)


at state and local levels of government only

b)


on defense goods only

c)

at​ federal, state, and local levels of government

d)

at the federal level of government only

71.

In a small​ economy, consumption spending is​ $6,000, government purchases are​ $1,200, gross investment is​ $1,500, exports are​ $2,000, and imports are​ $1,000. What is gross domestic​ product?

a)

$9,700

b)

​$9,800

c)


​$10,800

d)

$11,700

72.

The size of the underground economy would tend to increase if the government of a country

a)


decreased government regulations on businesses.

b)

legalized prostitution.

c)

increased income tax rates.

d)


legalized drugs.

73.

If real GDP increases we know for sure that

a)

output has risen.

b)


prices have risen but output has remained constant.

c)


prices have risen.

d)

prices have remained constant.

74.

The GDP deflator is equal to

a)

real GDP divided by nominal GDP.

b)

nominal GDP divided by real​ GDP, multiplied by 100

c)


real GDP divided by nominal​ GDP, multiplied by 100.

d)

nominal GDP divided by real GDP.

75.

Disposable personal income equals personal income


a)


minus government transfer payments plus personal tax payments.

b)


minus personal tax payments.

c)


minus personal tax payments plus government transfer payments

d)

plus government transfer payments.

76.

The labor force equals the number of people


a)

in the

working−age

population.

b)

.

employed plus unemployed.

c)

unemployed.

d)

employed.

77.

Assume the market basket for the consumer price index has two

productslong dash—meat

and

potatoeslong dash—with

the following values in 2017 and 2024 for price and​ quantity:


The Consumer Price Index for 2024 equals

a)


129.

b)

135.

c)

125

d)

141

78.

According to the​ text, economists consider full employment to occur when

Part 2
a)

the unemployment rate consists of only frictional and structural unemployment.

b)

frictional unemployment equals zero.

c)

everyone who wants a job has a job.

d)

the sum of frictional unemployment and structural unemployment equals zero.

79.

If firms pay what are called​ "efficiency wages", they pay wages that

Part 2
a)

motivate workers to increase their productivity.

b)

.

are lower than average to ensure maximum profit.

c)

will eventually lower the unemployment rate.

d)

lower the cost of production to the firm.

80.


Question content area

Part 1

If the nominal rate of interest is​ 6.5% and the inflation rate is​ 3.0%, what is the real rate of​ interest?

a)


–​9.5%

b)


-​3.5%

c)

1.5%

d)

​3.5%

81.

If the minimum wage is set above the market​ wage,

Part 2
a)

highly−skilled

workers will have a harder time finding jobs.

b)

unemployment will rise.

c)


the quantity of labor supplied will be below the quantity of labor demanded.

d)


all of the above are correct.

82.

Which of the following is the smallest portion of the market basket of goods that makes up the​ CPI?

a)

food and beverages

b)

housing

c)

apparel

d)

transportation

83.

Assume the average annual CPI values for 2023 and 2024 were 207.3 and​ 215.3, respectively. What was the percent increase in the CPI between these two​ years?

Part 2
a)

3.86

b)

1.04

c)

8.0

d)

0.96

84.

Cyclical unemployment is the result of

a)


the search process of matching workers with jobs.

b)


a slowdown in the economy.

c)


a persistent mismatch between the skills and characteristics of workers and the requirements of the jobs.

d)

the ups and downs in inflation.

85.

The Bureau of Labor Statistics would categorize a retiree who is not working as​ _________.

Part 2
a)

employed

b)

a discouraged worker

c)


unemployed

d)

out of the labor force

86.

If your nominal wage rises faster than the price​ level, we can say your real wage has​ ________ and the purchasing power of your income has​ ________.

Part 2
a)


​fallen; risen

b)

​risen; risen

c)


​fallen; fallen

d)


​risen; fallen

87.

If advances in​ robotics, automation, and artificial intelligence lead to the elimination of​ jobs, and the people who held those jobs need to learn new skills to find new​ jobs, those people would be considered

Part 2
a)

seasonally unemployed.

b)

cyclically unemployed.

c)


frictionally unemployed.

d)

structurally unemployed.

88.

What is outlet​ bias?

a)


the tendency for households to spend their money at discount stores as prices rise

b)

the tendency for the quality of products to improve over time even though the CPI does not measure changes in quality

c)

the tendency for consumers to purchase​ newer, more technologically advanced products even though they have higher prices

d)

the tendency for households to spend more money over time

89.

Which of the following causes the unemployment rate to understate the true extent of​ joblessness?

a)

A drug dealer reports herself as unemployed.

b)


Discouraged workers are not counted as unemployed.

c)

Persons who collect unemployment benefits report themselves to be searching for a job.

d)

Many​ full-time workers really want to be​ part-time workers.

90.

Consider the data in the table above for a simple economy. The unemployment rate for this simple economy equals

a)

100/1,000 x 100

b)

100/1,100 x 100

c)

100/20,000 x 100

d)

100/15,000 x 100

91.

A good measure of the standard of living is

a)


nominal GDP per capita.

b)

real GDP per capita.

c)

total real GDP.

d)


total nominal GDP.

92.

According to the​ "Rule of​ 70", how many years will it take for real GDP per capita to double when the growth rate of real GDP per capita is​ 5%?

Part 2
a)

less than 1 year

b)

14 years

c)

35 years

d)

5 years

93.

Since​ 1900, real GDP in the U.S. has grown

Part 2
a)

in a random unpredictable manner relative to the population.

b)


more rapidly than the population.

c)


more slowly than the population.

d)


as rapidly as the population.

94.

Which of the following is an example of human​ capital?


a)


a factory building

b)

a computer

c)

.

a college education

d)

a software program

95.

The total amount of physical capital available in a country is know as the​ country's


a)

capital stock.

b)

investment.

c)

.

labor productivity.

d)

savings.

96.

Borrowers are​ ________ of loanable​ funds, and lenders are​ ________ of loanable funds.

a)

​suppliers; demanders

b)

suppliers; suppliers

c)


​demanders; demanders

d)


​demanders; suppliers

97.

Technological advances generally result in

a)

decreased incomes.

b)

increased average number of hours worked per day.

c)

increased life expectancy.

d)

increased infant mortality rates.

98.

Countries with high rates of economic growth tend to have

a)


a lower life expectancy at birth.

b)


longer workweeks.

c)


a labor force that is more productive.

d)


a declining incidence of business cycle fluctuations.

99.

When the economy enters a recessionary phase of the business​ cycle, unemployment tends to

a)


decrease.

b)


be unchanged.

c)

increase

d)


change in the same direction as the rate of inflation.

100.

The response of investment spending to an increase in the government budget deficit is called


a)

expansionary investment.

b)

income minus net taxes.

c)

crowding out

d)

private dissaving.

101.

An increase in the demand for loanable funds will occur if there is


a)


a decrease in the real interest rate.

b)

an increase in the real interest rate.

c)


an increase in the nominal interest rate accompanied by an equal increase in inflation.

d)

an increase in expected profits from firm investment projects.

102.

There is a federal budget deficit when

a)

taxes are too high.

b)

the government spends less that it collects in taxes.

c)

the government spends more that it collects in taxes.

d)

the government spends the same amount it collects in taxes.

103.

Refer to the diagram. Which of the following is consistent with the​ diagram?

Part 2
a)


Investment spending is declining due to crowding out

b)

The government runs a budget surplus.

c)


New government regulations decrease the profitability of new investment.

d)

An expected expansion increases the profitability of new investment.

104.

If real GDP per capita measured in 2009 dollars was​ $6,000 in 1950 and​ $48,000 in​ 2024, we would say that in​ 2024, the average American could buy​ ________ times as many goods and services as the average American in 1950.


a)


12

b)

​1/8

c)


8

d)


4

105.

Which of the following increases labor​ productivity?

a)


a decline in health of the population

b)

an increase in the aggregate hours of work

c)

decreases in the availability of computers and factory buildings

d)

inventions of new​ machinery, equipment, or software

106.

Over the past 60​ years, deaths among children have

a)

.

declined in most​ high-income countries and have remained relatively unchanged in most​ low-income countries.

b)

declined in nearly all​ countries, including most​ low-income countries.

c)

remained relatively unchanged in most​ high-income countries and have declined in most​ low-income countries.

d)


declined in most​ high-income countries and have risen in most​ low-income countries.

107.

Disease, poor​ nutrition, and substandard health care in developing nations can reduce growth in an economy by


a)

reducing human capital.

b)


increasing labor productivity.

c)

increasing technological change.

d)


reducing physical capital.

108.

When additions of input to a fixed quantity of another input lead to progressively smaller increases in​ output, we say we are facing

a)

accelerating returns.

b)


decreasing production.

c)


negative returns.

d)

diminishing returns.

109.

The term​ "brain drain" refers to

a)

the negative impact on brain function of an​ individual's overinvestment in human capital.

b)


the diminishing returns to studying for an exam.

c)


highly educated individuals who leave developing countries for

high−income

countries

d)

the decreased quality of the

collegeminus−educated

workforce.

110.

According to Joseph​ Schumpeter, economic growth is achieved through

Part 2
a)

removing the entrepreneur from the production function.

b)

focusing only on making old products better rather than inventing new ones.

c)


a process termed creative destruction.

d)

centralizing economic production.

111.

Countries that are more globalized tend to have

Part 2
a)


a higher likelihood of war or revolution.

b)


lower levels of real GDP per capita.

c)

higher growth rates in real GDP per capita.

d)

lower levels of foreign direct investment.

112.

High income countries have​ _________ and​ _________ as compared to developing countries.

a)


low rates of​ savings; low rates of growth

b)

low rates of​ savings; high rates of growth

c)


high rates of​ savings; high rates of growth

d)


high rates of​ savings; low rates of growth

113.

The purchase or building by a corporation of a facility in a foreign country is called

Part 2
a)


globally−directed

investment.

b)


foreign portfolio investment.

c)


foreign direct investment.

d)

foreign capital depreciation.

114.

Enforcing property rights in an economy will

a)

decrease the level of foreign portfolio investment.

b)

encourage corruption and expand the underground economy.

c)


raise the level of investment.

d)


cause the market system to work less efficiently.

115.

The best measure of a​ country's standard of living is

a)

real GDP per capita.

b)

real GDP per labor hour.

c)

real GDP per unit of capital.

d)

total nominal GDP.

116.

According to new growth​ theory,

a)

​centrally-planned economies are the most efficient.

b)

technological change is influenced by economic incentives.

c)

growth in real GDP per capita occurs only if there are increasing returns.

d)

economic growth is determined by forces outside the control of the market system.

117.

How can freedom of the press promote economic​ growth?

a)

A free press can be more easily swayed to report only one side of any issue.

b)

A free press reduces the likelihood that judges will protect private property rights.

c)


A free press can act as a watchdog for​ corruption, increasing the chances for economic growth.

d)

A free press does not promote economic growth.

118.

Refer to the diagram to the right. Based on the​ per-worker production​ function, if the economy raises capital per hour worked from​ $35,000 to​ $40,000, by how much will real GDP per hour worked​ increase?

a)

2000

b)

5000

c)

150

d)

1850

119.

The period of time from​ 1,000,000 B.C. to 1300 A.D. was a period of

a)

moderate economic growth.

b)

rapid and sustained economic growth.

c)

no sustained economic growth

d)

slow and steady economic growth.

120.

Significant economic growth did not begin in the world until

Part 2
a)

1000 A.D.

b)

1820 A.D.

c)

1750 A.D.

d)

the 20th century A.D.

121.

Assuming the economy is initially at full​ employment, a decrease in aggregate demand in the economy will have what effect on macroeconomic equilibrium in the long​ run?

Part 2
a)

The price level will​ rise, and the level of GDP will fall.

b)

The price level will​ fall, and the level of GDP will fall.

c)

The price level will​ fall, and the level of GDP will be unaffected.  

d)

The price level will​ rise, and the level of GDP will be unaffected.

122.

An increase in aggregate demand results in​ a(n) ________ in the​ ________.

Part 2
a)

recession; short run

b)


​recession; long run

c)


​expansion; long run

d)

expansion; short run

123.

Refer to the figure to the right. Ceteris​ paribus, a decrease in government spending would be represented by a movement from

a)


AD1

to

AD2.

b)

AD2

to

AD1.

c)


point A to point

B.

d)


point B to point

A.

124.

In the dynamic aggregated demand and aggregate supply​ model, inflation occurs if

a)


the AD curve shifts to the left and the SRAS curve shifts to the right.

b)

the AD curve shifts to the left and the LRAS curve shifts to the right.

c)

the SRAS curve shifts more to the right than the AD curve.

d)

the AD curve shifts more to the right than the LRAS curve.

125.

Refer to the figure. Suppose the economy is at point

A.

If the economy experiences a negative supply​ shock, where will the eventual​ short-run equilibrium​ be?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

126.

Changes in the price level

a)

increase the level of aggregate supply in the long run only at very high levels of output.

b)

.

do not affect the level of aggregate supply in the long run.

c)


increase the level of aggregate supply in the long run.

d)

decrease the level of aggregate supply in the long run.

127.

Suppose a developing country receives more machinery and capital equipment as foreign entrepreneurs increase the amount of investment in the economy. As a​ result,


a)

the long run aggregate supply curve will shift to the left.

b)

the economy will move up along the long run aggregate supply curve.

c)

the long run aggregate supply curve will shift to the right.

d)


the economy will move down along the long run aggregate supply curve.

128.

Which of the following will shift the aggregate demand curve to the​ left, ceteris

paribus​?

a)


an increase in interest rates

b)

an increase in disposable income

c)

an increase in expected profits for firms

d)

an increase in net exports

129.

Higher personal income taxes

Part 2
a)

increase aggregate demand.

b)


increase disposable income.

c)

decrease aggregate demand.

d)


both B and C.

130.

Interest rates in the economy have fallen. How will this affect aggregate demand and equilibrium in the short​ run?

Part 2
a)

Aggregate demand will​ rise, the equilibrium price level will​ rise, and the equilibrium level of GDP will rise.

b)

Aggregate demand will​ fall, the equilibrium price level will​ rise, and the equilibrium level of GDP will fall.

c)

Aggregate demand will​ rise, the equilibrium price level will​ fall, and the equilibrium level of GDP will rise.

d)

Aggregate demand will​ fall, the equilibrium price level will​ fall, and the equilibrium level of GDP will fall.

131.

Stagflation occurs when

a)

inflation rises and GDP rises.

b)


inflation falls and GDP falls.

c)

inflation rises and GDP falls.

d)

inflation falls and GDP rises.

132.

Potential GDP refers to the level of


a)

nominal GDP in the long run.

b)

nominal GDP in the short run.

c)

real GDP in the short run.

d)

real GDP in the long run.

133.

Refer to the figure to the right. Ceteris

paribus​,

an increase in the labor force would be represented by a movement from


a)


SRAS1

to

SRAS2.

b)

SRAS2

to

SRAS1.

c)

point A to point

B.

d)

point B to point

A.

134.

Which of the following is one explanation as to why the aggregate demand curve slopes​ downward?

a)

Decreases in the U.S. price level relative to the price level in other countries lower net exports.

b)

Decreases in the price level raise the interest rate and increase investment spending.

c)

Decreases in the price level raise real wealth and increase consumption spending.

d)

Decreases in the price level raise the interest rate and increase consumption spending.

135.

Refer to the diagram to the right. Suppose the economy is at point A. If investment spending increases in the​ economy, where will the eventual long run equilibrium​ be?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

136.

Which of the following assets is most​ liquid?

a)

a house

b)


stock

c)


money

d)


bond

137.

A central bank can help stop a bank panic by

a)

calling in consumer loans.

b)

raising the required reserve ratio.

c)


acting as a lender of last resort.

d)

decreasing income taxes.

138.


Question content area

Part 1

The seven members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve are appointed by

Part 2
a)


the Governors of the States.

b)

Congress.

c)


leaders in the banking industry

d)

the President.

139.

The new Keynesians emphasize the importance of

a)

rational expectations.

b)

the monetary growth rule.

c)

real causes of the business cycle.

d)

sticky wages and prices.

140.

Dollar bills in the modern economy serve as money because

Part 2
a)

people have confidence that others will accept them as money.

b)

they have value as a commodity independent of their use as money.

c)

they are backed by the gold stored in Fort Knox.

d)


they can be redeemed for gold by the central bank.

141.

If workers and firms have rational​ expectations, they form their expectations using

a)

only information provided to them by the government.

b)


only information gathered from random sources.

c)


all the information available to them.

d)


only information from the past.

142.

The​ statement, "My iPhone is worth​ $700" represents​ money's function as

Part 2
a)


a unit of account.

b)

a standard of deferred payment.

c)

a medium of exchange.

d)


a store of value.

143.

The most liquid measure of money supply is

a)

M2

b)

M1

c)

M3

d)

M10

e)

L

144.

If a person withdraws​ $500 from​ his/her savings account and puts it in​ his/her checking​ account, then M1 will​ ________ and M2 will​ ________.

a)


​increase; not change

b)

not​ change; increase

c)

​increase; decrease

d)

not​ change; not change

145.


Question content area

Part 1

Silver is an example of a

Part 2
a)


fiat money.

b)

representative money.

c)

commodity money.

d)

barter money.

146.

How many Federal Reserve Districts are there in the Federal Reserve​ System?

Part 2
a)

1

b)

6

c)

12

d)

18

147.

​Typically, a​ bank's largest asset is its

a)

loans

b)

holdings of securities.

c)

deposits of its customers.

d)

reserves

148.


Question content area

Part 1

When banks make​ loans, they

Part 2
a)

increase the money supply.

b)

decrease deposits.

c)

increase reserves.

d)

decrease the money supply.

149.

Bank reserves include

a)

vault cash and deposits with the Federal Reserve.

b)

vault cash and loans to bank customers.

c)


loans to bank customers and deposits with the Federal Reserve.

d)

customer checking accounts and vault cash

150.

In​ 1980, one Zimbabwean dollar was worth 1.47 U.S. dollars. By the end of​ 2008, the exchange rate was one U.S. dollar to 2 billion Zimbabwean dollars. When an economy experiences rapid increases in the price level such as what occurred in​ Zimbabwe, the economy is said to experience


a)

stagflation.

b)

inflation

c)

hyperinflation

d)

deflation

151.

Inflation targeting refers to conducting​ ________ policy so as to commit the central bank to achieving a​ ________.


a)

​monetary; publicly announced level of inflation

b)

​monetary; zero inflation rate

c)


​fiscal; zero inflation rate

d)

fiscal; publicly announced level of inflation

152.

To reduce the inflation​ rate, the Fed would implement​ a(n) ________ monetary policy by​ ________ its target for the federal funds rate.

a)


​expansionary; raising

b)


​expansionary; lowering

c)


​contractionary; raising

d)


​contractionary; lowering

153.

In the federal funds market represented in the​ figure, the discount rate is represented by

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

154.

Statements by the Federal Open Market Committee about how it will conduct monetary policy in the future describes the monetary policy tool called

a)

forward guidance.

b)

floor operations.

c)


gerrymandering.

d)

quantitative easing.

155.

Which of the following statements about inflation targeting is​ true?

a)


Inflation targeting by the central banks in other countries has not lowered inflation.

b)

.

Inflation targeting would not reduce the flexibility of monetary policy to address other policy goals.

c)

Inflation targeting would make it easier for households and firms to form accurate expectations of future​ inflation, improving their planning and the efficiency of the economy.

d)

Inflation targeting would not allow the central bank the flexibility to take action against a severe recession.

156.

In the​ figure, if the economy is at point

A​,

the appropriate monetary policy by the Federal Reserve would be to

a)

lower interest rates.

b)

lower income taxes.

c)


raise income taxes

d)


raise income taxes

157.

The​ Fed's preferred measure of inflation is

a)

the GDP deflator.

b)

the consumer price index.

c)

the index of leading economic indicators.

d)

the core personal consumption expenditures price index.

158.

Monetary policy refers to the actions the

a)

Federal Reserve takes to manage government spending and taxes to pursue its economic objectives.

b)

President and Congress take to manage interest rates to pursue their economic objectives.

c)

President and Congress take to manage government spending and taxes to pursue their economic objectives.

d)

Federal Reserve takes to manage interest rates to pursue its economic objectives.

159.

Your roommate is having trouble grasping how monetary policy works. Which of the following explanations could you use to correctly describe the mechanism in which the Fed can affect the economy through monetary​ policy? Increasing the money supply

a)


lowers the interest​ rate, raises the value of the​ dollar, lowers the prices of​ exports, and raises net exports.

b)

lowers the interest​ rate, and firms increase investment spending.

c)

raises the interest rate and consumers decrease spending on durable goods.

d)

causes people to spend more because they have more money.

160.

The main way the Fed can influence aggregate demand is through its ability to affect

a)

the money supply.

b)


interest rates.

c)


the unemployment rate.

d)

the demand for money.

161.

Which of the following describes what the Fed would do to pursue an expansionary monetary​ policy?

a)

The Fed would lower the interest rate on reserve balances​ (IORB) to achieve a​ new, lower target for the federal funds rate.

b)

The Fed would lower the interest rate on reserve balances​ (IORB) to achieve a​ new, higher target for the federal funds rate.

c)

The Fed would raise the interest rate on reserve balances​ (IORB) to achieve a​ new, higher target for the federal funds rate.

d)

The Fed would raise the interest rate on reserve balances​ (IORB) to achieve a​ new, lower target for the federal funds rate.

162.


Question content area

Part 1

In the federal funds market represented in the​ figure, the interest rate on reserve balances is represented by


a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

163.

The federal funds rate is the interest rate

a)


the Fed pays to banks on reserve balances.

b)

the Fed charges banks for overnight loans.

c)

the Fed pays for overnight reverse repurchase agreements

d)

banks charge each other for overnight loans.

164.

When the Federal Reserve was established in​ 1913, its main policy goal was

a)

encouraging strong economic growth.

b)


keeping employment high.

c)

preventing bank panics.

d)

promoting price stability.

165.

To increase the equilibrium federal funds rate in an​ ample-reserves regime, the Fed would

a)


raise the discount rate.

b)

raise the interest rate on reserve balances.

c)


conduct an open market sale of treasury securities.

d)

make an open market purchase of Treasury securities.